FCOM Flashcards
1
Q
Which lights are turned on by the STORM light switch?
All flight deck lights
All lights in the airplane
Aisle stand, glare shield and instrument panel flood lights, dome lights and indicator lights
Landing lights, navigation lights, strobe lights and wing lights
A
Aisle stand, glare shield and instrument panel flood lights, dome lights and indicator lights
2
Q
Which lights are turned to full bright by the STORM light switch?
All exterior lights
All panel and flood lights
Dome lights, glare shield flood lights and aisle stand flood lights
Dome lights, map lights and illuminated indicator lights
A
Dome lights, glare shield flood lights and aisle stand flood lights
3
Q
When do the FASTEN SEAT BELTS signs automatically illuminate?
When the landing gear is up
When the cabin altitude is below 10,000 feet
Any time passenger oxygen is deployed
When the flaps are up
A
Any time passenger oxygen is deployed
4
Q
When does the NO SMOKING sign automatically illuminate?
On the ground
With the flaps extended
When the pax oxygen system is On
The NO SMOKING signs are permanently illuminated and cannot be controlled by the NO SMOKING selector.
A
The NO SMOKING signs are permanently illuminated and cannot be controlled by the NO SMOKING selector.
5
Q
Can the landing lights be switched on with the landing gear retracted? What is the best answer?
NO
Yes, all landing lights
Yes, but only the lights located in the wing root
Yes, but only the landing lights located in the wing root and only in dim mode
A
Yes, but only the landing lights located in the wing root and only in dim mode
6
Q
What is the status of the nose gear landing lights when the NOSE LANDING light switch is ON but the nose landing gear is not down and locked?
Illuminated
Extinguished
Illuminated if both main landing gear are down and locked
A
Extinguished
7
Q
What happens if you adjust an individual panel brightness or display brightness control when the master brightness system is on?
It has no effect
The master brightness system turns off
The brightness of ALL panel lights and ALL displays change by a small amount
The brightness of the individual panel light or display changes by a small amount
A
The brightness of the individual panel light or display changes by a small amount
8
Q
What position is required for the Master bright system to have full range of control, individual panel light brightness or display brightness?
12 o’clock
6 o’clock
10 o’clock
2 o’clock
A
12 o’clock
9
Q
What position should the UPR DSPL brightness control be selected to for full range control with the Master Bright System?
2 o’clock
6 o’clock
10 o’clock
12 o’clock
A
12 o’clock
10
Q
What powers the emergency lighting system?
The main battery, for at least 15 minutes
The main battery, for at least 25 minutes
Remote batteries, for at least 15 minutes
Remote batteries, for at least 30 minutes
A
Remote batteries, for at least 15 minutes
11
Q
What automatically activates the airplane emergency lighting system?
Selecting the EMERG LIGHTS switch on the overhead panel to OFF
Loss of left and right main DC electrical power
Loss of left and right backup generators
Loss of APU generator
A
Loss of left and right main DC electrical power
12
Q
What Manually activates the airplane EMERGENCY LIGHTING system?
Closing the emergency lights switch guard
Selecting the APU GEN switch to ON position
Turning on the left and right backup generators
Selecting the emergency lights switch on overhead panel to ON position
A
Selecting the emergency lights switch on overhead panel to ON position
13
Q
If all electrical power is available, what causes the EMER LIGHTS EICAS advisory message to be displayed?
The emergency lighting system has failed
The EMER LIGHTS switch on the overhead panel is in the ARMED position
The EMER LIGHTS switch on the overhead panel is in the ARMED position and the emergency lights have been turned on by a Flight Attendant
The APU generator is turned off
A
The EMER LIGHTS switch on the overhead panel is in the ARMED position and the emergency lights have been turned on by a Flight Attendant
14
Q
How many quick donning oxygen masks are installed on the flight deck?
One for each pilot
One for each observer
One for each pilot, one for each observer
One for each pilot, and only one observer mask
A
One for each pilot, one for each observer
15
Q
What does the CREW OXYGEN LOW EICAS message indicate?
Crew oxygen system pressure is low
Crew oxygen system has been turned off
Crew oxygen system has failed
Crew oxygen system quantity is low
A
Crew oxygen system pressure is low
16
Q
What is the status of CREW OXYGEN SYSTEM if status display is blank?
Crew oxygen pressure is within acceptable limits
Crew oxygen system has been turned off
Crew oxygen pressure signal is not present or is invalid
Crew oxygen pressure is low
A
Crew oxygen pressure signal is not present or is invalid
17
Q
What does the EICAS message PAX OXYGEN ON indicate?
Passenger oxygen has been manually or automatically activated
Passenger oxygen has been manually or automatically deactivated
Passenger oxygen has been manually deactivated
Passenger oxygen has been automatically deactivated
A
Passenger oxygen has been manually or automatically activated
18
Q
What precautions must be exercised when using a HALON FIRE EXTINGUISHER?
