FCOM Flashcards

1
Q

Which lights are turned on by the STORM light switch?

All flight deck lights

All lights in the airplane

Aisle stand, glare shield and instrument panel flood lights, dome lights and indicator lights

Landing lights, navigation lights, strobe lights and wing lights

A

Aisle stand, glare shield and instrument panel flood lights, dome lights and indicator lights

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2
Q

Which lights are turned to full bright by the STORM light switch?

All exterior lights

All panel and flood lights

Dome lights, glare shield flood lights and aisle stand flood lights

Dome lights, map lights and illuminated indicator lights

A

Dome lights, glare shield flood lights and aisle stand flood lights

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3
Q

When do the FASTEN SEAT BELTS signs automatically illuminate?

When the landing gear is up

When the cabin altitude is below 10,000 feet

Any time passenger oxygen is deployed

When the flaps are up

A

Any time passenger oxygen is deployed

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4
Q

When does the NO SMOKING sign automatically illuminate?

On the ground

With the flaps extended

When the pax oxygen system is On

The NO SMOKING signs are permanently illuminated and cannot be controlled by the NO SMOKING selector.

A

The NO SMOKING signs are permanently illuminated and cannot be controlled by the NO SMOKING selector.

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5
Q

Can the landing lights be switched on with the landing gear retracted? What is the best answer?

NO

Yes, all landing lights

Yes, but only the lights located in the wing root

Yes, but only the landing lights located in the wing root and only in dim mode

A

Yes, but only the landing lights located in the wing root and only in dim mode

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6
Q

What is the status of the nose gear landing lights when the NOSE LANDING light switch is ON but the nose landing gear is not down and locked?

Illuminated

Extinguished

Illuminated if both main landing gear are down and locked

A

Extinguished

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7
Q

What happens if you adjust an individual panel brightness or display brightness control when the master brightness system is on?

It has no effect

The master brightness system turns off

The brightness of ALL panel lights and ALL displays change by a small amount

The brightness of the individual panel light or display changes by a small amount

A

The brightness of the individual panel light or display changes by a small amount

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8
Q

What position is required for the Master bright system to have full range of control, individual panel light brightness or display brightness?

12 o’clock

6 o’clock

10 o’clock

2 o’clock

A

12 o’clock

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9
Q

What position should the UPR DSPL brightness control be selected to for full range control with the Master Bright System?

2 o’clock

6 o’clock

10 o’clock

12 o’clock

A

12 o’clock

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10
Q

What powers the emergency lighting system?

The main battery, for at least 15 minutes

The main battery, for at least 25 minutes

Remote batteries, for at least 15 minutes

Remote batteries, for at least 30 minutes

A

Remote batteries, for at least 15 minutes

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11
Q

What automatically activates the airplane emergency lighting system?

Selecting the EMERG LIGHTS switch on the overhead panel to OFF

Loss of left and right main DC electrical power

Loss of left and right backup generators

Loss of APU generator

A

Loss of left and right main DC electrical power

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12
Q

What Manually activates the airplane EMERGENCY LIGHTING system?

Closing the emergency lights switch guard

Selecting the APU GEN switch to ON position

Turning on the left and right backup generators

Selecting the emergency lights switch on overhead panel to ON position

A

Selecting the emergency lights switch on overhead panel to ON position

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13
Q

If all electrical power is available, what causes the EMER LIGHTS EICAS advisory message to be displayed?

The emergency lighting system has failed

The EMER LIGHTS switch on the overhead panel is in the ARMED position

The EMER LIGHTS switch on the overhead panel is in the ARMED position and the emergency lights have been turned on by a Flight Attendant

The APU generator is turned off

A

The EMER LIGHTS switch on the overhead panel is in the ARMED position and the emergency lights have been turned on by a Flight Attendant

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14
Q

How many quick donning oxygen masks are installed on the flight deck?

One for each pilot

One for each observer

One for each pilot, one for each observer

One for each pilot, and only one observer mask

A

One for each pilot, one for each observer

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15
Q

What does the CREW OXYGEN LOW EICAS message indicate?

Crew oxygen system pressure is low

Crew oxygen system has been turned off

Crew oxygen system has failed

Crew oxygen system quantity is low

A

Crew oxygen system pressure is low

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16
Q

What is the status of CREW OXYGEN SYSTEM if status display is blank?

Crew oxygen pressure is within acceptable limits

Crew oxygen system has been turned off

Crew oxygen pressure signal is not present or is invalid

Crew oxygen pressure is low

A

Crew oxygen pressure signal is not present or is invalid

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17
Q

What does the EICAS message PAX OXYGEN ON indicate?

Passenger oxygen has been manually or automatically activated

Passenger oxygen has been manually or automatically deactivated

Passenger oxygen has been manually deactivated

Passenger oxygen has been automatically deactivated

A

Passenger oxygen has been manually or automatically activated

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18
Q

What precautions must be exercised when using a HALON FIRE EXTINGUISHER?

Always wear protective breathing equipment when using Halon fire extinguisher

Always wear smoke goggles when using Halon fire extinguisher

Always open the flight deck side windows when using Halon fire extinguisher

Always wear fire gloves when using a Halon fire extinguisher

A

Always wear protective breathing equipment when using Halon fire extinguisher

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19
Q

What hazards are associated with the use of a portable HALON FIRE EXTINGUISHER in a confined area?

Use of Halon is NOT hazardous

Halon causes skin blistering

Halon is Toxic

Halon depletes oxygen and only be used while wearing protective breathing equipment

A

Halon depletes oxygen and only be used while wearing protective breathing equipment

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20
Q

What indicates a properly closed and locked side window?

A WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard in view

A WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard is hidden from view and lock lever in full aft position

A WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard is hidden from view and lock lever in full forward position

A WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard in view and lock lever in full forward position

A

A WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard is hidden from view and lock lever in full forward position

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21
Q

What would indicate that a flight deck side window is NOT properly locked?

WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard not in view and the lock lever is fully forward and in the locked position

Audible caution tone is heard

Side window hand crank is not in the locked position

WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard is visible or the lock lever is not fully forward and in the locked position

A

WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard is visible or the lock lever is not fully forward and in the locked position

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22
Q

Can the flight deck side windows be operated in flight?

Yes, but only at airspeeds below 200 kts

Yes, but only at airspeeds below Vref + 80 kts

Yes, but only if the airplane is unpressurized and airspeed is below Vref + 80 kts

No, the flight deck side windows can not be operated in flight

A

Yes, but only if the airplane is unpressurized and airspeed is below Vref + 80 kts

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23
Q

What does the WINDOWS EICAS advisory message indicate?

The left and right side windows are open or unlocked

The left side window is open or unlocked

The right side window is open or unlocked

Window heat is inoperative

A

The left and right side windows are open or unlocked

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24
Q

At what speed does passenger entry DOOR FLIGHT LOCK activate?

Above 65 Kts

Above 80 Kts

Above 100 Kts

Only in flight

A

Above 80 Kts

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25
Q

What indication provides positive confirmation that an evacuation SLIDE/RAFT GIRT BAR is engaged with the door sill?

Amber flag showing through the girt bar engaged view window

No flag showing through the Girt bar engaged view window

Door handle in the closed position

A

Amber flag showing through the girt bar engaged view window

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26
Q

What indication provides confirmation that an evacuation SLIDE/RAFT GIRT BAR is disengaged with door sill?

Yellow flag showing through girt bar engaged view window

No flag showing through girt bar engaged view window

Door handle in the closed position

A

No flag showing through girt bar engaged view window

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27
Q

What does EICAS warning CONFIG DOORS indicate in combination with DOOR ENTRY 2L Advisory message?

At least 2 entry door flight locks are not in commanded position and both engines are at takeoff thrust

The mode select levers of all pax entry doors are in Disarm position, and both engines at takeoff thrust

Door 2L is not secure and engines are at takeoff thrust

At least 2 doors are not closed, latches and locked and both engines at takeoff thrust

A

Door 2L is not secure and engines are at takeoff thrust

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28
Q

What does the CONFIG DOORS EICAS message indicate?

At least 2 passenger entry door flight locks are not in the commanded position and both engines are at takeoff thrust

The mode selector handle of all passenger ENTRY doors is in the manual position and both engines are at takeoff thrust

A passenger ENTRY door, FWD CARGO door or AFT CARGO door is not closed, latched and locked, and the engines are at takeoff thrust

At least 2 doors are not closed, latched and locked, and both engines are at takeoff thrust

A

A passenger ENTRY door, FWD CARGO door or AFT CARGO door is not closed, latched and locked, and the engines are at takeoff thrust

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29
Q

What action required for DOOR FWD CARGO caution EICAS in flight?

No action required

No action required if pressurization is normal

Cabin pressure differential must be increased

Cabin pressure differential must be reduced to minimise risk of door separation

A

Cabin pressure differential must be reduced to minimize risk of door separation

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30
Q

What action is required if the DOOR AFT CARGO EICAS message occurs in flight?

Cabin altitude should be increased

The airplane must be depressurized to minimize the risk of door separation

No action is required if pressurization is normal

No action is required

A

The airplane must be depressurized to minimize the risk of door separation

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31
Q

If the entry 1L door indicates white around black on DOORS SYNOPTIC, what is the condition of the door?

Entry door 1L is properly closed, latched and locked

Entry door 1L is open

Entry door 1L flight lock is not in the commanded position

Status signals for passenger Entry 1L are not present or invalid

A

Status signals for passenger Entry 1L are not present or invalid

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32
Q

Which are bleed air sources?

APU and Ground cart

Trim air

Demand pump

Packs

A

APU and Ground cart

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33
Q

What is bleed air used for?

Pressurizing the hydraulic system

Aspirating the TAT probe

None of the above

Both A and B

A

Both A and B

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34
Q

What does the MAN position on the FLT DECK TEMP control do?

It removes power from the trim air system

It causes the packs to provide air at an average mid temperature range

It allows the trim air valve to operate manually

It removes control at the cabin attendant panel

A

It allows the trim air valve to operate manually

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35
Q

What happens if the FLT DECK TEMP control is moved to the ‘C position?

The pack temperature decreases

It opens the flight deck trim air valve

It closes the trim air valve and lowers

It cancels input to the flight deck temperature controller

A

It closes the trim air valve and lowers

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36
Q

Why should the CABIN TEMP selector be set to mid position?

It turns on Pack and Air trim system

To allow full temperature range adjustment (18-29) in cabin zones on Cabin Attendant panel

It allows cabin attendant to adjust actual temperatures

If prevents pack overheating

A

To allow full temperature range adjustment (18-29) in cabin zones on Cabin Attendant panel

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37
Q

What do the colors of the two CABIN TEMPERATURES displayed on Air synoptic represent?

White is commanded zone temperature….. Magenta is actual zone temperature

Magenta is commanded zone temperature….. Cyan is actual zone temperature

Magenta is commanded zone temperature….. white is actual zone temperature

Yellow is commanded zone temperature….. Magenta is actual zone temperature

A

Magenta is commanded zone temperature…..white is actual zone temperature

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38
Q

When is the pack OFF light illuminated amber?

During engine start

When there is a pack compressor outlet high temperature condition

When both flow control valves are failed closed

All of the above

A

All of the above

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39
Q

What does the [ ] PACK MODE R EICAS message indicate?

The forward equipment cooling system is in override mode

Only the right pack is operating in standby cooling mode

Both packs are operating in standby cooling mode

The right pack has shut down regardless of airplane altitude

A

Only the right pack is operating in standby cooling mode

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40
Q

Why does the flight deck receive air from the left pack at a higher pressure than the passenger cabin?

The pilots demand it

To prevent smoke from entering the flight deck

To defog the forward windows

To cool the equipment in the aisle stand

A

To prevent smoke from entering the flight deck

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41
Q

How does the trim air system meet zone temperature requirements?

It controls pack air temperature

It heats conditioned air

It cools conditioned air

A

It heats conditioned air

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42
Q

Which system(s) supply trim air to the flight deck?

Right trim air system

Left trim air system

Both right and left trim air systems

Centre trim air systems

A

Left trim air system

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43
Q

What determines the pack outlet temperature?

The average demand of all zones

The master cabin temperature control

The zone requiring the coolest temperature

The zone requiring the warmest temperature

A

The zone requiring the coolest temperature

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44
Q

Where is the target temperature in the zones displayed?

On the lower EICAS display when pressurization is selected to MAN

On the AIR synoptic

On the upper EICAS display when pressurization is selected to MAN

On the HYD synoptic

A

On the AIR synoptic

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45
Q

What temperature does the PACK maintain with loss of both
CABIN TEMPERATURE CONTROLLERS?

42º C

38º C

Between 5º and 43º C

Between 10º and 38º C

A

Between 5º and 43º C

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46
Q

In the STBY COOLING MODE what will the pack automatically do if the airplane is not in an area of sufficient cooling?

Decrease airflow to half rate

Shut of the pack

Fail the pack stby cooling controller

Increase airflow through the pack

A

Shut of the pack

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47
Q

If Air synoptic shows STBY COOLING next to Left Pack, with a green flow bar to L trim air valve only (right pack and trim air normal), what does this indicate?

The STBY COOLING controller has failed

Aircraft is not in an area of favourable atmospheric conditions (pack automatically shuts down in areas of insufficient cooling)

The heat exchangers are inop

Bleed air is too cool for heat exchanger cooling

A

Aircraft is not in an area of favorable atmospheric conditions (pack automatically shuts down in areas of insufficient cooling)

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48
Q

What system provides the heat for the forward cargo compartment?

Aft cargo heat system

Bleed air from the engines

The trim air system

Exhaust from the equipment cooling system

A

Exhaust from the equipment cooling system

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49
Q

When do the engine bleed valves close automatically?

For bleed air overpressure

When an engine fire switch is pulled

For bleed air over temperature

All of the above

A

All of the above

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50
Q

What happens when BULK CARGO TEMPERATURE selector positioned to High?

The compartment temperature is automatically keep between 4° to 10° C at approximately 7° C

The compartment temperature is automatically between 18° to 24° C keep at approximately 21° C

The bulk cargo compartment ventilation fans operates continuously

Both B and C are correct

A

Both B and C are correct

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51
Q

What is the source of supplemental heat for the AFT CARGO compartment?

Forward equipment cooling exhaust air

Left Recirculation Fan

Electric heater

Independent bleed heat system

A

Independent bleed heat system

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52
Q

When does the ground crew call horn sound?

On ground, when the SAARU is on battery

On ground, when both packs are in standby cooling mode

On ground, if the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative

During flight, if the ADIRU is on battery

A

On ground, if the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative

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53
Q

When does the EICAS message EQUIP COOLING display?

When one of the two supply fans is inoperative

In the air when the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative

On the ground when the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative

On the ground when the aft equipment cooling system is inoperative

A

On the ground when the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative

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54
Q

Which statements are correct about the EQUIPMENT COOLING OVERRIDE mode?

Mode is selected automatically

EICAS EQUIP COOLING OVRD displays

There is a Non-Normal procedure (NNC) for this message

All of them

A

All of them

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55
Q

What actions should you take if the EQUIP COOLING OVRD EICAS is displayed during cruise?

