OM-A, FCTM, CAR-OPS, QRH, MEL, OM-E

Question 1

Which of the following de-icing and anti-icing fluids is used for De-icing purpose only?

Type I

Type II

Type III

Type IV

Answer 1

Type I

Question 2

Fuel uplift measured by the supplier, shall be within which of the following tolerance?

Actual uplift greater than calculated uplift; 5% of calculated uplift up to a MAX of 2000kg

Actual uplift less than calculated uplift; 5% of calculated uplift up to a MAX of 2000kg

Actual uplift greater than calculated uplift; 5% of calculated uplift up to a MAX of 1000kg

Answer 2

Actual uplift greater than calculated uplift; 5% of calculated uplift up to a MAX of 2000kg

Question 3

Fuel Uplift: Calculated uplift 25,100 kg, actual uplift 30,000 liters, fuel density 0.800 kg/liter. Are there any actions required?

No, the fuel uplift check criteria are fulfilled

Yes, the applicable tolerance of 5% has been exceeded

Yes. The applicable tolerance of 1,000 kg has been exceeded

Answer B and C are correct

Answer 3

Yes. The applicable tolerance of 1,000 kg has been exceeded

Question 4

What is the earliest recognizable stall warning signs?

Initial buffet, stick shaker and stall warning horn

Auto throttle ‘wake up5 function

Initial buffet or stick shaker

Pitch envelope protection

Answer 4

Initial buffet or stick shaker

Question 5

After which occurrence must a landing be made at the Nearest Suitable Airport?

Loss of both engine driven generators

Any bomb threat (green or red)

A fire on board an aircraft and firefighting is effective

An engine failure on a two engine aircraft

Answer 5

An engine failure on a two engine aircraft

Question 6

Which Question is not true regarding the definition of Company VMC?

The requirements may be found in the Lido Gen Text

Emirates is authorized to operate in VMC conditions

Visual contact with the ground is required at all times

Answer 6

Visual contact with the ground is required at all times

Question 7

Which statement regarding the requirements of how to complete/fill-in the OFP is incorrect?

Top of Descent/climb fuel must be entered

Fuel checks should be carried out and entered on the flight log section of the OFP at intervals normally not exceeding 30 minutes.

Fuel checks should be carried out and entered on the flight log section of the OFP at intervals normally not exceeding 60 minutes.

Answer 7

Fuel checks should be carried out and entered on the flight log section of the OFP at intervals normally not exceeding 60 minutes

Question 8

Cold Temperature altitude corrections have to be applied for which minimum safe altitudes/heights, in ISA -45 condition or colder?

En-route minimum safe/minimum obstacle clearance altitudes

Approach minima (DA/MDA and engine out minimum acceleration altitude

All approach procedures altitudes (procedure turn, final fix, intermediate fix and missed approach altitude?
All of the above

Answer 8

All of the above

Question 9

If equipment fails or is degraded below the required RNP prior to departure and repair is not practical, what are the options?

Dubai Flight Dispatch should be contacted

Flight Dispatch will arrange the required approvals to proceed to the nearest suitable airport where repairs can be made

Item 18 of the ATC flight plan should contain the information ‘STS/RNAV/INOP’

All of the above

Answer 9

Dubai Flight Dispatch should be contacted

Question 10

On a SID, at which altitude may a turn earliest be initiated (no specific SID requirements)?

300 ft AGL

400 ft AGL

500 ft AGL

800 ft AGL

Answer 10

400 ft AGL

Question 11

Is it permissible to continue towards destination (committed to destination), if expecting to land with less than ‘ALT + FRSV fuel’ and the maximum delay is not known?

NO

Yes, at pilots discretion

Yes, but only if there are 2 separate and independent RWYS at the destination available, or 2 airports are reachable and landing is assured with at least final reserve fuel on board.

Answer 11

Yes, but only if there are 2 separate and independent RWYS at the destination available, or 2 airports are reachable and landing is assured with at least final reserve fuel on board.

Question 12

For instrument approaches with DA below 200 feet, what is the minimum Missed Approach Climb Gradient required with the critical engine failed?