Always wear protective breathing equipment when using Halon fire extinguisher
Always wear smoke goggles when using Halon fire extinguisher
Always open the flight deck side windows when using Halon fire extinguisher
Always wear fire gloves when using a Halon fire extinguisher
A
Always wear protective breathing equipment when using Halon fire extinguisher
19
Q
What hazards are associated with the use of a portable HALON FIRE EXTINGUISHER in a confined area?
Use of Halon is NOT hazardous
Halon causes skin blistering
Halon is Toxic
Halon depletes oxygen and only be used while wearing protective breathing equipment
A
Halon depletes oxygen and only be used while wearing protective breathing equipment
20
Q
What indicates a properly closed and locked side window?
A WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard in view
A WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard is hidden from view and lock lever in full aft position
A WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard is hidden from view and lock lever in full forward position
A WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard in view and lock lever in full forward position
A
A WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard is hidden from view and lock lever in full forward position
21
Q
What would indicate that a flight deck side window is NOT properly locked?
WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard not in view and the lock lever is fully forward and in the locked position
Audible caution tone is heard
Side window hand crank is not in the locked position
WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard is visible or the lock lever is not fully forward and in the locked position
A
WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard is visible or the lock lever is not fully forward and in the locked position
22
Q
Can the flight deck side windows be operated in flight?
Yes, but only at airspeeds below 200 kts
Yes, but only at airspeeds below Vref + 80 kts
Yes, but only if the airplane is unpressurized and airspeed is below Vref + 80 kts
No, the flight deck side windows can not be operated in flight
A
Yes, but only if the airplane is unpressurized and airspeed is below Vref + 80 kts
23
Q
What does the WINDOWS EICAS advisory message indicate?
The left and right side windows are open or unlocked
The left side window is open or unlocked
The right side window is open or unlocked
Window heat is inoperative
A
The left and right side windows are open or unlocked
24
Q
At what speed does passenger entry DOOR FLIGHT LOCK activate?
Above 65 Kts
Above 80 Kts
Above 100 Kts
Only in flight
A
Above 80 Kts
25
What indication provides positive confirmation that an evacuation SLIDE/RAFT GIRT BAR is engaged with the door sill?
Amber flag showing through the girt bar engaged view window
No flag showing through the Girt bar engaged view window
Door handle in the closed position
Amber flag showing through the girt bar engaged view window
26
What indication provides confirmation that an evacuation SLIDE/RAFT GIRT BAR is disengaged with door sill?
Yellow flag showing through girt bar engaged view window
No flag showing through girt bar engaged view window
Door handle in the closed position
No flag showing through girt bar engaged view window
27
What does EICAS warning CONFIG DOORS indicate in combination with DOOR ENTRY 2L Advisory message?
At least 2 entry door flight locks are not in commanded position and both engines are at takeoff thrust
The mode select levers of all pax entry doors are in Disarm position, and both engines at takeoff thrust
Door 2L is not secure and engines are at takeoff thrust
At least 2 doors are not closed, latches and locked and both engines at takeoff thrust
Door 2L is not secure and engines are at takeoff thrust
28
What does the CONFIG DOORS EICAS message indicate?
At least 2 passenger entry door flight locks are not in the commanded position and both engines are at takeoff thrust
The mode selector handle of all passenger ENTRY doors is in the manual position and both engines are at takeoff thrust
A passenger ENTRY door, FWD CARGO door or AFT CARGO door is not closed, latched and locked, and the engines are at takeoff thrust
At least 2 doors are not closed, latched and locked, and both engines are at takeoff thrust
A passenger ENTRY door, FWD CARGO door or AFT CARGO door is not closed, latched and locked, and the engines are at takeoff thrust
29
What action required for DOOR FWD CARGO caution EICAS in flight?
No action required
No action required if pressurization is normal
Cabin pressure differential must be increased
Cabin pressure differential must be reduced to minimise risk of door separation
Cabin pressure differential must be reduced to minimize risk of door separation
30
What action is required if the DOOR AFT CARGO EICAS message occurs in flight?
Cabin altitude should be increased
The airplane must be depressurized to minimize the risk of door separation
No action is required if pressurization is normal
No action is required
The airplane must be depressurized to minimize the risk of door separation
31
If the entry 1L door indicates white around black on DOORS SYNOPTIC, what is the condition of the door?
Entry door 1L is properly closed, latched and locked
Entry door 1L is open
Entry door 1L flight lock is not in the commanded position
Status signals for passenger Entry 1L are not present or invalid
Status signals for passenger Entry 1L are not present or invalid
32
Which are bleed air sources?