Descend to low altitude and continue flight

Increase flight deck temperatures

Turn off FWD and AFT recycling fans

Plan descent for minimum time at low altitudes

A

Plan descent for minimum time at low altitudes

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56
Q

Why minimize the low altitude flying time for EQUIP COOLING OVRD message?

Aft and bulked cargo compartment may overheat

Pack temperature may cause damage

Equipment displays could fail

Recirculation fans may not cool equipment adequately

A

Equipment displays could fail

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57
Q

What is the cabin altitude at maximum certified airplane operating altitude?

9000 feet

10 000 feet

8000 feet

7500 feet

A

8000 feet

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58
Q

If cruise altitude is unavailable from FMC in automatic operation, the cabin altitude controllers assume a cruise altitude of:

41,000 feet

43,100 feet

39,000 feet

8,000 feet

A

39,000 feet

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59
Q

During climb, what parameter(s) schedule cabin altitude?

Airplane flight altitude

A constant pressure differential

Airplane climb rate and FMC flight plan cruise altitude

Takeoff and landing field elevation

A

Airplane climb rate and FMC flight plan cruise altitude

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60
Q

Why does the pressurization system schedule the cabin altitude slightly below airport field elevation for landing?

For structural reasons

So the airplane will land somewhat depressurized

So the airplane will land somewhat pressurized

Both A and C are correct

A

Both A and C are correct

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61
Q

During pre-flight, you notice CABIN ALTITUDE AUTO EICAS and amber M’s next to the FWD and AFT outflow valves on Pressurisation System Indications block. What is the appropriate action?

Select AUTO on both Outflow Valve switches

Close both Outflow Valves

Set landing Altitude selector to Auto (pushed in)

A

Select AUTO on both Outflow Valve switches

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62
Q

When do the engine bleed valves NOT close automatically?

For bleed air overpressure

When an engine fire switch is pulled

If all the air-driven hydraulic demand pumps have failed

When a ground cart is supplying air

A

If all the air-driven hydraulic demand pumps have failed

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63
Q

What best describes the leak detection and isolation operation?

Automatic leak detection, crew action is required

Automatic leak detection and manual isolation, crew action is required

Automatic leak detection and manual bleed air transfer, crew action is required

Automatic leak detection and automatic isolation, crew action is not required

A

Automatic leak detection and automatic isolation, crew action is not required

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64
Q

What action is required during preflight, if the [] LANDING ALTITUDE EICAS message is displayed with the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches in AUTO?

Push the LDG ALT selector IN

Pull the LDG ALT selector OUT

Select the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches to MAN

Both A and C are correct

A

Push the LDG ALT selector IN

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65
Q

During Pre-Flight what position should the APU Bleed Air switch be in?

Off

Auto

On

Out

A

Auto

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66
Q

During Pre-flight what position should the L ENG and R ENG Bleed Air switch be in?

Out

Off

Auto

On

A

On

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67
Q

After engine starting what is the correct position for the L ENG and R ENG Bleed Air switches?

Out

On

Auto

Off

A

On

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68
Q

During normal bleed air operation what position should the L, C, R ISLN Bleed Air switch be in?

L ISLN AUTO; R ISLN AUTO; C ISLN OFF

OFF

AUTO

ON

A

AUTO

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69
Q

With engines supplying BLEED AIR, which valves are open or closed?

Left and right Isolation and engine bleed valves open. Centre isolation and APU bleed valves closed

Left and right Isolation and engine bleed valves closed. Centre isolation and APU bleed valves open

Left , Centre and right Isolation and engine bleed valves open. APU bleed valve closed

Left , Centre and right Isolation and engine bleed valves closed. APU bleed valve open

A

Left and right Isolation and engine bleed valves open. Centre isolation and APU bleed valves closed

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70
Q

What is the normal position of the AFT OUTFLOW VALVE after landing?

Full open

Full closed

In transit

30° open

A

Full open

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71
Q

With the aircraft 240nm from departure (elevation 112ft) and 1211nm from destination (elevation 217 ft), what is the LANDING ALTITUDE displayed in pressurisation System indications?

317

200

212

100

A

100

(rounded to nearest 100 and uses departure airport until 400nm or halfway point)

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72
Q

What is the function of the NEGATIVE PRESSURE RELIEF vents?

They regulate cabin pressure during climb

They minimise cabin overpressure conditions

They improve smoke removal and ventilation

They prevent negative pressure differentials

A

They prevent negative pressure differentials

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73
Q

What does the visible orange lip indicate on a pressure relief valve?

The valve is in it’s normally closed position

The valve is in it’s normally open position

The valve opened during the previous flight, because of cabin over pressure

The status of the valve cannot be determined by visual inspection

A

The valve opened during the previous flight, because of cabin over pressure

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74
Q

What action is required if a visible orange lip on a pressure relief valve is displayed?

Action not required the valve is in it’s normally closed position

Advise maintenance of the open valve

Position the landing altitude switch to AUTO

Set cabin altitude to less than 8000 feet

A

Advise maintenance of the open valve

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75
Q

During pre-flight what position should the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches and LDG ALT selector switches be in?

OUTFLOW VALVE SWITCHES in AUTO and LDG ALT selector pulled OUT

OUTFLOW VALVE SWITCHES in OFF and LDG ALT selector pushed IN

OUTFLOW VALVE SWITCHES in AUTO and LDG ALT selector pushed IN

OUTFLOW VALVE SWITCHES in MAN and LDG ALT selector pushed IN

A

OUTFLOW VALVE SWITCHES in AUTO and LDG ALT selector pushed IN

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76
Q

Why are the WIPERS OFF during preflight?

To avoid wiper operation on dry windshields

To avoid damage to the wiper blades

To allow hydrophobic coating to warm up

To avoid possible injury to maintenance personnel

A

To avoid wiper operation on dry windshields

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77
Q

. Why are the wipers never operated on a dry windshield?

The wiper blades will be ruined

The wiper motor can be burned out

The hydrophobic coating may be scratched

The bugs will be smeared all over the window

A

The hydrophobic coating may be scratched

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78
Q

What does the [] WINDOW HEAT R FWD EICAS message indicate?

The WINDOW HEAT R FWD switch is off

The window is still in the warm up cycle

An overheat or fault has occurred

Either A or C is correct

A

Either A or C is correct

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79
Q

What does the WINDOW HEAT EICAS message mean?

The backup window heat system is inoperative

The windows are using backup heat

Two or more window heat faults have occurred

A single overheat or fault has occurred

A

Two or more window heat faults have occurred

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80
Q

Which WINDOWS are heated for both anti-ice and anti-fog protection?

Both pilots forward windows

Left pilots forward window and right pilots side window

All windows

Left pilots forward and side window and right pilots forward and side windows

A

Both pilots forward windows

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81
Q

Which windows are provided with backup anti-fog?

All windows

Both pilot’s forward windows

Left pilot’s forward window and right pilot’s side window

Left pilot’s forward and side window and right pilot’s forward and side window

A

Both pilot’s forward windows

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82
Q

What is the position of an engine anti-ice valve when the ENGINE ANTI-ICE selector is in AUTO and EAI is displayed?

Open

Closed

Inoperative

Cannot be determined

A

Open

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83
Q

When can engine anti-ice be operated manually?

Only on the ground

Only in the air

On the ground or in the air

Only when TAT is above 10 degrees C

A

On the ground or in the air

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84
Q

Both ENGINE ANTI-ICE selectors ON, with EICAS ANTI-ICE ON displayed, how would you remove this message?

Both off

Leave On- Use EICAS cancel

Both AUTO

Left engine Anti-ice off, right EAI on

A

Both AUTO
(ANTI-ICE ON appears when TAT >10, ANTI-ICE selector ON and NO ice detected)

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85
Q

When will WING ANTI-ICE operate Automatically?

Only on the ground

Only in flight

On the ground or in flight

Only when TAT above 10 deg. c

A

Only in flight

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86
Q

When can wing anti-ice be operated manually?

Only on the ground

On the ground or in the air

Only in flight

Only when TAT is above 10 degree C

A

Only in flight

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87
Q

What action should you take if the [ ] ICE DETECTORS EICAS message displays?

Turn all ANTI-ICE selectors to ON then back to AUTO to reset the system

Turn all ANTI-ICE selectors OFF for remainder of flight and avoid icing

Turn all ANTI-ICE selectors ON when icing conditions are encountered

Turn all ANTI-ICE selectors ON for the remainder of the flight

A

Turn all ANTI-ICE selectors ON when icing conditions are encountered

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88
Q

What do the EAI symbols on EICAS indicate?

Engine anti-ice is armed

Engine anti-ice is operating

Engine anti-ice has failed

Engine anti-ice should be turned off

A

Engine anti-ice is operating

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89
Q

What position of the ANTI ICE selectors will remove the ANTI ICE ON EICAS message?

AUTO

ON

OFF

Both A and C are correct

A

Both A and C are correct

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90
Q

What position should the ENGINE ANTI-ICE selectors be in for taxing in icing conditions?

AUTO

ON

OFF

Both A and C are correct

A

ON

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91
Q

When will the ANTI-ICE ON EICAS message be displayed?

TAT above 10°C, all ANTI ICE selectors OFF and NO ice is detected

TAT below 10°C, all ANTI ICE selectors ON and ice is detected

TAT above 10°C, all ANTI ICE selectors ON and NO ice is detected

TAT below 10°C, all ANTI ICE selectors OFF and NO ice is detected

A

TAT above 10°C, all ANTI ICE selectors ON and NO ice is detected

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92
Q

What position should the WING ANTI ICE selectors be in for taxing in icing conditions?

AUTO

ON

OFF

Both A and C are correct

A

AUTO

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93
Q

What occurs when engine anti-ice is operating?

Probe heat switches from reduced to full power

Approach idle is selected

The ENGINE ANTI-ICE ON memo message appears

The backup window heat system operates

A

Approach idle is selected

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94
Q

What is the sequence of steps to use FLCH to climb to FL 250 at
280 kts?

Set 280 kts in the IAS/MACH window, push FLCH switch, then set FL250 in the altitude window

Set FL280 in the ALTITUDE window, push FLCH switch, then set 250 kts in the IAS/MACH window

Push FLCH switch, set FL250 in the ALTITUDE window, then set 280 kts in the IAS/MACH window

Set FL250 in the ALTITUDE window, push FLCH switch, then set 280 kts in the IAS/MACH window

A

Set FL250 in the ALTITUDE window, push FLCH switch, then set 280 kts in the IAS/MACH window

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95
Q

What is the sequence of steps to use FLCH to descend to 5000 feet at 240 kts?

Set 240 kts in the IAS/MACH window, push FLCH selector, then set 5000 feet in the altitude window

Set FL 280 in the altitude window, push FLCH selector, set 500 kts in the IAS/MACH window

Push FLCH selector, set 5000 feet in the altitude window, then set 240 kts in the IAS/MACH window

Set 5000 feet in the altitude window, push FLCH selector, then set 240 kts in the IAS/MACH window

A

Set 5000 feet in the altitude window, push FLCH selector, then set 240 kts in the IAS/MACH window

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96
Q

What is the sequence of steps to change airspeed with VNAV engaged, using speed intervention?

Change the IAS/MACH window to the new airspeed, then push the IAS/MACH selector

Push the IAS/MACH selector, then change the IAS/MACH window to the new airspeed

Change the IAS/MACH window to the new airspeed, then push FLCH

Push the FLCH, change the IAS/MACH window to new airspeed

A

Push the IAS/MACH selector, then change the IAS/MACH window to the new airspeed

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97
Q

What is the sequence of steps to reduce airspeed with VNAV engaged, using speed intervention?

Change the IAS/MACH window to the lower airspeed, then push the IAS/MACH selector

Change the IAS/MACH window to the lower airspeed, then push FLCH

Push the IAS/MACH selector, then change the IAS/MACH window to the lower airspeed

Push the FLCH, change the IAS/MACH window to lower airspeed

A

Push the IAS/MACH selector, then change the IAS/MACH window to the lower airspeed

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98
Q

With TRK SEL engaged, what is the CORRECT sequence of steps to turn right to heading 150° using HDG SEL mode?

Push the HDG/TRK reference switch, verify HDG SEL on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK reference switch to the right to set 150° in the HDG/TRK window

Push the IAS/MACH selector, verify HDG SEL on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK reference switch to the right to set 150°in the HDG/TRK window

Push the IAS/MACH selector, verify TRK SEL on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK reference switch to the left to set 150°in the HDG/TRK window

Push the LNAV reference switch, verify LNAV on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK reference switch to the right to set 150° in the HDG/TRK window

A

Push the HDG/TRK reference switch, verify HDG SEL on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK reference switch to the right to set 150° in the HDG/TRK window

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99
Q

With HDG SEL engaged, what is the CORRECT sequence of steps to turn right to track 150° using TRK SEL mode?

Push the HDG/TRK reference switch, verify TRK SEL on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK reference switch to the right to set 150° in the HDG/TRK window

Push the IAS/MACH selector, verify TRK SEL on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK reference switch to the right to set 150°in the HDG/TRK window

Push the IAS/MACH selector, verify HDG SEL on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK reference switch to the left to set 150°in the HDG/TRK window

Push the LNAV reference switch, verify LNAV on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK reference switch to the right to set 150° in the HDG/TRK window

A

Push the HDG/TRK reference switch, verify TRK SEL on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK reference switch to the right to set 150° in the HDG/TRK window

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100
Q

In the VS mode, what are the correct steps to make a 2.6° FPA descend?

Push VS/FPA reference switch, set new altitude, push VS/FPA switch, set 2.6° flight path angle

Push VS/FPA reference switch, set 2.6° flight path angle, set new altitude

Set new altitude, push VS/FPA reference switch, set 2.6° flight path angle

Push VS/FPA switch only

Set new altitude, push VS/FPA reference switch, set 2.6° flight path angle Push VS/FPA switch only

A

Push VS/FPA reference switch, set new altitude, push VS/FPA switch, set 2.6° flight path angle

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101
Q

With the autopilot and LNAV engaged, what will happen if the last active route waypoint is passed?

LNAV will disengage

The autopilot will turn the airplane towards the destination

LNAV maintains current heading

HDG HOLD will engage

A

LNAV maintains current heading

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102
Q

Is your bank angle limited to 20 degrees when LNAV is engaged and the BANK LIMIT selector is set to the 20 degree position?

Yes

No

A

No

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103
Q

Is your bank angle limited to 15° when TRK SEL is engaged and the BANK LIMIT selector is set to the 15° position?

Yes

No

A

Yes

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104
Q

What happens to the Bank Angle Protection if the Autopilot Disengage Bar is selected down?

Bank Angle Protection is disengaged

Bank Angle Protection remains engaged

Bank Angle Protection is reduced by half

Bank Angle Protection becomes proportional to the rate of turn

A

Bank Angle Protection is disengaged

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105
Q

If you are in SPD / TRK SEL / VNAV PTH and MCP bank selector is set to 15, is your maximum BANK ANGLE limited to 15?