At least 2.1% or the published gradient, whichever is the greater

At least 2.5%, or the published gradient, whichever is greater

At least 3.2% or the published gradient, whichever is the greater

At least the published gradient

Answer 12

At least 2.5%, or the published gradient, whichever is greater

Question 13

Which statement is true about Hoar Frost?

Hoar frost is thin if items on the surface below the layer of frost, such as paint lines, marks or letters can be seen

Only hoar frost of more than 3mm of thickness is operationally significant

Hoar frost is and icy layer of constant thickness with a smooth crystalline texture Answer A and C from above

Answer 13

Answer A and C from above

Question 14

On a particular flight, an airplane is fitted with 434 PAX seats, 400 POB are actually on board, 18 Cabin Crew seats are installed and 10 Emergency exits are available. What is the minimum legal number of cabin crew members required?

8

9

10

11

Answer 14

10

Question 15

The aircraft Tech Log system allows the Commander to satisfy himself that the aircraft is airworthy in accordance with which document(s)

OM-A

FCOM

MEL and CDL

Answer A and C from above

Answer 15

Answer A and C from above

Question 16

What do you expect the cabin crew should do after hearing a “Purser to the Flight Deck” announcement?

The cabin crew should clear the cabin of all trolleys, return to their respective allocated stations, review their OM-E and await a briefing call from either the Purser or the Captain

The cabin crew should secure their trolleys, get seated at the nearest available seat, prepare mentally for possible emergency and await a briefing call from either the Purser or Captain

The cabin crew should clear the cabin of all trolleys, return to their respective allocated stations, check their emergency equipment and await a briefing call from either the Purser or the Captain

Answer 16

The cabin crew should clear the cabin of all trolleys, return to their respective allocated stations, review their OM-E and await a briefing call from either the Purser or the Captain

Question 17

What is the ‘Target Time’ for flight crew respective cabin crew to be on board of the aircraft before scheduled departure time?

60 mins for Cabin crew respective 40mins for Flight Crew

55 mins for Cabin Crew respective 35mins for Flight Crew

Just early enough to ensure proper aircraft preparation

Answer 17

55 mins for Cabin Crew respective 35mins for Flight Crew

Question 18

When is a Pre-Takeoff Contamination Inspection (PCI) mandatory?

When the Max holdover time has elapsed and a takeoff is contemplated

Condition of heavy snow and a takeoff is contemplated

When severe icing is reported and a takeoff is contemplated

All of the above

Answer 18

All of the above

Question 18

When is a Pre-Takeoff Contamination Inspection (PCI) mandatory?

When the Max holdover time has elapsed and a takeoff is contemplated

Condition of heavy snow and a takeoff is contemplated

When severe icing is reported and a takeoff is contemplated

All of the above

Answer 18

All of the above

Question 19

When is a Pre-Takeoff Contamination Inspection (PCI) mandatory?

When the Max holdover time has elapsed and a takeoff is contemplated

Condition of heavy snow and a takeoff is contemplated

When severe icing is reported and a takeoff is contemplated

All of the above

Answer 19

All of the above

Question 20

If a person onboard an aircraft is having a non-lnfectious Disease, how is the Commander expected to report the circumstances upon arrival at an airport?

Through ACARS to SMNC

Verbally to EK ground staff

By filing an ACARS

By filling the appropriate part of the GEN DEC

Answer 20

By filling the appropriate part of the GEN DEC

Question 21

Why is the Engine Failure Only case in an ETOPS scenario never fuel critical?

The one engine specific fuel consumption is less than the two engine

The one engine diversion speed is more fuel efficient than the two engine diversion speed

The pressurization failure case is calculated at a lower altitude than the engine failure only case and therefore more fuel efficient

Answer 21

The pressurization failure case is calculated at a lower altitude than the engine failure only case and therefore more fuel efficient

Question 22

What is not included in RSV FUEL?

Extra fuel

Contingency Fuel

ALT Fuel

Additional fuel

Answer 22

Extra fuel
Additional fuel

Question 23

A Category I operation is a precision instrument approach and landing using:

ILS and RVR not less than 800m

ILS or PAR and RVR not less than 550m

ILS or GPS and VIS not less than 800m

ILS or PAR or GPS and RVR not less than 550m

Answer 23

ILS or PAR and RVR not less than 550m

Question 24

What should the Commander initiate when a Passenger Sickness only becomes known at check-in or boarding?