APU and Ground cart
Trim air
Demand pump
Packs
APU and Ground cart
33
What is bleed air used for?
Pressurizing the hydraulic system
Aspirating the TAT probe
None of the above
Both A and B
Both A and B
34
What does the MAN position on the FLT DECK TEMP control do?
It removes power from the trim air system
It causes the packs to provide air at an average mid temperature range
It allows the trim air valve to operate manually
It removes control at the cabin attendant panel
It allows the trim air valve to operate manually
35
What happens if the FLT DECK TEMP control is moved to the 'C position?
The pack temperature decreases
It opens the flight deck trim air valve
It closes the trim air valve and lowers
It cancels input to the flight deck temperature controller
It closes the trim air valve and lowers
36
Why should the CABIN TEMP selector be set to mid position?
It turns on Pack and Air trim system
To allow full temperature range adjustment (18-29) in cabin zones on Cabin Attendant panel
It allows cabin attendant to adjust actual temperatures
If prevents pack overheating
To allow full temperature range adjustment (18-29) in cabin zones on Cabin Attendant panel
37
What do the colors of the two CABIN TEMPERATURES displayed on Air synoptic represent?
White is commanded zone temperature..... Magenta is actual zone temperature
Magenta is commanded zone temperature..... Cyan is actual zone temperature
Magenta is commanded zone temperature..... white is actual zone temperature
Yellow is commanded zone temperature..... Magenta is actual zone temperature
Magenta is commanded zone temperature.....white is actual zone temperature
38
When is the pack OFF light illuminated amber?
During engine start
When there is a pack compressor outlet high temperature condition
When both flow control valves are failed closed
All of the above
All of the above
39
What does the [ ] PACK MODE R EICAS message indicate?
The forward equipment cooling system is in override mode
Only the right pack is operating in standby cooling mode
Both packs are operating in standby cooling mode
The right pack has shut down regardless of airplane altitude
Only the right pack is operating in standby cooling mode
40
Why does the flight deck receive air from the left pack at a higher pressure than the passenger cabin?
The pilots demand it
To prevent smoke from entering the flight deck
To defog the forward windows
To cool the equipment in the aisle stand
To prevent smoke from entering the flight deck
41
How does the trim air system meet zone temperature requirements?
It controls pack air temperature
It heats conditioned air
It cools conditioned air
It heats conditioned air
42
Which system(s) supply trim air to the flight deck?
Right trim air system
Left trim air system
Both right and left trim air systems
Centre trim air systems
Left trim air system
43
What determines the pack outlet temperature?
The average demand of all zones
The master cabin temperature control
The zone requiring the coolest temperature
The zone requiring the warmest temperature
The zone requiring the coolest temperature
44
Where is the target temperature in the zones displayed?
On the lower EICAS display when pressurization is selected to MAN
On the AIR synoptic
On the upper EICAS display when pressurization is selected to MAN
On the HYD synoptic
On the AIR synoptic
45
What temperature does the PACK maintain with loss of both
CABIN TEMPERATURE CONTROLLERS?
42º C
38º C
Between 5º and 43º C
Between 10º and 38º C
Between 5º and 43º C
46
In the STBY COOLING MODE what will the pack automatically do if the airplane is not in an area of sufficient cooling?
Decrease airflow to half rate
Shut of the pack
Fail the pack stby cooling controller
Increase airflow through the pack
Shut of the pack
47
If Air synoptic shows STBY COOLING next to Left Pack, with a green flow bar to L trim air valve only (right pack and trim air normal), what does this indicate?
The STBY COOLING controller has failed
Aircraft is not in an area of favourable atmospheric conditions (pack automatically shuts down in areas of insufficient cooling)
The heat exchangers are inop
Bleed air is too cool for heat exchanger cooling
Aircraft is not in an area of favorable atmospheric conditions (pack automatically shuts down in areas of insufficient cooling)
48
What system provides the heat for the forward cargo compartment?
Aft cargo heat system
Bleed air from the engines
The trim air system
Exhaust from the equipment cooling system
Exhaust from the equipment cooling system
49
When do the engine bleed valves close automatically?
For bleed air overpressure
When an engine fire switch is pulled
For bleed air over temperature
All of the above
All of the above
50
What happens when BULK CARGO TEMPERATURE selector positioned to High?
The compartment temperature is automatically keep between 4° to 10° C at approximately 7° C
The compartment temperature is automatically between 18° to 24° C keep at approximately 21° C
The bulk cargo compartment ventilation fans operates continuously
Both B and C are correct
Both B and C are correct
51
What is the source of supplemental heat for the AFT CARGO compartment?
Forward equipment cooling exhaust air
Left Recirculation Fan
Electric heater
Independent bleed heat system
Independent bleed heat system
52
When does the ground crew call horn sound?