Yes

No

A

Yes

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106
Q

How is a degradation of a specific autopilot mode detected?

By an amber line drawn through the affected flight mode annunciation

By an amber box drawn around the affected flight mode annunciation

By a red, flashing A/P FMA

A and C of the above

A

By an amber line drawn through the affected flight mode annunciation

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107
Q

What switch resets the autothrottle system and cancels the EICAS
AUTOTHROTTLE DISC message?

Autopilot disconnect switch

Autothrottle disconnect switch

Master Caution switch

All of the above

A

Autothrottle disconnect switch

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108
Q

Which switch engages the autothrottle with the A/T switches in ARM?

CLB CON switch

A/T switch

LNAV switch

APP switch

A

A/T switch

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109
Q

Which A/T ARM switch configuration causes the AUTOTHROTTLE R message to display?

Left switch OFF right switch ON

Left switch ON right switch OFF

Left switch ON right switch ON

Left switch OFF right switch OFF

A

Left switch ON right switch OFF

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110
Q

Above what altitude can you disengage the approach mode by pushing the APP switch a second time?

500 feet RA

1,000 feet RA

1,500 feet RA

2,500 feet RA

A

1,500 feet RA

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111
Q

How do you disengage APPROACH MODE below 1,500ft?

Engage V/S or FLCH

Push APP switch

Disengage A/P AND turn off both flight directors

Disconnect autothrottles

A

Disengage A/P AND turn off both flight directors

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112
Q

With LOC and G/S ARMED, which is true in order to capture Localiser?

ILS frequency must be manually set

Front course must be manually set

Airplane must be below 1,500ft RA

Airplane must be within 120 degrees of localiser course

A

Airplane must be within 120 degrees of localiser course

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113
Q

What will the autopilot do if you override the control column?

Engage in HDG HOLD and V/S

Engage in TRK HOLD and FPA

Disengage

Cause both roll and pitch modes to fail

A

Disengage

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114
Q

What actions reset the autopilot system, warning system and cancels the AUTOPILOT DISC message?

Pushing the Autopilot Disconnect switch a second time

Pushing the Cancel/Recall switch a second time

Pushing the Master Warning when the light is illuminated

Pushing the Cancel switch below Master Warning switch

A

Pushing the Autopilot Disconnect switch a second time

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115
Q

What does the AUTOPILOT EICAS message indicate when an amber line is drawn through the pitch mode on the FMA?

The engaged autopilot has failed

The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is continuing to operate

The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is disconnected

A

The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is continuing to operate

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116
Q

With aircraft in LNAV/VNAV, thrust area on PFD blank, how would you engage AUTOTHROTTLE and remain in VNAV (same to remain in FLCH)?

Open speed window - thrust will engage if you increase speed

Select FLCH then re-select VNAV

Press A/T engage switch on MCP

Press the TOGA switches (will go out of VNAV)

A

Press A/T engage switch on MCP

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117
Q

What do the A/T ARM switches on the MCP do?

Arm auto thrust reduction

Arm auto takeoff

Arm autothrottle

Engage auto throttle

A

Arm autothrottle

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118
Q

What does TOGA TOGA mean on PFD?

There is a wild party in the cabin

Takeoff/Go-around is armed for roll and pitch

Takeoff/Go-around is armed for autothrottle and pitch

Takeoff/Go-around is engaged for roll and pitch

A

Takeoff/Go-around is engaged for roll and pitch

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119
Q

If FDs are OFF for takeoff, what happens when TOGA switches pressed after 80 kts?

Thrust derate is removed

The Flight Directors appear

The thrust derate is removed and FDs appear

Nothing

A

The Flight Directors appear

(if LNAV and VNAV armed, pushing TOGA > 80kts disarms LNAV and VNAV)

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120
Q

What happens when TOGA switch is pushed shortly after lift-off (FDs are OFF)?

The thrust derate is removed

The FDs appear

The thrust derate is removed and FDs display

Nothing

A

The thrust derate is removed and FDs display

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121
Q

What will a second push of the TO/GA switch do during takeoff above 80 knots, with LNAV and VNAV armed?

Engages LNAV and VNAV

Disarms LNAV and engages VNAV

Engages LNAV and disarms VNAV

Disarms LNAV and VNAV

A

Disarms LNAV and VNAV

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122
Q

When is TO/GA armed?

When flaps are not up

When the landing gear is down

When below 1,500 feet RA

When G/S is armed

A

When flaps are not up

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123
Q

When is GO-AROUND armed?

After LAND 3 annunciates

When LOC and G/S are armed

When G/S is engaged / captured

When LOC is engaged

A

When G/S is engaged / captured

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124
Q

If you are climbing though 1000 ft amsl after takeoff, PFD modes are HOLD TOGA TOGA, how do you set CLB thrust?

Engage FLCH or V/S

Engaging V/S or pushing CLB CON switch

Engaging V/S or ALT

Engaging FLCH or pushing the CLB CON switch

A

Engaging FLCH or pushing the CLB CON switch

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125
Q

When can VNAV be engaged?

During preflight

During liftoff

Above 400ft

When autopilot is engaged and LNAV has been captured

A

Above 400ft

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126
Q

With THR REF / LNAV / VNAV SPD on FMA, which of the following are true?

Pitch is controlling vertical speed

Pitch is controlling FMC selected airspeed

Thrust is set to maximum reference limit (on EICAS)

VNAV SPD is a climb mode only

A

Pitch is controlling FMC selected airspeed

Thrust is set to maximum reference limit (on EICAS)

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127
Q

What does the NO LAND 3 EICAS message indicate when FLARE and ROLLOUT armed are displayed on the FMA?

The autopilot disconnect switch has been pushed

The autopilot is inoperative

The autoland system does not have redundancy for triple channel autoland

NO LAND 3 means you are more than 3 miles from land

A

The autoland system does not have redundancy for triple channel autoland

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128
Q

Which MCP actions are accomplished during pre-flight?

Turn off L and R flight directors. Set initial heading

Arm L and R auto throttle. Set initial heading. Set initial altitude

Disarm R auto throttle. Set initial heading. Set initial altitude

Engage autopilot, arm LOC, APP. Set initial altitude

A

Arm L and R auto throttle. Set initial heading. Set initial altitude

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129
Q

What position should the autopilot DISENGAGE Bar be in during the MCP pre-flight?

UP to the engaged position

DOWN to the disengaged position

Down to the engaged position

None of the above

A

UP to the engaged position

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130
Q

What EICAS message would you expect to display if A/T ARM L switch on MCP selected OFF?

AUTOTHROTTLE

AUTOTHROTTLE L

AUTOTHRUST R

AUTOPILOT DISC

A

AUTOTHROTTLE L

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131
Q

Which of these statements may be true if the offside tuning light is illuminated on the left radio tuning panel?

The left radio tuning panel is inoperative

The selected frequency is not in the normal frequency range

The left radio tuning panel is tuning a radio normally tuned by one of the other tuning panels

The frequency is being transferred from the STANDBY to the ACTIVE window

A

The left radio tuning panel is tuning a radio normally tuned by one of the other tuning panels

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132
Q

Which of the following can be done using the CDU cabin interphone page?

Call any cabin handset

Alert the ground crew that you want to speak to them

Make a PA announcement to specific cabin area

All of the above

A

All of the above

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133
Q

What does the illumination of the Offside Tuning light mean?

The selected VHF radio is inoperative

You have a call from the company

One of the other radio tuning panel is tuning a radio normally tuned by this panel

The microphone is keyed and transmitting on the selected frequency

A

One of the other radio tuning panel is tuning a radio normally tuned by this panel

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134
Q

What can the First Officer do, to regain audio control, if his audio control panel fails?

Position the OBS AUDIO selector to CAPT then use the Captain’s audio control panel

Position the OBS AUDIO selector to F/O for at least one second, then back to NORM and use the First Officer’s audio control panel

Position the OBS AUDIO selector to F/O then use the Observer’s audio control panel

Position the OBS AUDIO selector to F/O then use the First Officer’s audio control panel

A

Position the OBS AUDIO selector to F/O then use the Observer’s audio control panel

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135
Q

Which statement about the VHF radios is true?

Only VHF C can be configured for data communication

VHF C and VHF R can operate in the DATA mode at the same time

VHF L is configured for voice communication only

The DATA mode can only be selected or deselected on the MFD COMM display

A

VHF L is configured for voice communication only

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136
Q

Which statement about radio tuning is correct?

Any VHF radio can be controlled by any radio tuning panel

HF L can only be tuned by the left radio tuning panel

The offside tuning light will only appear on the active radio tuning panel

The center radio tuning panel can only be used to tune an HF radio if either the left or right panel fails

A

Any VHF radio can be controlled by any radio tuning panel

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137
Q

What happens if you push the CAB transmitter select switch twice within one second?

Nothing. The second push cancels the selection

A priority call is placed to a pre-selected cabin station

A conference call is initiated with all cabin stations

A pre-recorded message is sent to a pre-selected cabin station

A

A priority call is placed to a pre-selected cabin station

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138
Q

How can the flight crew make a PA announcement to all areas of the cabin?

Push the PA transmitter select switch on the audio control panel and key any mic switch

Using the flight deck handset, enter the appropriate dial code from the handset directory, then push the handset PA push to talk

Push the CAB transmitter select switch on the audio control panel, then enter the appropriate code using the CDU keypad, then key any mic switch

All of the above

A

All of the above

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139
Q

What is true ATC data link operation?

Logon occurs automatically with FMC CDU route activation

The crew must manually log on to participating ATC facility

An ATC facility must initiate the log on

Logon occurs automatically any time AC power is established on the airplane

A

The crew must manually log on to participating ATC facility

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140
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of an ATC REQUESTED REPORT that can be armed for automatic downlink to ATC?

LEVEL FL330

LEAVING FL330

MAINTAINING FL330

PASSING SEA

A

MAINTAINING FL330

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141
Q

Which of the following data values does NOT provide crew feedback, by turning green, when you comply with ATC uplink message?

MCP HEADING

VOR frequency

VHF frequency

Barometer setting

A

VOR frequency

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142
Q

How can the crew cancel a displayed company or ATC uplink message?

Push the CANC switch at the glareshield

Select the cancel command key on the MFD COMM page

Push the CANC/RCL switch on the display select panel

Either A or B

A

Either A or B

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143
Q

What is necessary to talk to MECHANIC at APU service area?

You can only speak with ground crew at nose landing gear wheel well

Position the service interphone SERV INTPH switch to ON position

Use CDU to line select service interphone

A

Position the service interphone SERV INTPH switch to ON position

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144
Q

What does the illuminated FLT Interphone CALL light on the audio control panel indicate?

Another airplane is calling

A ground crew technician is calling the flight deck

Someone is calling the flight deck on VHF radio

The FLT transmit switch is stuck in the ON position

A

A ground crew technician is calling the flight deck

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145
Q

What does EICAS SATCOM indicate?

The SATCOM system has failed

A SATCOM voice call has been received and is waiting to be answered

SATCOM voice capability is temporarily lost

A SATCOM uplink has been received and may be reviewed on the comms display

A

The SATCOM system has

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146
Q

What does amber SATCOM VOICE EICAS indicate?

A SATCOM voice call has been received and waiting to be answered

The SATCOM system has failed

The SATCOM voice communications system is inoperative

SATCOM voice capability is temporarily lost

A

The SATCOM voice communications system is inoperative

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147
Q

What does EICAS *COMM message mean when accompanied by a high-low chime?

VHF or HF selective call received or SATCOM call received waiting to be answered

ACARS has failed

A MEDIUM priority uplink has been received and may be reviewed on COMM display

A LOW priority downlink message has been sent

A

A MEDIUM priority uplink has been received and may be reviewed on COMM display

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148
Q

A high-low chime sounds and a *COMM communication alert message appears on EICAS. What action should you take?

Push the COMM switch on the display select panel and view the uplinked message

Push the COMM function key an the CDU and view the uplinked message

Push the COMM switch on the display select panel and view the uplinked message on the MFD

Push the TRANSMITTER select switch with the illuminated CALL light and respond the call

A

Push the COMM switch on the display select panel and view the uplinked message on the MFD

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149
Q

What does the *SELCAL communication EICAS alert message indicate?

The selective calling system has failed

A VHF or HF call has been received and is waiting to be answered

A cabin attendant is calling the flight deck

An uplink has been received

A

A VHF or HF call has been received and is waiting to be answered

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150
Q

What does amber PAPER light on PRINTER indicate?

The telephone handset has failed

The flight deck printer is out of paper OR the paper is jammed

The flight deck printer is turned off

The main cabin printer is out of paper

A

The flight deck printer is out of paper OR the paper is jammed

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151
Q

What does amber DATALINK SYS EICAS message indicate?

A data link system is temporarily lost

All data link systems are inoperative

A lost data link connection has been received

An uplink message has been received

A

All data link systems are inoperative

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152
Q

You have a cold airplane (no power connected). Which items will be powered if you push the BATTERY switch ON?

The APU controller and the DC fuel pump will be powered

Only the main battery bus will be powered

The hot battery bus will be powered

A

The APU controller and the DC fuel pump will be powered

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153
Q

Which items are unpowered following BATTERY OFF during power down?

Fire extinguisher bottles

Standby Bus, Captains flight instruments and left AIMS

APU battery and hot battery bus

Clocks

A

Standby Bus, Captains flight instruments and left AIMS

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154
Q

What does the green EXT PWR AVAIL light indicate?

External power is disconnected from the airplane

External power is connected to all the airplane’s electrical busses

Electrical power is available to the electrical busses but may not be correct

External power is connected to the airplane, correct and ready to power the electrical busses

A

External power is connected to the airplane, correct and ready to power the electrical busses

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155
Q

What occurs, if you start the APU while primary and secondary external power are connected (engines not running)?

Nothing, the APU has to be connected manually to the electrical system

The APU connects to the left main bus

The APU connects to the right main bus

The APU connects to both main busses

A

The APU connects to the left main bus

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156
Q

What automatic switching will occur if you start the APU with the External Power on the Tie Bus System?

The APU connects to the Bus Tie switches but does not power either Main Bus

The APU connects to the Bus Tie and replaces Secondary External Power on the Left Main Bus

The APU connects to the Bus Tie and replaces Primary External Power

A

The APU connects to the Bus Tie and replaces Secondary External Power on the Left Main Bus

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157
Q

With APU and both engines running with no external power, what powers RIGHT MAIN BUS after right engine shutdown?

Opposite engine generator

The APU generator

Primary external power

A

The APU generator

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158
Q

How are the busses powered if the right engine is started with APU powering the Left bus system and External Power powering the Right bus system?

External power continues to supply the right main bus

The right engine generator automatically powers the right main bus

The right engine generator automatically powers both main busses

A

The right engine generator automatically powers the right main bus

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159
Q

What powers the left main bus if the left engine is shut down, the right generator is running, the APU generator is not running?

Secondary external power supplies the left main bus

The APU generator powers the left main bus

The right engine generator powers the left main bus

A

The right engine generator powers the left main bus

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160
Q

Which EICAS display is the result of manually disconnecting the left generator drive?