Call MEDLINK for a ‘gate clearance’

Get the passenger reviewed by the Airport Medical Centre for fitness to fly

Contact Emirates Medical Services duty doctor via Network Control Centre in Dubai

Any of above answers

Answer 24

Any of above answers

Question 25

What flight documents are NOT required to be retained on GRD at DEP AD until A/C returns to DXB

OFP

Load sheet

SIG WX

Route specific Docs edited by EK

Answer 25

SIG WX

Question 26

What is the min legal number of cabin crew based on?

Number of Seats

Number of Emergency Exits

Defined by service department

Answer 26

Number of Emergency Exits

Question 27

Requirements for an orbit

Orbits below the higher of circuit altitude or 1,500 ft AGL are not permitted.

Descent below 1,500 ft AGL is prohibited until the orbit is complete.

The autopilot must be engaged throughout the orbit.

All of them.

Answer 27

All of them.

Question 28

Requirements for a VIS Approach

If requested by ATC to ensure separation. ATC may also require the sighting and/or following of an aircraft on approach to the same or an adjacent runway.

If the crew determines it is more efficient to continue with the visual approach rather than complete the full instrument approach procedure.

Visual Circuit Approaches shall only be used for Base Training Flights and expeditious returns following take-off.

All of them.

Answer 28

All of them.

Question 29

Visibility Requirements for CAT C/D when departing from a RWY with REL and CLL

250/300 m

200/250 m

150/200 m

200m or 150m all RVR’s both cat C/D acft

Answer 29

200m or 150m all RVR’s both cat C/D acft

Question 30

What’s the minimum visibility for a Circling Approach?

8000 m

Chart minima

5000 m

B or C, whichever is higher

Answer 30

B or C, whichever is higher

Question 31

What do you do first when you get a red bomb threat?

Call “purser to the flight deck”

Call DSVP-GS on satcom

(something)

refer to the FCOM/QRH

Answer 31

Call “purser to the flight deck”

refer to the FCOM/QRH

Question 32

When there’s a shortening of landing distance, what should you check?

compare result from EFB with lido airport chart

(something)

check distance from performance software with distance in NOTAM/AIP

Answer 32

check distance from performance software with distance in NOTAM/AIP

Question 33

Requirements for defueling with PAX on board

At least two passenger cabin doors on the main deck shall be designated, and be made available for a possible evacuation

At least one flight crew member, the cabin crew and a ground engineer are at their stations.

The flight crew shall establish communication with the Ground Engineer by a means that remains available during fuelling operations.

All of them

Answer 33

All of them

Question 34

Time of useful consciousness at FL400

4 sec

12 sec

18 sec

35 sec

Answer 34

18 sec

Question 35

Min altitude for crew change

5000 ft

10000 ft

20000 ft

With seatbelts light off

Answer 35

10000 ft

Question 36

What is true about FDP?

The FDP starts 1:30 before the report for duty and finish 30 min after the last landing of the duty period.

The FDP starts 1:15 before the report for duty and finish after the last landing of the duty period.

The FDP starts 1:00 before the report for duty and finish after the last landing of the duty period.

The FDP starts from the moment an aeroplane first moves for the purpose of taking off until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight

Answer 36

This question is wrong.
A is not correct according to OMA 7.5 definitions and 7.6.1 because the 30 min is not part of the FDP.
A, B and C talks about “before the report for duty” and is then when the FDP starts, not before. Maybe it want to say before STD.
In addition, before the STD the FDP could start 1:00, 1:15 or 1:25 depending if it’s base, outstation or LRV duty.
D is the definition of Flight Time

Question 37

Which of the Required Visual References for CAT I approaches is NOT approved for continue with the approach when reaching to the minimums?

Elements of the approach light system.

The runway threshold, threshold markings, threshold lights or touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings.

Runway center lights

Runway edge lights.

Answer 37

Runway center lights