On ground, when the SAARU is on battery
On ground, when both packs are in standby cooling mode
On ground, if the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative
During flight, if the ADIRU is on battery
On ground, if the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative
53
When does the EICAS message EQUIP COOLING display?
When one of the two supply fans is inoperative
In the air when the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative
On the ground when the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative
On the ground when the aft equipment cooling system is inoperative
On the ground when the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative
54
Which statements are correct about the EQUIPMENT COOLING OVERRIDE mode?
Mode is selected automatically
EICAS EQUIP COOLING OVRD displays
There is a Non-Normal procedure (NNC) for this message
All of them
All of them
55
What actions should you take if the EQUIP COOLING OVRD EICAS is displayed during cruise?
Descend to low altitude and continue flight
Increase flight deck temperatures
Turn off FWD and AFT recycling fans
Plan descent for minimum time at low altitudes
Plan descent for minimum time at low altitudes
56
Why minimize the low altitude flying time for EQUIP COOLING OVRD message?
Aft and bulked cargo compartment may overheat
Pack temperature may cause damage
Equipment displays could fail
Recirculation fans may not cool equipment adequately
Equipment displays could fail
57
What is the cabin altitude at maximum certified airplane operating altitude?
9000 feet
10 000 feet
8000 feet
7500 feet
8000 feet
58
If cruise altitude is unavailable from FMC in automatic operation, the cabin altitude controllers assume a cruise altitude of:
41,000 feet
43,100 feet
39,000 feet
8,000 feet
39,000 feet
59
During climb, what parameter(s) schedule cabin altitude?
Airplane flight altitude
A constant pressure differential
Airplane climb rate and FMC flight plan cruise altitude
Takeoff and landing field elevation
Airplane climb rate and FMC flight plan cruise altitude
60
Why does the pressurization system schedule the cabin altitude slightly below airport field elevation for landing?
For structural reasons
So the airplane will land somewhat depressurized
So the airplane will land somewhat pressurized
Both A and C are correct
Both A and C are correct
61
During pre-flight, you notice CABIN ALTITUDE AUTO EICAS and amber M’s next to the FWD and AFT outflow valves on Pressurisation System Indications block. What is the appropriate action?
Select AUTO on both Outflow Valve switches
Close both Outflow Valves
Set landing Altitude selector to Auto (pushed in)
Select AUTO on both Outflow Valve switches
62
When do the engine bleed valves NOT close automatically?
For bleed air overpressure
When an engine fire switch is pulled
If all the air-driven hydraulic demand pumps have failed
When a ground cart is supplying air
If all the air-driven hydraulic demand pumps have failed
63
What best describes the leak detection and isolation operation?
Automatic leak detection, crew action is required
Automatic leak detection and manual isolation, crew action is required
Automatic leak detection and manual bleed air transfer, crew action is required
Automatic leak detection and automatic isolation, crew action is not required
Automatic leak detection and automatic isolation, crew action is not required
64
What action is required during preflight, if the [] LANDING ALTITUDE EICAS message is displayed with the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches in AUTO?
Push the LDG ALT selector IN
Pull the LDG ALT selector OUT
Select the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches to MAN
Both A and C are correct
Push the LDG ALT selector IN
65
During Pre-Flight what position should the APU Bleed Air switch be in?
Off
Auto
On
Out
Auto
66
During Pre-flight what position should the L ENG and R ENG Bleed Air switch be in?
Out
Off
Auto
On
On
67
After engine starting what is the correct position for the L ENG and R ENG Bleed Air switches?
Out
On
Auto
Off
On
68
During normal bleed air operation what position should the L, C, R ISLN Bleed Air switch be in?
L ISLN AUTO; R ISLN AUTO; C ISLN OFF
OFF
AUTO
ON
AUTO
69
With engines supplying BLEED AIR, which valves are open or closed?
Left and right Isolation and engine bleed valves open. Centre isolation and APU bleed valves closed
Left and right Isolation and engine bleed valves closed. Centre isolation and APU bleed valves open
Left , Centre and right Isolation and engine bleed valves open. APU bleed valve closed
Left , Centre and right Isolation and engine bleed valves closed. APU bleed valve open
Left and right Isolation and engine bleed valves open. Centre isolation and APU bleed valves closed
70
What is the normal position of the AFT OUTFLOW VALVE after landing?
Full open
Full closed
In transit
30° open
Full open
71
With the aircraft 240nm from departure (elevation 112ft) and 1211nm from destination (elevation 217 ft), what is the LANDING ALTITUDE displayed in pressurisation System indications?
317
200
212
100
100
(rounded to nearest 100 and uses departure airport until 400nm or halfway point)
72
What is the function of the NEGATIVE PRESSURE RELIEF vents?