[] ELEC DRIVE L

[] ELEC GEN DRIVE L and ELEC GEN OFF L

[] ELEC DRIVE L and ELEC BUS ISLN L

[] ELEC BACKUP GEN

A

[] ELEC GEN DRIVE L and ELEC GEN OFF L

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161
Q

What does the EICAS advisory message [] ELEC GEN DRIVE R indicate?

The drive has disconnected automatically because of eng failure

The drive has disconnected automatically because of low oil pressure

There is low oil pressure in the drive. Disconnect the drive manually

The right main generator and right back up generator have failed

A

There is low oil pressure in the drive. Disconnect the drive manually

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162
Q

What condition causes the ELEC GEN DRIVE EICAS message to display?

Generator drive oil temperature is high

Generator drive oil pressure is low

GENERATOR CONTROL switch is selected OFF

Either A or B

A

Generator drive oil pressure is low

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163
Q

Under what conditions does an automatic APU start occur?

In flight, if both AC transfer busses lose power

In flight, if both AC main busses lose power

In flight, if on both IDGs low oil pressure is sensed

In flight, if there has an engine failure occurred

A

In flight, if both AC transfer busses lose power

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164
Q

Which bus operates only on the ground?

The ground service bus

The ground handling bus

The left main AC bus

The right transfer bus

A

The ground handling bus

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165
Q

With no external power, how can you power the GROUND HANDLING BUS before/after engine shutdown?

Select ground handling bus on

Bus is powered as long as the right main bus is powered

Start the APU

A

Start the APU

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166
Q

What is the correct Electrical Panel configuration for normal flight?

Bus Tie Switch in ISLN, Battery switch ON, Generator Control Switch ON

Bus Tie Switch in AUTO, Battery switch OFF, Generator Control Switch ON

Bus Tie Switch in AUTO, Battery switch ON, Generator Control Switch ON

Bus Tie Switch ISLN, Battery switch ON, Generator Control Switch OFF

A

Bus Tie Switch in AUTO, Battery switch ON, Generator Control Switch ON

167
Q

What is the electrical configuration during autoland?

There is no change from normal

The left transfer bus isolates from the right main bus

The right transfer bus isolates from the right main AC bus

The left transfer bus isolates from the right transfer bus

A

The right transfer bus isolates from the right main AC bus

(left Gen to Left Main to Left XFR….Backup Generators to right XFR and right Gen to Right main bus)

168
Q

When does the right transfer bus isolate from the right main bus?

Never

During descent

When the system configures for autoland

When main AC busses are powered

A

When the system configures for autoland

169
Q

What is the primary source of power for the XFR BUSSES?

Ram Air Turbine

Backup generators

Engine generators

Main AC busses

A

Main AC busses

170
Q

What is the primary source of DC power during normal flight?

APU battery

Main battery

Transformer Rectifier Units (TRUs)

DC generators

A

Transformer Rectifier Units (TRUs)

171
Q

What provides DC power on this airplane?

DC generators

Standby inverters

Transfer busses

Transformer rectifier units

A

Transformer rectifier units

172
Q

If all main AC and backup generators fail, what becomes the primary source of power for the standby electrical system?

Main battery

APU

PMGs

RAT

A

RAT

173
Q

What is the main power source for the power supply assemblies (PSAs) within the flight control DC electrical system?

PMGs

Respective main DC busses

Respective AC transfer busses

Hot battery bus and back up generators

A

PMGs

174
Q

What is the EICAS message resulting from manually disconnecting the LEFT IDG?

ELEC GEN OFF L, ELEC BACKUP GEN L and ELEC DRIVE DISC L

ELEC GEN OFF L and ELEC DRIVE DISC L

ELEC BACKUP GEN L and ELEC DRIVE DISC L

ELEC GEN OFF L and ELEC BACKUP GEN L

A

ELEC GEN OFF L and ELEC DRIVE DISC L

175
Q

What is the primary power source for ‘fly-by-wire’?

Battery

Main AC buses

Permanent Magnet Generators

APU

A

Permanent Magnet Generators

176
Q

What is SECONDARY power source for FLY-BY-WIRE of 1 or more PMGs unpowered?

Hot Battery Bus

Left XFR Bus

Main DC Busses

Main AC Busses

A

Main DC Busses

177
Q

Which of the following causes the RAT to deploy automatically in flight?

Centre and right hydraulic system pressures are low

Left engine is failed and centre hydraulic system pressure is low

Left AC transfer bus and right main AC bus are unpowered

Both AC transfer busses are unpowered

A

Both AC transfer busses are unpowered

178
Q

What is the source of standby electrical power if the RAT sheds electrical power because of low hydraulic pressure?

APU

Backup generators

Main battery

DC busses

A

Main battery

179
Q

Prior to engine start, with NO APU, PRIMARY and SECONDARY External power ON, How are the busses powered if the right engine is started?

Right engine generator automatically powers right main bus only

External power continues to supply right main bus until selected off

Right engine generator automatically powers LEFT and RIGHT main busses

A

Right engine generator automatically powers right main bus only

180
Q

Where is the engine oil quantity displayed?

Secondary engine indications

Status display

Primary engine indications

Both A and B are correct

A

Secondary engine indications

181
Q

During CLIMB with normal engine EEC modes configured, you manually position the thrust levers to the full forward position. What will happen?

The engines will exceed the maximum thrust limit

The engines will produce maximum climb thrust

The EEC alternate mode will automatically engage

The engines will produce maximum rated thrust

A

The engines will produce maximum rated thrust

182
Q

During CRUISE with normal engine EEC modes configured, you manually position the thrust levers to the full forward position. What will happen?

The engines will exceed the maximum thrust limit

The engines will produce maximum cruise thrust

The EEC alternate mode will automatically engage

The engines will produce maximum rated thrust

A

The engines will produce maximum rated thrust

183
Q

With the engine EECs manually selected to the alternate mode, which statement is true?

The autothrottle automatically disengages

Positioning of the thrust levers to the full forward position will cause an engine limit to be exceeded

Both engine EECs are now in the soft alternate mode

The EEC schedules N2 as a function of thrust lever position

A

Positioning of the thrust levers to the full forward position will cause an engine limit to be exceeded

184
Q

What is proper response for ENG EEC MODE L EICAS, with blanked L EPR and ALTN in the L ENGINE EEC MODE switch in flight?

Select hard mode on both EEC mode switches

Disconnect the autothrottle

Retard thrust in preparation for hard mode

Cancel EICAS message

A

Retard thrust in preparation for hard mode

185
Q

If both NORM and ALTN annunciators lit on L ENGINE EEC MODE switch (NORM only on the R ENGINE EEC MODE switch), which statement is true?

The autothrottles have automatically disengaged

Positioning the thrust levers to full forward causes an engine limit to be exceeded

Right engine EEC is now in soft alternate mode

The N1 readout, pointer and fill pattern are not displayed on EICAS

A

Positioning the thrust levers to full forward causes an engine limit to be exceeded

186
Q

Which statement is true concerning the alternate EEC mode?

If a fault occurs in normal mode, EEC automatically switches to soft alternate mode

In the hard alternate mode, EEC uses EPR as controlling parameter

Engine thrust limit protection is provided in both normal and hard alternate modes

Overspeed protection is NOT available in the hard alternate mode (ENG RPM LIMITED L/R EICAS and EEC reduces Fuel flow when approaching an overspeed)

A

If a fault occurs in normal mode, EEC automatically switches to soft alternate mode

(Soft is automatic with NORM and ALTN light in the switch, Hard is Manual with only ALTN light in switch. Both display ENG EEC MODE L/R EICAS. Autothrottles remain
engaged in both modes)

187
Q

With EECs in hard alternate mode, what is your action for ENG LIMT PROT L and ENG LIMT PROT R EICAS?

Cancel EICAS warning

De-select the Alternate mode

Reduce thrust

Select CLB CON

A

Reduce thrust

188
Q

Which statement(s) are true concerning alternate EEC mode?

In hard alternate mode, EEC uses N1 as controlling parameter

Engine thrust limit protection is provided in both normal and hard alternate modes (Only overspeed protection)

EEC automatically switches to soft alternate mode if a fault occurs in the normal mode

Overspeed protection is NOT available in hard alternate mode

A

In hard alternate mode, EEC uses N1 as controlling parameter

EEC automatically switches to soft alternate mode if a fault occurs in the normal

189
Q

What occurs when engine anti-ice is operated?

Probe heat switches from reduced to full power

Approach idle is selected

The ENGINE ANTI-ICE ON memo message displays

The backup window heat system operates

A

Approach idle is selected

190
Q

When does the EEC select approach idle?

When the flaps are out of the UP position

When the flaps are commanded to 25 or greater

When the engine bleed air valve is open

When wing anti-ice is ON

A

When the flaps are commanded to 25 or greater

191
Q

What does a red box around the digital N1 INDICATION ONLY mean?

Normal - indicator is operating in normal range

Caution - Indicator is operating in caution range

Exceeding - Indicator is operating at or beyond its’ maximum limit

A

Normal - indicator is operating in normal range

(red readout, box AND pointer means a limit has been reached, white is normal range)

192
Q

What do AMBER EGT BOX, Digital, Pointer and Scale mean?

Normal range

Caution range

Exceeding maximum limit

A

Exceeding maximum limit

On the FCOM only talks of Caution Range for Eng Oil Temp & Press and Vib
(All 4 red indicate operation At or Above maximum limit, Same for N1 and N3

193
Q

N1 RPM has returned to normal range after an EXCEEDENCE. How do you clear the indication from EICAS?

Bring u p Status page

Bring up appropriate exceedence checklist

Select the secondary engine indications

Use Cancel/Recall switch

A

Use Cancel/Recall switch

194
Q

When do SECONDARY ENGINE INDICATIONS display automatically?

the displays initially receive electrical power

a FUEL CONTROL switch is moved to CUTOFF in flight an engine fire switch is pulled in flight

a secondary engine parameter is exceeded, or

engine N2 RPM is below idle in flight.

All of them

A

All of them

195
Q

If left engine VIB displays 2.5 N2 and the right 1.8 BB, which of the following is true?

Right engine vibrations are higher than the left

The N2 rotor is the source of highest vibrations on right engine

Broadband vibrations are indicated on the left engine

The N2 rotor is the source of highest vibration on left engine

A

The N2 rotor is the source of highest vibration on left engine

196
Q

What does the ENG OIL PRESS R EICAS message mean?

Engine oil pressure is low

Engine oil pressure is high

Engine oil temperature is low

Engine oil temperature is high

A

Engine oil pressure is low

197
Q

What does the ENG OIL TEMP L EICAS message mean?

Engine oil pressure is low

Engine oil pressure is high

Engine oil temperature is low

Engine oil temperature is high

A

Engine oil temperature is high

198
Q

With ENG OIL TEMP L EICAS, and secondary engine display shows RED, with left Oil Qty and Right engine VIB displaying black on white, which of the following are true?

Left engine oil temperature is low

Left engine oil temperature is high

Left engine oil quantity is low

Left engine vibrations are high

Right engine vibrations are high

A

Left engine oil temperature is high

Left engine oil quantity is low

Right engine vibrations are high

199
Q

What does ENG FUEL VALVE R EICAS mean?

Engine fuel valve on right engine is open

Both spar and engine valves on right engine are commanded to same position

The spar or engine fuel valve on right engine has NOT reached its’ commanded position

The fuel filter bypass valve is not functioning

A

The spar or engine fuel valve on right engine has NOT reached its’ commanded position

200
Q

If LEFT FUEL CTRL SWITCH is CUTOFF, and RIGHT FUEL CTRL SWITCH is in RUN, identify the correct statements below?

Left spar valve is closed

Left engine fuel valve is closed

Right spar valve is closed

Right engine fuel valve is closed

left spar valve is open or armed

Left engine fuel valve is open or armed

Right spar valve is open or armed

Right engine fuel valve is open or armed

A

Left spar valve is closed

Left engine fuel valve is closed

Right spar valve is open or armed

Right engine fuel valve is open or armed

201
Q

Under normal conditions, what is the source of bleed air to start the second engine?

Ground pneumatic chart

The engine already running

APU

Main battery

A

APU

202
Q

With the AutoStart ON, when do you move the FUEL CONTROL switches to RUN?

After START has been selected on the START/ IGNITION selector

After reaching maximum motoring speed

After engine stabilized at idle

After 18% N2 has been reached

A

After START has been selected on the START/ IGNITION selector

203
Q

What malfunction, during ground start, will cause the AutoStart system to abort the start?

Low oil pressure

High oil temperature

A broken fan blade

A hot start

A

A hot start

204
Q

In flight with ENG SHUTDOWN R EICAS displayed and X-BLD above right N3 indication with AutoStart ON, How do you restart the engine?

Select START on R START/IGNITION selector only

Select RUN on R FUEL CONTROL switch only

First select START on R START/IGNITION selector, THEN select RUN on R FUEL CONTROL switch

A

First select START on R START/IGNITION selector, THEN select RUN on R FUEL CONTROL switch

205
Q

What is AUTO-RELIGHT?

Auto-relight provides flameout protection by activating the AutoStart system

Auto-relight provides flameout protection by activating the respective engine ignitors

Auto-relight opens the start valve automatically if the engine fails to start

Auto-relight provides hung start protection by deactivating the ignitor

A

Auto-relight provides flameout protection by activating the respective engine ignitors

206
Q

When is AUTO-RELIGHT activated?

Whenever landing flaps are set and engine anti-ice is off

Whenever engine is at or below idle with FUEL CONTROL switch in RUN

Only when START/IGNITION selector is set to START position

Only when landing flaps are set

A

Whenever engine is at or below idle with FUEL CONTROL switch in RUN

For GE Engines is different

207
Q

When is continuous ignition automatically provided (B777-300ER)?

When the flap lever is out of the UP position or engine anti-ice is on

When the landing gear is down

When thunderstorms are detected on the weather radar

When the thrust levers reach idle or the landing gear is down

A

When the flap lever is out of the UP position or engine anti-ice is on

208
Q

Which of these AUTOSTART statements are correct?

AutoStart may initiate a second start attempt on ground (2 for RR….3 for GE)

AutoStart resets FUEL CONTROL switch to CUTOFF automatically AutoStart monitors oil Temperature (Not Pressure)

AutoStart controls the engine fuel valve and ignition during start

AutoStart may cycle the engine fuel valve to correct problems

AutoStart aborts start attempt if oil pressure does not rise

AutoStart makes continuous start attempts in the air (with Fuel Control switches to RUN)

AutoStart is used for normal engine starting

A

AutoStart may initiate a second start attempt on ground (2 for RR….3 for GE)

AutoStart controls the engine fuel valve and ignition during start

AutoStart makes continuous start attempts in the air (with Fuel Control switches to RUN)

AutoStart is used for normal engine starting

209
Q

What does the ENG REV LIMITED L EICAS message indicate?

The left engine reverser is limited to one hydraulic source

Engine reverse thrust is limited to the left engine only

The left engine reverser will not deploy or will be limited to idle

The left engine reverse thrust is limited to ground operation only

A

The left engine reverser will not deploy or will be limited to idle

210
Q

With REV in GREEN above left engine EPR and REV in AMBER above right engine, what best describes the conditions of the reverser sleeves on Left and Right side?

Left and right reversers are stowed and locked

Left reverser is in transit and right reverser is fully open

Left reverser is fully open and right reverser is in transition

A

Left reverser is fully open and right reverser is in transition

211
Q

During pre-flight, you note that all main and centre tank fuel pump switches are OFF, but the left forward pump PRESS displayed. Are these indications correct if the APU is operating?

During pre-flight, you note that all main and centre tank fuel pump switches are OFF, but the left forward pump PRESS displayed. Are these indications correct if the APU is operating?

Yes. The left forward PRESS light is extinguished, indicating the APU is on and automatically using that pump

Yes. The left forward PRESS light is extinguished, indicating the DC pump is on

No. The right forward ‘RESS light should also be extinguished

No. All of the PRESS lights should be extinguished when the fuel pumps are commanded off

A

Yes. The left forward PRESS light is extinguished, indicating the APU is on and automatically using that pump

212
Q

. What does APU SHUTDOWN EICAS message mean?

APU is out of fuel

APU has been manually shutdown

APU has automatically shutdown

APU controller has shut down the packs

A

APU has automatically shutdown

213
Q

If the APU is in the attended mode, what fault causes an immediate automatic shutdown?

APU controller failure

High EGT

Low oil pressure

High oil temperature

A

APU controller failure

214
Q

What happens when an APU fire is detected on the ground and the engines are running?

The APU shuts down automatically and the fire bottle discharges automatically

The APU shuts down automatically but the fire bottle must be discharged manually

The APU does NOT shut down automatically but the fire bottle discharges automatically

The APU does NOT shut down automatically and the fire bottle must be discharged manually

A

The APU shuts down automatically but the fire bottle must be discharged manually

215
Q

What does APU LIMIT EICAS message mean?

APU is out of fuel

APU limit has been exceeded

APU has automatically shut down

APU pneumatic output limited

A

APU limit has been exceeded

216
Q

During cruise you notice the OVERHEAT ENG R message displayed on EICAS, what has occurred?

An overheat condition in the right engine

A fire condition exists in the right engine

Overheat detection in the right engine has failed

A pending overheat condition exists in the right engine

A

An overheat condition in the right engine

217
Q

Which of the following indicate an ENGINE OVERHEAT condition?

Master Warning, EICAS FIRE ENG L, FUEL CONTROL switch let red, L ENG FIRE HANDLE lit red

EICASE DET OVERHEAT ENG L

Master Caution, EICAS OVERHEAT ENG L

A

Master Caution, EICAS OVERHEAT ENG L

218
Q

What does the DET FIRE ENG R EICAS message indicate?

Fire detection for this engine is no longer available

The fire detection system has automatically reconfigured to single loop operation

The right engine fire bottle squibs are inoperative

A fire has been detected in the right engine

A

Fire detection for this engine is no longer available

219
Q

During pre-flight you notice the BOTLLE 1 DISCH ENG message on EICAS, what does this mean?

Ground maintenance is servicing fire bottle 1

The fire bottle squibs are inoperative

This is a normal indication prior APU start

Fire bottle 1 has discharged

A

Fire bottle 1 has discharged

220
Q

What action should you take if the fire switch remains locked after a fire is detected?

Wait until the fire light extinguishes

Pull the fire switch to override the lock

Push the fire override switch, then pull the fire switch

Rotate the fire switch

A

Push the fire override switch, then pull the fire switch

221
Q

What happens when an APU fire is detected on the ground and the engines are shut down?

The APU shuts down automatically and the fire bottle discharges automatically

The APU shuts down automatically but the fire bottle must be discharged manually

The APU does NOT shut down automatically but the fire bottle discharges automatically

The APU does NOT shut down automatically and the fire bottle must be discharged manually

A

The APU shuts down automatically and the fire bottle discharges automatically

222
Q

During taxi out, DET FIRE APU EICAS is displayed. What does this indicate?

APU fire detection system has automatically reconfigured to single loop operation

APU fire detection is no longer available

The APU fire bottle squibs are inoperative

A fire has been detected in the APU

A

APU fire detection is no longer available

223
Q

While you are doing walk around, APU FIRE WARNING HORN sounds. What would you do if you are near Nose Gear?

A

Try contact Flight deck or engineer as they might be performing an APU FIRE test. If not, press APU FIRE SHUTDOWN button, then the APU BOTTLE DISCHARGE button

224
Q

What does BOTTLE DISCH APU EICAS and APU BTL DISCH on overhead panel indicate during preflight?

These are normal indications prior to APU start

APU fire bottle has discharged

APU fire bottle squibs are inoperative

A

APU fire bottle has discharged

225
Q

What does the EICAS message DET FIRE CARGO AFT indicate?

A fire has been detected in the aft cargo compartment

There is a detection zone fault in the smoke detector for the aft cargo compartment

The aft cargo fire heat sensor is inoperative

Smoke detection for the aft cargo compartment is not available

A

Smoke detection for the aft cargo compartment is not available

226
Q

With FIRE CARGO AFT EICAS, AFT CARGO FIRE ARM switch displays ARMED and AFT and CARGO FIRE DISCH switch shows DISCH, what happens when the FWD CARGO FIRE ARM switch is pushed?

The arming functions for the FWD CARGO FIRE ARM switch activate but discharge into the forward compartment does NOT occur (all bottle used for 1 compartment only)

The arming functions for the FWD CARGO FIRE ARM switch do NOT activate

The arming functions for the FWD CARGO FIRE ARM switch activate, and the metered bottles discharge into the forward compartment

A

The arming functions for the FWD CARGO FIRE ARM switch activate but discharge into the forward compartment does NOT occur (all bottle used for 1 compartment only)

227
Q

After the FWD CARGO FIRE ARM switch has been armed, what happens when the CARGO FIRE DISCH switch is pushed?

Two rapid dump bottles discharge into the forward cargo compartment

All 5 fire bottles arm and airflow around the cargo compartment is reduced

All 5 bottles discharge into the forward Cargo compartment

One of the metered bottles discharges into the forward cargo compartment

A

Two rapid dump bottles discharge into the forward cargo compartment

228
Q

After the forward cargo fire has been extinguished, what happens when the AFT CARGO FIRE ARM switch is now pushed?

The arming function for the AFT CARGO FIRE ARM switch activate and the metered bottles discharge into the aft cargo compartment

The arming function for the AFT CARGO FIRE ARM switch do not activate

The arming function of the AFT CARGO FIRE ARM switch activate, but discharge into the aft compartment does not occur

A

The arming function of the AFT CARGO FIRE ARM switch activate, but discharge into the aft compartment does not occur

229
Q

Which statement is true about wheel well fire?

The gear should stay extended for a minimum of 10 minutes

There is no fire extinguishing system

The gear should never be retracted

There is only a single detector loop installed

A

There is no fire extinguishing system

230
Q

Which statement is true regarding lavatory smoke detection?

An automatic sprinkler system activates if a fire is detected

An aural warning activates and light illuminates outside the lavatory if smoke is detected

There is no built-in fire extinguishing system for the lavatories

The lavatory fire extinguishing system is activated by a discharge switch on the overhead panel

A

An aural warning activates and light illuminates outside the lavatory if smoke is detected

231
Q

Which statement is true concerning a lavatory fire?

An automatic sprinkler system activates if a fire is detected

An aural warning activates and a light illuminates outside the lavatory if smoke is detected

There is no built-in fire extinguishing system for the lavatories

The lavatory fire extinguishing system is activated by a discharge switch on the overhead panel

A

An aural warning activates and a light illuminates outside the lavatory if smoke is detected

232
Q

What are the alerts if lavatory smoke is detected?

An aural alert sounds in the lavatory and in the cabin and the EICAS warning message SMOKE LAVATORY displays

The lavatory call light flashes and the master call light at the associated attendant station illuminates

An aural alert sounds in the cabin only and the EICAS advisory message SMOKE LAVATORY displays

Answer A and B from above

A

The lavatory call light flashes and the master call light at the associated attendant station illuminates

233
Q

Which of the following components are part of the B777 fly-by-wire flight control system?

AFDCs, ACEs and PCUs

PFCs and ACEs

CDUs, ACEs and FMSs

All of the above

A

PFCs and ACEs

234
Q

Which statement(s) are true when the primary flight computer disconnect switch is positioned to DISC?

Protection features are NOT available

The system operates in direct mode

Autopilot is NOT available

All of the above

A

All of the above

235
Q

Can the aileron be trimmed with the autopilot engaged?

YES

NO, aileron trim is inhibited

YES, but only if both aileron trim switches are pushed simultaneously

No, the autopilot will disconnect

A

NO, aileron trim is inhibited

236
Q

Which statement is NOT true regarding the flap position indication?

The flap position indication displays on EICAS when the flaps begin to extend

There are three flap position indications: Normal (Primary), Expanded (Secondary and Alternate)

The flap lever position is magenta when the slats and flaps are in transit to the commanded position

Alternate extension is limited to slats midrange and flaps 20

The Flap Position Indicator is on the PFD

A

The Flap Position Indicator is on the PFD

237
Q

Which of these following flight control surfaces aid in roll control?

Ailerons, Flaperons and Spoilers

Slats and Spoilers

Kruger Flaps, Slats and Spoilers

Flaperons and Slats

A

Ailerons, Flaperons and Spoilers

238
Q

Which flight control surfaces provide roll control?

Ailerons

Ailerons and spoilers

Ailerons and flaperons

All of the above

A

All of the above

239
Q

Which of these flight control surfaces assist in roll control?

Slats only

Slats and Spoilers

Ailerons and Flaperons

Flaperons and Slats

A

Ailerons and Flaperons

240
Q

Which are not characteristics of BANK ANGLE PROTECTION?

It provides opposing wheel forces at excessive bank angles (to bring bank back to 30)

Bank angle indicator on PFD changes to magenta at angles greater than 35 (indicator changes to amber)

It begins at 35 degrees

It functions only during autopilot operation

A

It functions only during autopilot operation

241
Q

For T/O, which flight control surface(s) move down to increase lift?

Slats

Flaperons and slats

Ailerons and flaperons

All of above

A

Ailerons and flaperons

242
Q

Which of the following is true when the flight control system is operating in secondary mode?

Envelope protection features are available

Actuator control electronics (ACEs) are NOT available

The primary flight computers (PFCs) are NOT available

Autopilot and envelope protection are NOT available

A

Autopilot and envelope protection are NOT available

243
Q

In the direct mode, which of the following components of the primary flight control system are NOT operating?

Actuator Control Electronics (ACEs)

Primary Flight Computers (PFCs)

Control surface actuators

All components are operating

A

Primary Flight Computers (PFCs)

244
Q

The [ ] PRI FLIGHT COMPUTER EICAS message indicates?

The system is in the primary mode

The system is in the direct mode

Flight control modes are not affected

The system is in the secondary mode

A

The system is in the direct mode

245
Q

Which trim control is inhibited when the autopilot is engaged?

Manual Trim Selector

Control wheel pitch trim switches

Alternate pitch trim levers

None of the above

A

Control wheel pitch trim switches

246
Q

What is true about turn compensation?

It is available only in the secondary mode

It is NOT available if the bank angle is above 30 degrees

Elevator input is NOT required for turns up to 30 degrees of bank

The turn compensation switch is on the overhead panel

A

Elevator input is NOT required for turns up to 30 degrees of bank

247
Q

When do the control wheel stab trim switches control stab movement directly?

All the time

Only during approach

Only on ground

During engine at go-around

A

Only on ground

248
Q

When are pitch trim changes required with the 777 fly-by- wire system?

During airspeed changes only

When landing gear is extended

When thrust is changed

For all configuration changes

A

During airspeed changes only

249
Q

What is FALSE about Stabilizer Trim?

The green band on the Stabilizer Position Indicator shows the stabilizer trim range for takeoff

You can use the pitch trim switches on the yoke to set the trim

As airspeed increases, trim rate decreases

As airspeed increases, trim rate increases

A

As airspeed increases, trim rate increases

250
Q

When do the alternate pitch trim levers move the stabilizer?

When the autopilot is disengaged

Only on the ground

During flight control SECONDARY and DIRECT modes

The levers move the stabilizer directly all the times

A

The levers move the stabilizer directly all the times

251
Q

Which statements are FALSE about STABILIZER TRIM?

The green band on stab position indicator shows the stabilizer trim range for takeoff

You can use the pitch trim switches on control column to set stabilizer position on the ground

The alternate pitch trim levers always move the stabilizer directly

In flight, the stabilizer can be trimmed above Vmo

A

In flight, the stabilizer can be trimmed above Vmo

252
Q

What is true about alternate pitch trim?

Wheel pitch trim commands have priority over alternate pitch trim commands

The alternate pitch trim levers always move the stabilizer directly

Moving the alternate pitch trim levers with the autopilot engaged will disconnect the autopilot

Only one lever has to be moved to command trim changes

A

The alternate pitch trim levers always move the stabilizer directly

253
Q

What happens when the stabilizer signal is not present or invalid?

The EICAS message STAB GREENBAND displays

The green band on the indicator turns amber

The green band and the pointer are not displayed

The CDU displays the VERIFY TRIM message in the scratchpad

A

The green band and the pointer are not displayed

254
Q

What causes the [ ] STAB GREENBAND EICAS message?

The FMC gross weight (ZFW entry) may be incorrect

The FMC CG entry may be incorrect

Main gear oleo pressure switch might be at fault

Answer A & B from above

A

Answer A & B from above

255
Q

What could cause the [ ] STAB GREENBAND EICAS message to be displayed?

Power to the stabilizer position indicator is lost

The stabilizer position is unreliable

The FMC weight and / or CG entry may be incorrect

A

The FMC weight and / or CG entry may be incorrect

256
Q

What is wheel to rudder cross-tie?

A function which enables aircraft steering through nose wheel and rudder pedals on ground only

A function which connects the main gear aft axle steering with the rudder pedals

A function which provides the capability to control the initial effect of an engine failure using aileron inputs only

A function which provides the capability to control the initial effect of an engine failure using rudder inputs only

A

A function which provides the capability to control the initial effect of an engine failure using aileron inputs only

257
Q

If TAC is available, at which airspeed starts the TAC system to operate?

After takeoff thrust has been set

At 80 knots

At 65 knots

At 70 knots

A

At 70 knots

258
Q

Which one of the following statements is false?

At cruise speed, spoilers #5 and #10 are locked out

Spoilers # 4 and #11 are mechanically operated

When augmenting roll control, the spoilers work

There are 12 spoilers

A

There are 12 spoilers

259
Q

Which of these flight control surfaces droop when the trailing edge flaps extend?

Flaperons

Slats only

Kruger Flaps and Slats

Flaperons and Slats

A

Flaperons

260
Q

Which is NOT a characteristics of the secondary flap and slat mode?