They regulate cabin pressure during climb
They minimise cabin overpressure conditions
They improve smoke removal and ventilation
They prevent negative pressure differentials
They prevent negative pressure differentials
73
What does the visible orange lip indicate on a pressure relief valve?
The valve is in it’s normally closed position
The valve is in it’s normally open position
The valve opened during the previous flight, because of cabin over pressure
The status of the valve cannot be determined by visual inspection
The valve opened during the previous flight, because of cabin over pressure
74
What action is required if a visible orange lip on a pressure relief valve is displayed?
Action not required the valve is in it’s normally closed position
Advise maintenance of the open valve
Position the landing altitude switch to AUTO
Set cabin altitude to less than 8000 feet
Advise maintenance of the open valve
75
During pre-flight what position should the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches and LDG ALT selector switches be in?
OUTFLOW VALVE SWITCHES in AUTO and LDG ALT selector pulled OUT
OUTFLOW VALVE SWITCHES in OFF and LDG ALT selector pushed IN
OUTFLOW VALVE SWITCHES in AUTO and LDG ALT selector pushed IN
OUTFLOW VALVE SWITCHES in MAN and LDG ALT selector pushed IN
OUTFLOW VALVE SWITCHES in AUTO and LDG ALT selector pushed IN
76
Why are the WIPERS OFF during preflight?
To avoid wiper operation on dry windshields
To avoid damage to the wiper blades
To allow hydrophobic coating to warm up
To avoid possible injury to maintenance personnel
To avoid wiper operation on dry windshields
77
. Why are the wipers never operated on a dry windshield?
The wiper blades will be ruined
The wiper motor can be burned out
The hydrophobic coating may be scratched
The bugs will be smeared all over the window
The hydrophobic coating may be scratched
78
What does the [] WINDOW HEAT R FWD EICAS message indicate?
The WINDOW HEAT R FWD switch is off
The window is still in the warm up cycle
An overheat or fault has occurred
Either A or C is correct
Either A or C is correct
79
What does the WINDOW HEAT EICAS message mean?
The backup window heat system is inoperative
The windows are using backup heat
Two or more window heat faults have occurred
A single overheat or fault has occurred
Two or more window heat faults have occurred
80
Which WINDOWS are heated for both anti-ice and anti-fog protection?
Both pilots forward windows
Left pilots forward window and right pilots side window
All windows
Left pilots forward and side window and right pilots forward and side windows
Both pilots forward windows
81
Which windows are provided with backup anti-fog?
All windows
Both pilot’s forward windows
Left pilot’s forward window and right pilot’s side window
Left pilot’s forward and side window and right pilot’s forward and side window
Both pilot’s forward windows
82
What is the position of an engine anti-ice valve when the ENGINE ANTI-ICE selector is in AUTO and EAI is displayed?
Open
Closed
Inoperative
Cannot be determined
Open
83
When can engine anti-ice be operated manually?
Only on the ground
Only in the air
On the ground or in the air
Only when TAT is above 10 degrees C
On the ground or in the air
84
Both ENGINE ANTI-ICE selectors ON, with EICAS ANTI-ICE ON displayed, how would you remove this message?
Both off
Leave On- Use EICAS cancel
Both AUTO
Left engine Anti-ice off, right EAI on
Both AUTO
(ANTI-ICE ON appears when TAT >10, ANTI-ICE selector ON and NO ice detected)
85
When will WING ANTI-ICE operate Automatically?
Only on the ground
Only in flight
On the ground or in flight
Only when TAT above 10 deg. c
Only in flight
86
When can wing anti-ice be operated manually?
Only on the ground
On the ground or in the air
Only in flight
Only when TAT is above 10 degree C
Only in flight
87
What action should you take if the [ ] ICE DETECTORS EICAS message displays?
Turn all ANTI-ICE selectors to ON then back to AUTO to reset the system
Turn all ANTI-ICE selectors OFF for remainder of flight and avoid icing
Turn all ANTI-ICE selectors ON when icing conditions are encountered
Turn all ANTI-ICE selectors ON for the remainder of the flight
Turn all ANTI-ICE selectors ON when icing conditions are encountered
88
What do the EAI symbols on EICAS indicate?
Engine anti-ice is armed
Engine anti-ice is operating
Engine anti-ice has failed
Engine anti-ice should be turned off
Engine anti-ice is operating
89
What position of the ANTI ICE selectors will remove the ANTI ICE ON EICAS message?
AUTO
ON
OFF
Both A and C are correct
Both A and C are correct
90
What position should the ENGINE ANTI-ICE selectors be in for taxing in icing conditions?
AUTO
ON
OFF
Both A and C are correct
ON
91
When will the ANTI-ICE ON EICAS message be displayed?
TAT above 10°C, all ANTI ICE selectors OFF and NO ice is detected
TAT below 10°C, all ANTI ICE selectors ON and ice is detected
TAT above 10°C, all ANTI ICE selectors ON and NO ice is detected
TAT below 10°C, all ANTI ICE selectors OFF and NO ice is detected
TAT above 10°C, all ANTI ICE selectors ON and NO ice is detected
92
What position should the WING ANTI ICE selectors be in for taxing in icing conditions?
AUTO
ON
OFF
Both A and C are correct
AUTO
93
What occurs when engine anti-ice is operating?
Probe heat switches from reduced to full power
Approach idle is selected
The ENGINE ANTI-ICE ON memo message appears
The backup window heat system operates
Approach idle is selected
94
What is the sequence of steps to use FLCH to climb to FL 250 at
280 kts?
Set 280 kts in the IAS/MACH window, push FLCH switch, then set FL250 in the altitude window
Set FL280 in the ALTITUDE window, push FLCH switch, then set 250 kts in the IAS/MACH window
Push FLCH switch, set FL250 in the ALTITUDE window, then set 280 kts in the IAS/MACH window
Set FL250 in the ALTITUDE window, push FLCH switch, then set 280 kts in the IAS/MACH window
Set FL250 in the ALTITUDE window, push FLCH switch, then set 280 kts in the IAS/MACH window
95
What is the sequence of steps to use FLCH to descend to 5000 feet at 240 kts?
Set 240 kts in the IAS/MACH window, push FLCH selector, then set 5000 feet in the altitude window
Set FL 280 in the altitude window, push FLCH selector, set 500 kts in the IAS/MACH window
Push FLCH selector, set 5000 feet in the altitude window, then set 240 kts in the IAS/MACH window
Set 5000 feet in the altitude window, push FLCH selector, then set 240 kts in the IAS/MACH window
Set 5000 feet in the altitude window, push FLCH selector, then set 240 kts in the IAS/MACH window
96
What is the sequence of steps to change airspeed with VNAV engaged, using speed intervention?
Change the IAS/MACH window to the new airspeed, then push the IAS/MACH selector
Push the IAS/MACH selector, then change the IAS/MACH window to the new airspeed
Change the IAS/MACH window to the new airspeed, then push FLCH
Push the FLCH, change the IAS/MACH window to new airspeed
Push the IAS/MACH selector, then change the IAS/MACH window to the new airspeed
97
What is the sequence of steps to reduce airspeed with VNAV engaged, using speed intervention?
Change the IAS/MACH window to the lower airspeed, then push the IAS/MACH selector
Change the IAS/MACH window to the lower airspeed, then push FLCH
Push the IAS/MACH selector, then change the IAS/MACH window to the lower airspeed
Push the FLCH, change the IAS/MACH window to lower airspeed
Push the IAS/MACH selector, then change the IAS/MACH window to the lower airspeed
98
With TRK SEL engaged, what is the CORRECT sequence of steps to turn right to heading 150° using HDG SEL mode?
Push the HDG/TRK reference switch, verify HDG SEL on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK reference switch to the right to set 150° in the HDG/TRK window
Push the IAS/MACH selector, verify HDG SEL on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK reference switch to the right to set 150°in the HDG/TRK window
Push the IAS/MACH selector, verify TRK SEL on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK reference switch to the left to set 150°in the HDG/TRK window
Push the LNAV reference switch, verify LNAV on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK reference switch to the right to set 150° in the HDG/TRK window
Push the HDG/TRK reference switch, verify HDG SEL on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK reference switch to the right to set 150° in the HDG/TRK window
99
With HDG SEL engaged, what is the CORRECT sequence of steps to turn right to track 150° using TRK SEL mode?
Push the HDG/TRK reference switch, verify TRK SEL on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK reference switch to the right to set 150° in the HDG/TRK window
Push the IAS/MACH selector, verify TRK SEL on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK reference switch to the right to set 150°in the HDG/TRK window
Push the IAS/MACH selector, verify HDG SEL on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK reference switch to the left to set 150°in the HDG/TRK window
Push the LNAV reference switch, verify LNAV on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK reference switch to the right to set 150° in the HDG/TRK window
Push the HDG/TRK reference switch, verify TRK SEL on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK reference switch to the right to set 150° in the HDG/TRK window
100
In the VS mode, what are the correct steps to make a 2.6° FPA descend?
Push VS/FPA reference switch, set new altitude, push VS/FPA switch, set 2.6° flight path angle
Push VS/FPA reference switch, set 2.6° flight path angle, set new altitude
Set new altitude, push VS/FPA reference switch, set 2.6° flight path angle
Push VS/FPA switch only
Set new altitude, push VS/FPA reference switch, set 2.6° flight path angle Push VS/FPA switch only
Push VS/FPA reference switch, set new altitude, push VS/FPA switch, set 2.6° flight path angle
101
With the autopilot and LNAV engaged, what will happen if the last active route waypoint is passed?