There is an expanded flap and slat position indication

There is a flap load relief system

There is a slat load relief system

Operation of the slats is electrical

A

There is a flap load relief system

261
Q

Which statement is true about flap and slat load relief?

Flap load relief operates in primary mode

Slat load relief operates in primary and secondary mode

Flap load relief operates in primary mode, only when flap placard speeds are exceeded and flaps 20 to 30 are selected

Slats retract from midrange to up when slat load relief is activated

A

Flap load relief operates in primary mode

262
Q

. What can you say about the [ ] FLAPS DRIVE EICAS message?

The message is displayed when the flap drive mechanism has been shut down due to an asymmetry

The EICAS flap indicator display turns magenta

Arm the alternate system

The flaps will operate in the secondary mode

A

The message is displayed when the flap drive mechanism has been shut down due to an asymmetry

263
Q

Which system is used to extend flap/slats if FLAP/SLAT CONTROL EICAS displayed?

Primary mode

Secondary mode

Alternate Mode

No further extension possible - control failure

A

Alternate Mode

264
Q

What are the initial steps to extend the flaps using the Alternate Flap System?

Arm ALT FLAPS ARM switch. Select ALT FLAPS Selector to EXT

Arm ALT FLAPS ARM switch. Select NORMAL FLAPS Selector to 20

Arm ALT FLAPS ARM switch. Select ALT FLAPS selector to OFF

Push ALT FLAPS ARM switch to OFF. Select ALT FLAPS selector to EXT

A

Arm ALT FLAPS ARM switch. Select ALT FLAPS Selector to EXT

265
Q

Auto speedbrake protection is provided for which phases of flight?

Takeoff, Rejected Takeoff, Approach

Takeoff, Rejected Takeoff, Landing

Takeoff, Rejected Takeoff, Approach below 200 feet

Takeoff, Rejected Takeoff, Approach, Landing

A

Takeoff, Rejected Takeoff, Landing

266
Q

Under what conditions does the SPEEDBRAKE EXTEND EICAS message display?

Speedbrakes are extended and aircraft is above 800 feet RA

Speedbrakes are extended when RA is between 15 and 800 feet or landing flaps are extended

Any time Speedbrakes are extended

After landing, if Speedbrakes fail to extend

A

Speedbrakes are extended when RA is between 15 and 800 feet or landing flaps are extended

267
Q

Under which conditions does the SPEEDBRAKE EXTENDED EICAS message display?

Speedbrakes are extended below 800 feet RA

Speedbrakes are extended and flap lever is in a landing position

Speedbrakes are extended and either thrust lever is not closed

All of the above

A

All of the above

268
Q

Which are NOT STALL PROTECTION features?

Autothrottle advances to maintain minimum speed (wake-up)

Autothrottle disconnects

Airplane cannot be trimmed to an airspeed below minimum manoeuvring speed

Stick Shaker activates

A

Autothrottle disconnects

269
Q

What are the indications given for an excessive Glideslope deviation and under what conditions?

The scale turns amber and the pointer flashes. At low radio Altitudes with the autopilot or flight director engaged

The scale remains magenta and the pointer flashes. At any altitude below 800 ft.

Any time deviation exceeds 1 dot

Amber scale flashing with an automated aural “Glideslope Glideslope”. Prior to or after localizer capture

A

The scale turns amber and the pointer flashes. At low radio Altitudes with the autopilot or flight director engaged

270
Q

When does a glideslope deviation alert occur?

After glideslope capture and at low radio altitudes

Only after localizer capture

Any time deviation exceeds 1 dot

Any time after localizer capture

A

After glideslope capture and at low radio altitudes

271
Q

What does the Pitch Limit Indication (PLI) indicate?

Pitch angle for best climb speed

Pitch at which underspeed warning will sound

Pitch limit at which stick shaker occurs

Proper pitch angle for takeoff

A

Pitch limit at which stick shaker occurs

272
Q

When is the Pitch Limit Indication displayed?

When flaps are not up or airspeed is low with flaps up

Only when the flaps are not in the up position

If airspeed is close to VMO / MMO

After takeoff until passing 20,000 feet

A

When flaps are not up or airspeed is low with flaps up

273
Q

What does the amber cross hatching (//////) indicate PFD ALTIMETER DISPLAY indicate?

A hard surfaced runway

End of Descent altitude

Altitude tape failure

Departure Airport or Runway altitude, for 400nm, then Destination Airport or Runway altitude

A

Departure Airport or Runway altitude, for 400nm, then Destination Airport or Runway altitude

274
Q

When does a LOCALISER NOT CAPTURED alert occur?

At greater than 2 dot deviation

Above 1,000ft RA

Localiser not captured AND below 1,000ft RA ?

Only after G/S Deviation alert

A

Localiser not captured AND below 1,000ft RA ?

275
Q

Which indication is never shown on PFD?

Vertical speed

Bearing pointers

Radio altitude

Takeoff speed bugs

Route map

A

Bearing pointers

Route map

276
Q

What represents the letter ‘L’ or ‘R’ next to the barometric setting on the PFD?

Respective EFIS control panel’s barometric setting reference for the transponder

Respective EFIS control panel’s barometric setting reference for the autopilot

Respective EFIS control panel’s barometric setting reference for the flight director

Answer B and C from above

A

Answer B and C from above

277
Q

. Which alerts can be displayed on the PFD?

ENG FAIL, PULL UP, AIRSPEED LOW

WINDSHEAR, ENG FAIL, TRAFFIC

GO AROUND, TERRAIN, WINDSHEAR

WINDSHEAR, ENG FAIL, PULL UP

A

WINDSHEAR, ENG FAIL, PULL UP

278
Q

When is the landing altitude flag removed?

After landing altitude is set on the pressurization panel

After the origin airfield is entered on the CDU route page

After the correct local altimeter setting is set

Only after takeoff

A

After the origin airfield is entered on the CDU route page

279
Q

Which of the following ND modes cannot display weather radar returns?

APP centered

APP expanded

VOR expanded

MAP centered

A

APP centered

280
Q

What does the POS map switch display?

ADIRU, GPS positions and VOR raw data radials

Latitude/Longitude data for all waypoints

FMC present position data

Waypoint ETA and altitude

A

ADIRU, GPS positions and VOR raw data radials

281
Q

What does the nose (point) of the AIRPLANE SYMBOL on PLAN DISPLAY represent?

Present Heading

FMC present position

Active waypoint

A big investment

A

FMC present position

(Inhibited north of 82N/S latitudes. 11.31.8)

282
Q

What causes the CDU-L source status to display on ND?

A single CDU failure

Pending route modifications using CDU L

Left NAV source switch in CDU

ADIRU failure

A

Left NAV source switch in

283
Q

When are the annunciations, CDU L, C, R, displayed on the ND?

Navigation source switch in CDU

Only after a single FMC failure

After dual FMC failure

Both A and C

A

Both A and C

284
Q

Which control(s) cause(s) range marks to be displayed in VOR EXPANDED mode?

WXR or TFC switch

Range Selector

CTR switch

All the time

A

WXR or TFC switch

285
Q

When is range information displayed in VOR EXPANDED mode on ND?

All the time

Only at 10, 20 and 40 miles range

Over Wyoming and Colorado

If WXR or TCAS data is displayed

A

If WXR or TCAS data is displayed

286
Q

What information can be shown on the VOR EXPANDED mode on ND?

TCAS information

Route Map

Descent path guidance

Track up compass

Weather Radar returns

A

TCAS information
Weather Radar returns

287
Q

When is the selected TRACK or HEADING line removed from ND?

After missed approach is initiated

After 10 seconds if the MCP setting has not changed and LNAV is engaged

Anytime LNAV or G/S mode engaged

10 seconds after VNAV descent started and altitude setting has not changed

A

After 10 seconds if the MCP setting has not changed and LNAV is engaged

288
Q

When will the TRUE light illuminate in the heading reference switch?

Any time true heading is in use

Whenever the Heading Reference switch is in the TRUE position

Above 82° N/S latitude or in the vicinity of the magnetic poles

After a correct answer is given

A

Whenever the Heading Reference switch is in the TRUE position

289
Q

Why would the HEADING REFERENCE symbol beside present heading at top of ND display TRU?

The airplane is above 82 degrees N or S latitude

True heading has automatically been selected

The HDG REF switch has been selected to the TRUE position

The airplane is in vicinity of magnetic pole

All of them

A

All of them

290
Q

According existing acceleration/deceleration, what predicted airspeed does the airspeed trend vector indicate?

Airspeed in 5 seconds

Airspeed in 10 seconds

Airspeed in 15 seconds

Airspeed in 20 seconds

A

Airspeed in 10 seconds

291
Q

Each segment of the position trend vector on top of the airplane symbol (dashed line) represents the aircraft’s position prediction after how many seconds?

10

20

30

45

A

30

292
Q

How many feet vertical deviation indicates the VNAV deviation scale, displayed during VNAV PATH descent?

+/-100

+/- 200

+/- 400

+/- 800

A

+/- 400

293
Q

What is the green altitude range arc (prediction on ND) based on?

Vertical speed and indicated airspeed (IAS)

Vertical speed and ground speed

Only vertical speed

Only ground speed

A

Vertical speed and ground speed

294
Q

What is the maximum range at which turbulence returns can be displayed on ND?

10nm

20nm

40nm

80nm

A

40nm

295
Q

How are Display Select Panel operations affected when EICAS is displayed on an inboard display unit?

All display panel select panel operations are normal

Inboard display unit can only display EICAS or the secondary engine display

All display switches are inoperative except ENG, FUEL and AIR

Any Display Select Panel selection will be displayed on the lower center display unit

A

All display switches are inoperative except ENG, FUEL and AIR

296
Q

What are the steps to select the Status display on the Left inboard unit?

Select R INBD switch, then select STAT switch

Select LWR CTR switch, then select STAT switch

Select L INBD switch, then select STAT switch

Select R INBD switch, then select DOOR switch

A

Select L INBD switch, then select STAT switch

297
Q

What are the steps to select the Flight Control Synoptic on the right inboard display unit?

Select R INBD switch, then select FCTL switch

Select LWR CTR switch, then select FCTL switch

Select L INBD switch, then select FCTL switch

Select R INBD switch, then select DOOR switch

A

Select R INBD switch, then select FCTL switch

298
Q

How can you select a SYNOPTIC DISPLAY on the left inboard display if it’s already displayed on LOWER CENTER display

A

Select Left INBOARD DSPL selector on MFD

299
Q

If Left OUTER displays PFD, Left INNER displays ELEC synoptic, Center Upper is EICAS, what will the display configuration be if the outboard left display fails?

Outboard Blank, Inboard PFD, Upper Center EICAS

Outboard PFD, Inboard blank, Upper Center blank

Outboard EICAS, Inboard ND, Upper PFD

Outboard ND, Inboard EICAS, Upper ND

A

Outboard Blank, Inboard PFD, Upper Center EICAS

300
Q

In what positions should the INBOARD DSPL selectors be during pre-flight stage?

PF on MFD, PNF on MFD

PF on MFD, PNF on NAV

PF on PFD, PNF on NAV

PF on PFD, PNF on MFD

A

PF on MFD, PNF on MFD

301
Q

If UPPER CENTER Fails, with the lower center displaying the COMM and the left Inboard Display Selector is in the EICAS position, what is the effect on Display Select Panel operations?

All Display Select Panel operations are normal

All Display switches are inhibited

All Display switches are inoperative except ENG, FUEL and AIR

Any Display Select Panel selection will be displayed on lower center display

A

All Display switches are inoperative except ENG, FUEL and AIR

302
Q

Which statement about the STANDBY ATTITUDE indicator is true (NOT the Integrated Standby Flight Display ISFD single instrument on GE engine aircraft)?

It displays pitch, bank and slip

It displays roll and bank only

It displays pitch, bank and heading

It displays pitch and bank only

A

It displays pitch and bank only

303
Q

Your CLOCK has the time selector set to MAN, and ET switch to RUN. If the sweep hand on the clock is passing through 19, the top LCD TIME display reads 16:45 and lower LCD ET/CHR displays 1. Which of the following is correct?

UTC time is 16:45, Elapsed time is 0:01, Chronograph is 0:01

UTC time is unknown, Elapsed time is 16:45, Chronograph is 0:01.19

Local time is 16:45, Elapsed time is unknown, Chronograph is 0:01:19 (MAN is for manual time setting, eg. Local, UTC selection would show UTC time)

Local time is 16:45, Elapsed time is 0:19, chronograph is 0:01

A

Local time is 16:45, Elapsed time is unknown, Chronograph is 0:01:19 (MAN is for manual time setting, eg. Local, UTC selection would show UTC time)

304
Q

What is the status of the below TCAS indication?

TCAS proximate traffic: Traffic is above the airplane and climbing

TCAS other traffic: Traffic is below the airplane and climbing

TCAS other traffic: Traffic is above the airplane and descending

TCAS proximate traffic: Traffic is below the airplane and descending

A

TCAS proximate traffic: Traffic is below the airplane and descending

305
Q

How do you test the WEATHER RADAR?

Push WX mode then WXR map switches

Push TEST then DATA map switches

Push WXR map then TEST switch

Push TEST then WXR map switches

A

Push WXR map then TEST switch

306
Q

What is represented by the color magenta in weather radar returns?

Moderate precipitation

Heavy precipitation

Turbulence within precipitation

Clear Air Turbulence

A

Turbulence within precipitation

307
Q

What does WXR FAIL ANT message indicate?

Weather returns will not display due to a problem with the antenna

A

Weather returns will not display due to a problem with the antenna

308
Q

What does the WXR FAIL R/T message indicate?

Weather returns will not display as the selected R/T has failed

A

Weather returns will not display as the selected R/T has failed

309
Q

What does a square icon next to an EICAS message indicate?

The non-normal condition is no longer present

There is no electronic checklist associated with this message

There is an electronic checklist associated with this message and the checklist is complete

There is an electronic checklist associated with this message and the checklist is NOT complete

A

There is an electronic checklist associated with this message and the checklist is NOT complete

310
Q

What does cyan colour indicate in the electronic checklist?

The step must be reset

The step must be repeated

Do not perform the step

The step was performed wrong

A

Do not perform the step

311
Q

Which statement about the electronic checklist NORMAL and NON-NORMAL keys are true?

The NON-NORMAL key displays a list of the normal checklist

The NON-NORMAL key displays the last checklist completed

The NORMAL key displays the next normal checklist in the sequence

The NORMAL key displays the last normal checklist in the sequence

A

The NORMAL key displays the next normal checklist in the sequence

312
Q

Which statement about the non-normal queue is true?

Each checklist in queue must be completed in the order listed

The checklist queue allows you to select which checklist to perform next

While the queue is displaying, it continuously updates automatically each time a new EICAS message appears

The queue displays checklists for message that do not have an icon

A

The checklist queue allows you to select which checklist to perform next

313
Q

How do you display an unannunciated non-normal checklist?