LNAV will disengage
The autopilot will turn the airplane towards the destination
LNAV maintains current heading
HDG HOLD will engage
LNAV maintains current heading
102
Is your bank angle limited to 20 degrees when LNAV is engaged and the BANK LIMIT selector is set to the 20 degree position?
Yes
No
No
103
Is your bank angle limited to 15° when TRK SEL is engaged and the BANK LIMIT selector is set to the 15° position?
Yes
No
Yes
104
What happens to the Bank Angle Protection if the Autopilot Disengage Bar is selected down?
Bank Angle Protection is disengaged
Bank Angle Protection remains engaged
Bank Angle Protection is reduced by half
Bank Angle Protection becomes proportional to the rate of turn
Bank Angle Protection is disengaged
105
If you are in SPD / TRK SEL / VNAV PTH and MCP bank selector is set to 15, is your maximum BANK ANGLE limited to 15?
Yes
No
Yes
106
How is a degradation of a specific autopilot mode detected?
By an amber line drawn through the affected flight mode annunciation
By an amber box drawn around the affected flight mode annunciation
By a red, flashing A/P FMA
A and C of the above
By an amber line drawn through the affected flight mode annunciation
107
What switch resets the autothrottle system and cancels the EICAS
AUTOTHROTTLE DISC message?
Autopilot disconnect switch
Autothrottle disconnect switch
Master Caution switch
All of the above
Autothrottle disconnect switch
108
Which switch engages the autothrottle with the A/T switches in ARM?
CLB CON switch
A/T switch
LNAV switch
APP switch
A/T switch
109
Which A/T ARM switch configuration causes the AUTOTHROTTLE R message to display?
Left switch OFF right switch ON
Left switch ON right switch OFF
Left switch ON right switch ON
Left switch OFF right switch OFF
Left switch ON right switch OFF
110
Above what altitude can you disengage the approach mode by pushing the APP switch a second time?
500 feet RA
1,000 feet RA
1,500 feet RA
2,500 feet RA
1,500 feet RA
111
How do you disengage APPROACH MODE below 1,500ft?
Engage V/S or FLCH
Push APP switch
Disengage A/P AND turn off both flight directors
Disconnect autothrottles
Disengage A/P AND turn off both flight directors
112
With LOC and G/S ARMED, which is true in order to capture Localiser?
ILS frequency must be manually set
Front course must be manually set
Airplane must be below 1,500ft RA
Airplane must be within 120 degrees of localiser course
Airplane must be within 120 degrees of localiser course
113
What will the autopilot do if you override the control column?
Engage in HDG HOLD and V/S
Engage in TRK HOLD and FPA
Disengage
Cause both roll and pitch modes to fail
Disengage
114
What actions reset the autopilot system, warning system and cancels the AUTOPILOT DISC message?
Pushing the Autopilot Disconnect switch a second time
Pushing the Cancel/Recall switch a second time
Pushing the Master Warning when the light is illuminated
Pushing the Cancel switch below Master Warning switch
Pushing the Autopilot Disconnect switch a second time
115
What does the AUTOPILOT EICAS message indicate when an amber line is drawn through the pitch mode on the FMA?
The engaged autopilot has failed
The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is continuing to operate
The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is disconnected
The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is continuing to operate
116
With aircraft in LNAV/VNAV, thrust area on PFD blank, how would you engage AUTOTHROTTLE and remain in VNAV (same to remain in FLCH)?
Open speed window - thrust will engage if you increase speed
Select FLCH then re-select VNAV
Press A/T engage switch on MCP
Press the TOGA switches (will go out of VNAV)
Press A/T engage switch on MCP
117
What do the A/T ARM switches on the MCP do?
Arm auto thrust reduction
Arm auto takeoff
Arm autothrottle
Engage auto throttle
Arm autothrottle
118
What does TOGA TOGA mean on PFD?
There is a wild party in the cabin
Takeoff/Go-around is armed for roll and pitch
Takeoff/Go-around is armed for autothrottle and pitch
Takeoff/Go-around is engaged for roll and pitch
Takeoff/Go-around is engaged for roll and pitch
119
If FDs are OFF for takeoff, what happens when TOGA switches pressed after 80 kts?
Thrust derate is removed
The Flight Directors appear
The thrust derate is removed and FDs appear
Nothing
The Flight Directors appear
(if LNAV and VNAV armed, pushing TOGA > 80kts disarms LNAV and VNAV)
120
What happens when TOGA switch is pushed shortly after lift-off (FDs are OFF)?
The thrust derate is removed
The FDs appear
The thrust derate is removed and FDs display
Nothing
The thrust derate is removed and FDs display
121
What will a second push of the TO/GA switch do during takeoff above 80 knots, with LNAV and VNAV armed?