Highlight and select the NON-NORMAL MENU key then select the UNANNUNCIATED CHECKLIST key

Highlight and select the NORMAL MENU key then select the UNANNUNCIATED CHECKLIST key

Highlight and select the NON-NORMAL MENU key

Highlight and select the CHKL RESET key then select the UNANNUNCIATED CHECKLIST key

A

Highlight and select the NON-NORMAL MENU key then select the UNANNUNCIATED CHECKLIST key

314
Q

What does the NOTES key do?

The NOTES key resets the operational notes collected from non-normal checklists during flight

The NOTES key displays the operational notes collected from non-normal checklists during flight

The NOTES key allows you to create a note for the displayed checklist

The NOTES key adds the displayed checklist to the notes queue

A

The NOTES key displays the operational notes collected from non-normal checklists during flight

315
Q

Which statement about resets is true?

The CHKL RESET key resets all of the normal checklists The CHKL RESET key resets all of the non- normal

All checklists can be reset once by using the RESETS key followed by the RESETS ALL key

All checklists can be reset once by using the NON-NORMAL MENU key followed by the CHKL RESET KEY

A

All checklists can be reset once by using the RESETS key followed by the RESETS ALL key

316
Q

Which statement about overrides is true?

To override a checklist you must display that checklist and then use the CHKL OVRD key

Closed loops steps cannot be overridden

Steps that are overridden remain white

To override a checklist you must reset it first

A

To override a checklist you must display that checklist and then use the CHKL OVRD key

317
Q

What does the CHKL OVRD key do when selected?

Overrides the highlighted item on the checklist

Overrides the displayed checklist

Displays the next checklist to be overridden

Displays the last overridden checklist

A

Overrides the displayed checklist

318
Q

You complete the HYD PRESS SYS C checklist and prompt CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT DEFERRED ITEMS is displayed. Which of the following is true?

The deferred items can be completed on this checklist but should be completed on the approach checklist

This checklist is complete only when deferred items are accomplished

The deferred items cannot be completed on this checklist

The deferred items cannot be completed on the approach checklist

A

The deferred items can be completed on this checklist but should be completed on the approach checklist

319
Q

Which of the following statements about FMC CDU pages is true?

Dashes indicate data input is optional

‘ERASE’ is used to delete data in a single line

Page titles are magenta when active

The RTE page title is white when inactive

A

Dashes indicate data input is optional

320
Q

If the FMC NAV RAD page displays PARK next to the ILS freq/course (which is in small font), how do you select the ILS freq/course for your planned runway?

Line select 4L

You can’t. you must wait until you are close enough for FMC to autotune

You must manually enter Freq/Course into scratchpad and line select 4L

A

Line select 4L

(park means ILS not being used and not tuned)

321
Q

Which EICAS message do you see when the ADIRU is in alignment mode?

EICAS memo message ADIRU ALIGN MODE

EICAS alert message NAV ALIGN MODE

CDU scratchpad message ADIRU ALIGN

CDU scratchpad message ENTER ADIRU POSITION

A

EICAS memo message ADIRU ALIGN MODE

322
Q

How long should a ADIRU switch remain off when manually realigning the ADIRU?

Momentarily

24 seconds

30 seconds

45 seconds

A

30 seconds

323
Q

If ADIRU is ON, and the ON BAT light is illuminated, which of the following is true?

The ADIRU is operating on its internal battery

The airplane was secured, primary power was left ON, and the ADIRU was left ON

The ADIRU is performing a self-test

Primary power was removed, the BATTERY switch is OFF and the ground call horn is on

A

Primary power was removed, the BATTERY switch is OFF and the ground call horn is on

324
Q

What happens if the ADIRU switch is left on and then primary power is removed from the airplane and the BATTERY switch is turned off?

The ON BAT light illuminates and the EICAS memo message ADIRU ON BAT displays

The ON BAT light illuminates and the ground crew call horn sounds

The ON BAT light extinguishes when the BATTERY switch is turned off

Nothing. The ADIRU switch is always left on when securing the airplane

A

The ON BAT light illuminates and the ground crew call horn sounds

325
Q

. How often is a complete ADIRU alignment recommended?

Every 15 hours

Every 24 hours

Whenever the total time in the navigation mode is expected to exceed 15 hours

Whenever the total time in the navigation mode is expected to exceed 24 hours

A

Whenever the total time in the navigation mode is expected to exceed 24 hours

326
Q

Which statement about the ADIRU is true?

The inertial reference position is updated using information from the air data modules

The ADIRU sends magnetic variation data to the FMCs to convert true heading to magnetic heading

The ADIRU receives the same data inputs as the SAARU but compares and validates the data independently

If the ADIRU fails, the PFDs blank

A

The ADIRU receives the same data inputs as the SAARU but compares and validates the data independently

327
Q

Which of the following are data sources for the ADIRU?

Air data modules only

Static ports only

Air data modules, AOA vanes and TAT probe

AOA vanes and TAT probe only

A

Air data modules, AOA vanes and TAT probe

328
Q

Which of the following are data sources for the SAARU?

Air data modules only

Static ports only

Air data modules, AOA vanes and TAT probe

AOA vanes and TAT probe only

A

Air data modules, AOA vanes and TAT probe

329
Q

What is the altitude source for transponder altitude reporting when the ALT SOURCE selector is in the ALT position?

ADIRU

SAARU

Air data modules

Either A or B

A

SAARU

330
Q

What is the correct CDU entry to create crossing points along the flight plan route starting with N24 degrees Latitude and every 8 degrees thereafter?

N24-8

N024/8

N024x8

N24.8

A

N24-8

331
Q

What is true about cost index?

Larger values decrease ECON speed

LRC speed may be obtained by entering a cost index of 0

Larger values increase ECON speed

The ECON speed is NOT based on the cost index

A

Larger values increase ECON speed

332
Q

On 777, COST INDEX of 140 approximates?

MRC

LRC

VMO/MMO

A

LRC

333
Q

Which one of the following is inoperative with dual FMC failure?

LNAV

VNAV

MAP display

Both CDUs

A

VNAV

334
Q

The air turnback arrival page is accessible under which conditions?

Less than 100 miles from the origin and nearer to the origin than the destination

Less than 200 miles from the origin and nearer to the origin than the destination

Less than 400 miles from the origin and nearer to the origin than the destination

The air turn back arrival page can always be used during the flight

FCOM 11.41.16

A

Less than 400 miles from the origin and nearer to the origin than the destination

335
Q

On which CDU page can the GPS position data be enabled/disabled?

POS INIT 1/3

POS REF

ACT RTA PROGRESS 3/3

The GPS position data function cannot be disabled

A

POS REF

336
Q

What colour is the VOR data on the NAV RADIO page?

Magenta

Cyan

Green

White

A

Green

337
Q

What colour is the ADF data on the NAV RADIO page?

Magenta

Cyan

Green

White

A

Cyan

338
Q

Which CDU page allows NAVAID INHIBIT?

REF NAV DATA

POS REF 3/3

NAV RADIO 2/2

NAVA ID INHIBIT is not an available function

A

REF NAV DATA

339
Q

Which one of the following pages is available following dual FMC failure?

ALTN PERF INIT

ALTN REF NAV DATA

ALTN POS REF

ALTN NAV LEGS

A

ALTN NAV LEGS

340
Q

Which of the items listed below is NOT determined by the Fuel Quantity Indicating System?

Fuel temperature

Fuel height

Fuel type

Fuel density

A

Fuel type

FQIS (Fuel Quantity Indicating System) utilizes height and density to calculate fuel quantity.
No reference

341
Q

The sequence of fuel burn is?

Left and right main tank to the respective engine and the centre tank resupplies the main tank fuel

Tank for engine feed is selected by configuring the fuel pumps and crossfeed valves respectively

Left and right main tank to the respective engine until reaching 11,500 pounds or 5,200 kg, then the centre tank feeds the engines until empty, then the remaining main tank fuel feeds

Centre tank fuel feeds both engines until empty then the main tanks feed their respective engines

A

Centre tank fuel feeds both engines until empty then the main tanks feed their respective engines

342
Q

During pre-flight, you note that all main and center tank fuel pump switches are OFF, but the left forward pump PRESS light is not displayed. Are these indications correct if the APU is operating?

Yes. The left forward PRESS light is extinguished, indicating the APU is on and automatically using that pump

Yes. The left forward PRESS light is extinguished, indicating the DC pump is on

No. The right forward PRESS light should also be extinguished

No. All of the PRESS lights should be extinguished when the fuel pumps are commanded off

A

Yes. The left forward PRESS light is extinguished, indicating the APU is on and automatically using that pump

343
Q

Before engine start on the ground, the right centre tank pump PRESS light is illuminated without the EICAS message [] FUEL PUMP CENTRE R displayed. Is this condition correct?

Yes. One pump is electrically load shed and the message is inhibited

Yes. Centre tank fuel is not used during engine start and the message is inhibited

No. The EICAS message is never inhibited

No. The EICAS message will be displayed after a short sensing delay

A

Yes. One pump is electrically load shed and the message is inhibited

344
Q

Which statement is true about supplying fuel to operate the APU prior to establish AC power?

The APU cannot operate because there is no fuel pressure

The APU will operate without a fuel pump

The left main tank has a DC fuel pump to operate the APU

The center tank has a DC fuel pump to operate the APU

A

The left main tank has a DC fuel pump to operate the APU

345
Q

With no AC power available, what supplies fuel to operate the APU?

Left FWD AC main tank fuel pump

Left main tank jettison pump

The APU is on suction feed

Left main tank DC fuel pump

A

Left main tank DC fuel pump

346
Q

Once the center tank pumps are turned off in flight some fuel remains in the center tank as unusable fuel. Is this statement true?

Yes. Main tank pump pressure prevents any further fuel transfer

No. A scavenge system transfers remaining fuel when either main tank quantity decreases below a set level

Yes. The center tank fuel valves automatically close

No. The pumps can be turned on again to empty the center tank

A

No. A scavenge system transfers remaining fuel when either main tank quantity decreases below a set level

347
Q

Balancing fuel requires the use of:

Either crossfeed valve and both pumps in the low main tank

Both crossfeed valves and both pumps in the high main tank

Either crossfeed valve and both pumps in the high main tank

Both crossfeed valves and both pumps in the low main tank

A

Either crossfeed valve and both pumps in the high main tank

Both FUEL PUMPS in the fuller tank are required for fuel balancing, but only 1 crossfeed valve needed

348
Q

Which fuel pumps are used for fuel jettison?

Left and right main tank fuel pumps and the centre tank override pumps

Left and right main tank jettison pumps only

Left and right main tank jettison pumps and the centre tank override / jettison pumps

A

Left and right main tank jettison pumps and the centre tank override / jettison

349
Q

Select the best statement from the following

The left and right main tanks each contain two AC driven fuel pumps

The center tank contains two override pumps and two separate jettison pumps

The APU receives fuel from only the left main tank using a DC or AC driven pump

The left and right main tanks each contain two jettison tanks

A

The left and right main tanks each contain two AC driven fuel p

350
Q

Select the best statement from following:

Fuel may be jettisoned to any minimum quantity at or above MLW Fuel may be jettisoned to any quantity at or below MLW

Fuel may be jettisoned to a minimum quantity of 11500 lbs or 5200 kg in each main tank

A

Fuel may be jettisoned to a minimum quantity of 11500 lbs or 5200 kg in each main tank

In new airplanes the minimum quantity is 3800 Kg

351
Q

After FUEL JETTISON, when total fuel equals TO REMAIN fuel (MLW), what are the actions on FUEL JETTISON panel?

Select ARM switch to DISARM, FUEL TO REMAIN push in, and switch L and R nozzle switches are off

Select L and R nozzle switches off, return FUEL TO REMAIN switch to auto and use arm switch to disarm fuel jettison

Select L and R Nozzle switches OFF and set ARM switch to DISARM position

A

Select L and R Nozzle switches OFF and set ARM switch to DISARM position

352
Q

What is the lowest possible fuel quantity remaining in each main tank, after fuel jettison is completed?

At least 4,200 kg

At least 5,200 kg

There is no minimum amount specified

A fuel amount which corresponds to MLW

A

At least 5,200 kg

353
Q

Which is the FUEL JETTISON rate?

The FUEL JETTISON rate with one nozzle valve open is 2700 lbs/min (1224 kgs) with the operation of jettison pumps only and 3500 lbs/min (1587 kgs) with the jettison and override/jettison pumps.

The fuel jettison rate with 2 nozzle valves open is 3100 lbs/min (1406 kgs) with the operation of the jettison pumps only, and 5400 lbs/min (2449 kgs) with jettison and override/jettison pumps. I.e. 2500 with fuel in centre and 1400 with only main tank fuel.

Both are correct.

A

Both are correct.

A answer is not in any document anymore

354
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

When there is a FUEL IMBALANCE of more than 500 Kgs the EICAS display shows a fuel imbalance pointer to the main tank that has the least fuel.

If a crossfeed valve is open, a fuel imbalance more than 200 Kgs causes the pointer to show.

The pointer stays until the imbalance is less than 100 Kgs.

A solid amber fuel imbalance pointer replaces the white pointer if the FUEL IMBALANCE message is displayed

A

If a crossfeed valve is open, a fuel imbalance more than 200 Kgs causes the pointer to show.

355
Q

The EICAS message FUEL IN CENTER is displayed when?

The center tank contains fuel

A Main tank fuel pump is ON

The center tank pump switches are OFF

All of the above together

A

All of the above together

356
Q

When is the EICAS message FUEL PUMP CENTER L displayed?

Anytime there is no pump output pressure

When the center tank contains fuel and the fuel pump switch is OFF

When the center tank is empty and the pump switch is ON

When the center tank fuel pump is ON and the pump output pressure is low

A

When the center tank fuel pump is ON and the pump output pressure is low

357
Q

What is NOT true when FUEL PRESS ENG L EICAS displayed?

The left engine will flame out from fuel starvation

Crossfeed may be necessary to prevent thrust decay

The left engine suction feeds from the left main fuel tank

Both left main fuel tank pumps are inoperative

A

The left engine will flame out from fuel starvation

358
Q

How many hydraulic systems are needed to power enough of the flight controls for safe flight?

One system

Two systems

Three systems

A

One system

359
Q

Where are hydraulic system quantities displayed?

Status display

Hydraulic synoptic display

Secondary engine display

Both A and B

A

Both A and B

360
Q

What does the FAULT light under the L ELEC DEMAND selector indicate?

Hydraulic pump pressure is low or hydraulic pump temperature high

Left engine primary fuel pump is inoperative

Automatic systems using the left system are faulty

The autobrake system is faulty

A

Hydraulic pump pressure is low or hydraulic pump temperature high

361
Q

What does the FAULT light in the L ENG primary HYDRAULIC PUMP switch indicate?

Engine EGT is high or engine speed is low

Left engine primary fuel pump is inoperative

Hydraulic pump pressure is low or temperature is high

Left engine is faulty

A

Hydraulic pump pressure is low or temperature is high

362
Q

If the left and right hydraulic systems are lost, can the centre hydraulic system sufficiently power enough of the flight controls for a safe flight?

Yes

No

A

Yes

363
Q

What powers the right engine thrust reverser?

Left engine bleed air

Right engine bleed air

Centre hydraulic system

Right hydraulic system

A

Right hydraulic system

364
Q

If the left and right hydraulic systems are lost, the center hydraulic system cannot adequately provide airplane controllability?

True

False

A

False

365
Q

What happens if both Cl and C2 DEMAND pump selectors are positioned to ON?

Only the Cl DEMAND pump will operate

Only the C2 DEMAND pump will operate

Both the Cl and C2 DEMAND pumps will operate

Both the Cl and C2 DEMAND pumps will operate only if a Cl or C2 PRIMARY pump has low pressure

A

Only the Cl DEMAND pump will operate

366
Q

What actions do you take to eliminate source of an overheat with []HYD OVERHEAT PRI C2 EICAS message?

Turn of the C1 and C2 primary hydraulic pumps

Turn off the C1 and C2 primary and demand hydraulic pumps

Turn off the C2 primary hydraulic pump

Turn off all center system hydraulic sources

A

Turn off the C2 primary hydraulic pump

367
Q

With []HYD PRESS DEM R EICAS displayed, and switch in AUTO, how can you check whether the pump or automatic function of the pump has failed?

Turn off the R ENG PRIMARY pump and check system pressure

Turn off the R ELEC DEMAND pump and return to AUTO then Check for EICAS message

Turn the R ELEC DEMAN pump ON

You cannot check the automatic function

A

Turn the R ELEC DEMAN pump ON

L and R demand pumps are electric….Center are Air driven

368
Q

Autoland is inoperative for which of the following conditions?

Left hydraulic system pressure low

Center hydraulic system pressure low

Right hydraulic system pressure low

All of the above

A

Left hydraulic system pressure low

Auto Land will not be possible due to the reduced control redundancy of the Stabilizer (Study Guide)

369
Q

When the RAT deploys automatically due to system failures, what does it hydraulically power?

Alternate gear extension

Normal brakes (after landing and airspeed <60 kts)

Primary Flight Control components normally powered by the center hydraulic system

All of the above

A

Primary Flight Control components normally powered by the center hydraulic system

370
Q

When FIRE SWITCH pulled, what of the following are turned off?

Engine-Driven Hydraulic Pump

Demand Hydraulic pump

Both Engine and Demand Hydraulic pumps

A

Engine-Driven Hydraulic Pump

371
Q

3

Which wheel number has the left middle outboard main wheel?

A

5

372
Q

. Select the true statement about alternate gear extension?

After the landing gear is extended the main gear doors close

The landing gear free falls to the down and locked position

Landing gear cannot be retracted after alternate extension

The landing gear lever must be in the down position

A

The landing gear free falls to the down and locked position

373
Q

Select the true statement about alternate gear extension

A dedicated DC hydraulic pump delivers pressure to lower the gear. There is no free fall

The landing gear lever has to be in the down position before activating the ALTERNATE GEAR switch

The EICAS landing gear position indication displays the expanded gear position indication

The landing gear can NEVER be retracted following an alternate extension

A

The EICAS landing gear position indication displays the expanded gear position indication

374
Q

. Select the true statement about alternate gear extension

The landing gear lever must be in the down position when using the alternate gear extension system

After the landing gear is extended, the main gear doors close

The normal landing gear indications are displayed on EICAS

The landing gear may be retracted after alternate extension, if the normal system is operating

A

The landing gear may be retracted after alternate extension, if the normal system is operating

375
Q

. Which statement is true? Main gear steering is commanded:

Whenever rudder pedals must be used for sharp turns

When rudder pedals reach maximum deflection

When nose wheel angle exceeds 70 degrees

When the nose wheel steering angle exceeds 13 degrees

A

When the nose wheel steering angle exceeds 13 degrees

376
Q

Which Hydraulic system powers NOSE GEAR STEERING?

Left System

Right System

Center System

A

Center System

(Center used for all Wheel/Gear controls, except normal braking, which is on the Right system)

377
Q

Which statement is true about the rudder pedals?

The rudder pedals are best used for sharp turns

The rudder pedals are locked to centre at high speeds

The rudder pedals control only nose wheel steering and the rudder

The rudder pedals control nose wheel steering, main gear steering and the rudder

A

The rudder pedals control only nose wheel steering and the rudder

378
Q

Which pressure source is providing antiskid protection?

Normal brake hydraulic system pressure

Normal and alternate/reserve brake hydraulic system pressure

Pressure supplied by the brake accumulator

All of the above

A

All of the above

379
Q

When does the BRAKE SOURCE light illuminate?

When the right and center / reserve hydraulic system have been lost

After loss of the right hydraulic system

When the reserve system is NOT selected manually after a loss of the right hydraulic system

When the left and center / reserve hydraulic system have been lost

A

When the right and center / reserve hydraulic system have been lost

380
Q

Why would the BRAKE SOURCE light illuminate?

Brake accumulator does not have any pressure in it

Left and right hydraulic systems operating normally, but the center system has low pressure

Normal and Alternate brake system pressures are low

Alternate brake system is depressurised

A

Normal and Alternate brake system pressures are lo

381
Q

Above which ground speed does the RTO autobrake setting command maximum braking pressure during RTO?

65 knots

80 knots

85 knots

Anytime during takeoff if both thrust levers are retarded to idle

A

85 knots

382
Q

When does the autobrake application begin after landing?

After the wheels have spun up and the reverse thrust levers are pulled

After the wheels have spun up and the left main gear strut is compressed

After wheels have spun up

After both thrust levers are retard to idle and the wheels have spun up

A

After both thrust levers are retard to idle and the wheels have spun up

383
Q

When are brake applied after landing with AUTOBRAKE 3?

Immediately after thrust levers are at idle

After wheel spin up below 85kts

Reverse thrust selected, after wheel spin up and 2000ft runway remaining

After landing, thrust levers idle and after wheel spin up

A

After landing, thrust levers idle and after wheel spin up

384
Q

Which AUTO BRAKE selector setting will you see immediately after takeoff?

MAX AUTO

DISARM

OFF

RTO

A

OFF

385
Q

Which AUTOBRAKE mode provides the highest deceleration rate for landing?

AUTOBRAKE 1

AUTOBRAKE MAX AUTO

AUTOBRAKE 4

AUTOBRAKE

A

AUTOBRAKE MAX AUTO

386
Q

What is the highest AUTOBRAKE setting with a time delay?

1

2

3

4

MAX AUTO

A

2

387
Q

Which controls disengage the AUTOBRAKE?

Rudder pedals

Control column

Autobrake selector

Parking brake lever

A

Rudder pedals

Autobrake selector

(as well as speedbrake stowed, and advancing a thrust lever above idle)

388
Q

If UP surrounded by a white box on EICAS GEAR INDICATION, what is true?

Landing hear are down and locked

Landing gear in transit

GEAR UP displayed for 10 seconds then blanked

Landing gear display remains until gear extended

A

GEAR UP displayed for 10 seconds then blanked

(Crosshatched while in transit, and blank with for inop position indicators)

389
Q

How do you know the parking brake is set?

The EICAS message PARKING BRAKE SET is displayed

Normal and alternate brake pressure are available

The parking brake lever is in the up position

The BRAKE SOURCE light is extinguished

A

The EICAS message PARKING BRAKE SET is displayed

390
Q

What can you say about the parking brake if the PARKING BRAKE SET message is not displayed?

It is set because the APU RUNNING message is displayed

It is not set

It cannot be set because the brake accumulator pressure is 1500psi

The APU RUNNING message will hide the PARKING BRAKE SET message

A

It is not set

391
Q

Which indications show that the PARKING BRAKE can be set?

BRAKE SOURCE light lit, pressure gauge 3000 PSI

BRAKE SOURCE light lit, pressure gauge 2500 PSI

BRAKE SOURCE light lit, pressure gauge 0 PSI

BRAKE SOURCE light NOT lit, pressure gauge 3000 PSI

A

BRAKE SOURCE light NOT lit, pressure gauge 3000 PSI

392
Q

What does the CONFIG WARNING SYS EICAS indicate if displayed in-flight?

Takeoff config warning system AND master warning lights inop Landing config warning system AND master caution lights inop

Takeoff and landing config warning systems, master warning lights, master caution lights and warning loudspeakers inop

Landing config warning system is inop OR 1 or both master warning lights OR 1 or both warning loudspeakers inop

A

Landing config warning system is inop OR 1 or both master warning lights OR 1 or both warning loudspeakers inop

Systems and Expanded QRH pg 136. NO other Ref for warning lights and warning loud speakers (If displayed prior to departure, it means takeoff config warning system inop or the same as above)

393
Q

Which statement is FALSE about Alert Messages?

● PRINTER (white) message on EICAS is LOW LEVEL COMMUNICATION

Alert message BARO SET DISAGREE on EICAS (Amber) is an ADVISORY LEVEL Alert message

[ ] HYD PRESS SYS C (Amber) on EICAS is a CAUTION LEVEL Alert message

● FMC (white. not indented) on EICAS is MEDIUM LEVEL COMMUNICATION alert message

All of them.

A

All of them.

394
Q

Which alerts can be displayed on the PFD?

ENG FAIL, PULL UP, AIRSPEED LOW

WINDSHEAR, ENG FAIL, TRAFFIC

GO AROUND, TERRAIN, WINDSHEAR

WINDSHEAR, ENG FAIL, PULL UP

A

WINDSHEAR, ENG FAIL, PULL UP

395
Q

The GPWS provides various warning, caution and advisory level alerts below which altitude?

2450 feet baro altitude

1500 feet RA

10,000 feet baro altitude

2450 feet RA

A

2450 feet RA

396
Q

How is a WINDSHEAR time critical warning alert cancelled?

By resetting the master warning system

By flying out of the windshear conditions

By pushing the GND PROX switch

A

By flying out of the windshear conditions

397
Q

When is a WINDSHEAR time critical warning alert cancelled?

After pushing the GND PROX switch

After resetting the Master Warning system

When windshear conditions no longer exist

A

When windshear conditions no longer exist

398
Q

What does STALL WARNING consist of?

Stick shaker followed by a stall warning horn

Stick shaker but NO stall warning horn

EICAS message ‘STALL’

Stall warning horn

A

Stick shaker but NO stall warning horn

399
Q

What does stall warning consist of?

Initial buffet, stick shaker and stall warning horn

Autothrottle ‘wake up’ function

Initial buffet and stick shaker

Pitch envelope protection

A

Initial buffet and stick shaker

400
Q

What precaution should be taken if a TAIL STRIKE occurs during takeoff?

Pressurise the airplane to a lower cabin altitude

No special precautions are necessary

Airplane should not be pressurised

A

Airplane should not be pressurised

401
Q

What are types of TCAS traffic alerts?

None, Approximate, Traffic Resolution, Other Advisory

Other Advisory, Proximate Traffic, Traffic Advisory, Traffic Resolution

Other, Proximate, Traffic Advisory, Resolution Advisory

TA/RA, TA ONLY, Proximate, Other

A

Other, Proximate, Traffic Advisory, Resolution Advisory

402
Q

A filled square TCAS alert indicates?

Other Traffic

Proximate Traffic

TA

RA

A

RA

403
Q

A filled white diamond TCAS alert indicates?

Other Traffic

Proximate Traffic

TA

RA

A

Proximate Traffic

404
Q

What is the status of the below TCAS indication?

(PICTURE)

TCAS traffic advisory, range 5.0 Nm, traffic is 500 feet above the aircraft and descending

TCAS resolution advisory, range unknown, traffic is at 5,000 feet radio altitude and descending with 500 feet/minute

TCAS resolution advisory, range 5.0 Nm, traffic is 500 feet above the aircraft and descending with more than 500 feet/minute

TCAS resolution advisory, range and bearing unknown, traffic is at 5,000 feet QNH and descending with 500 feet/minute

A

TCAS resolution advisory, range 5.0 Nm, traffic is 500 feet above the aircraft and descending with more than 500 feet/minute

405
Q

What does TCAS RA F/O EICAS advisory message indicate?

TCAS is incapable of displaying RA vertical guidance on the captains PFD

TCAS is incapable of displaying RA traffic symbols on the F/O’s ND

TCAS is incapable of displaying RA traffic symbols on the captain’s ND

TCAS is incapable of displaying RA vertical guidance on the F/O’s PFD

A

TCAS is incapable of displaying RA vertical guidance on the F/O’s PFD

406
Q

What is the meaning of the EICAS advisory message TCAS RA CAPTAIN ?

TCAS is NOT able to display RA guidance on the F/O’s PFD

The Captain’s ND traffic displays and voice alerts are not available

TCAS is NOT able to display RA guidance on the Captain’s PFD

A

TCAS is NOT able to display RA guidance on the Captain’s PFD

407
Q

Which statement is true about TCAS traffic alerts?

RA predicts a conflict in approximately 40 to 50 seconds

The TA symbol is a filled white diamond

There are four types of traffic alerts: Offscale, Proximate, TA and RA

GPWS immediate windshear alert inhibits all TCAS alerts

A

GPWS immediate windshear alert inhibits all TCAS

408
Q

What is the purpose of airplane system STATUS message?

To alert the crew of impending system malfunctions

To provide crew awareness of system faults that may affect airplane dispatch

To inform the crew that a malfunction is about to occur

STATUS messages are used by maintenance personnel only

A

To provide crew awareness of system faults that may affect airplane dispatch

409
Q

What is the level of urgency for a time critical warning?

A time critical warning requires immediate crew awareness and may require that crew action be performed in a timely manner

A time critical warning is a crew reminder of the current state of manually or automatically configured airplane systems

A time critical warning requires crew awareness and may require that crew action be accomplished “as time permits”

A time critical warning requires immediate crew awareness and an immediate response and is usually associated with flight path control

A

A time critical warning requires immediate crew awareness and an immediate response and is usually associated with flight path control

410
Q

How long will a WINDSHEAR time critical warning remain active?

Until wind shear conditions are no longer detected

Until the master warning light reset switch is pushed

Until the GND PROX G/S caution light is pushed

Until the landing gear is retracted

A

Until wind shear conditions are no longer detected

411
Q

What is indicated by an Amber OFFSCALE message on ND?

TCAS has failed

ATC transponder is off

TCAS has detected a potential traffic threat that is beyond the current selected display range of the ND

TCAS cannot display vertical guidance symbols on the ND

A

TCAS has detected a potential traffic threat that is beyond the current selected display range of the ND

412
Q

All TCAS alerts are inhibited by:

Windshear alerts

EICAS caution message

System STATUS messages

EICAS warning messages

A

Windshear alerts

413
Q

What is recommended pitch when responding to TCAS RA?

No more than 10 Nose up

Along the Red line of RA trapezium

Anywhere inside the RA trapezium

Anywhere outside the RA trapezium

A

Anywhere outside the RA trapezium

414
Q

If you have a time critical GPWS warning (PULL UP, or WINDSHEAR on PFD), TCAS resolution advisories:?

Override the GPWS alert

Occur at the same time

Are inhibited during GPWS alert

Are not affected

A

Are inhibited during GPWS alert