Engages LNAV and VNAV
Disarms LNAV and engages VNAV
Engages LNAV and disarms VNAV
Disarms LNAV and VNAV
Disarms LNAV and VNAV
122
When is TO/GA armed?
When flaps are not up
When the landing gear is down
When below 1,500 feet RA
When G/S is armed
When flaps are not up
123
When is GO-AROUND armed?
After LAND 3 annunciates
When LOC and G/S are armed
When G/S is engaged / captured
When LOC is engaged
When G/S is engaged / captured
124
If you are climbing though 1000 ft amsl after takeoff, PFD modes are HOLD TOGA TOGA, how do you set CLB thrust?
Engage FLCH or V/S
Engaging V/S or pushing CLB CON switch
Engaging V/S or ALT
Engaging FLCH or pushing the CLB CON switch
Engaging FLCH or pushing the CLB CON switch
125
When can VNAV be engaged?
During preflight
During liftoff
Above 400ft
When autopilot is engaged and LNAV has been captured
Above 400ft
126
With THR REF / LNAV / VNAV SPD on FMA, which of the following are true?
Pitch is controlling vertical speed
Pitch is controlling FMC selected airspeed
Thrust is set to maximum reference limit (on EICAS)
VNAV SPD is a climb mode only
Pitch is controlling FMC selected airspeed
Thrust is set to maximum reference limit (on EICAS)
127
What does the NO LAND 3 EICAS message indicate when FLARE and ROLLOUT armed are displayed on the FMA?
The autopilot disconnect switch has been pushed
The autopilot is inoperative
The autoland system does not have redundancy for triple channel autoland
NO LAND 3 means you are more than 3 miles from land
The autoland system does not have redundancy for triple channel autoland
128
Which MCP actions are accomplished during pre-flight?
Turn off L and R flight directors. Set initial heading
Arm L and R auto throttle. Set initial heading. Set initial altitude
Disarm R auto throttle. Set initial heading. Set initial altitude
Engage autopilot, arm LOC, APP. Set initial altitude
Arm L and R auto throttle. Set initial heading. Set initial altitude
129
What position should the autopilot DISENGAGE Bar be in during the MCP pre-flight?
UP to the engaged position
DOWN to the disengaged position
Down to the engaged position
None of the above
UP to the engaged position
130
What EICAS message would you expect to display if A/T ARM L switch on MCP selected OFF?
AUTOTHROTTLE
AUTOTHROTTLE L
AUTOTHRUST R
AUTOPILOT DISC
AUTOTHROTTLE L
131
Which of these statements may be true if the offside tuning light is illuminated on the left radio tuning panel?
The left radio tuning panel is inoperative
The selected frequency is not in the normal frequency range
The left radio tuning panel is tuning a radio normally tuned by one of the other tuning panels
The frequency is being transferred from the STANDBY to the ACTIVE window
The left radio tuning panel is tuning a radio normally tuned by one of the other tuning panels
132
Which of the following can be done using the CDU cabin interphone page?
Call any cabin handset
Alert the ground crew that you want to speak to them
Make a PA announcement to specific cabin area
All of the above
All of the above
133
What does the illumination of the Offside Tuning light mean?
The selected VHF radio is inoperative
You have a call from the company
One of the other radio tuning panel is tuning a radio normally tuned by this panel
The microphone is keyed and transmitting on the selected frequency
One of the other radio tuning panel is tuning a radio normally tuned by this panel
134
What can the First Officer do, to regain audio control, if his audio control panel fails?
Position the OBS AUDIO selector to CAPT then use the Captain's audio control panel
Position the OBS AUDIO selector to F/O for at least one second, then back to NORM and use the First Officer's audio control panel
Position the OBS AUDIO selector to F/O then use the Observer's audio control panel
Position the OBS AUDIO selector to F/O then use the First Officer's audio control panel
Position the OBS AUDIO selector to F/O then use the Observer's audio control panel
135
Which statement about the VHF radios is true?
Only VHF C can be configured for data communication
VHF C and VHF R can operate in the DATA mode at the same time
VHF L is configured for voice communication only
The DATA mode can only be selected or deselected on the MFD COMM display
VHF L is configured for voice communication only
136
Which statement about radio tuning is correct?
Any VHF radio can be controlled by any radio tuning panel
HF L can only be tuned by the left radio tuning panel
The offside tuning light will only appear on the active radio tuning panel
The center radio tuning panel can only be used to tune an HF radio if either the left or right panel fails
Any VHF radio can be controlled by any radio tuning panel
137
What happens if you push the CAB transmitter select switch twice within one second?
Nothing. The second push cancels the selection
A priority call is placed to a pre-selected cabin station
A conference call is initiated with all cabin stations
A pre-recorded message is sent to a pre-selected cabin station
A priority call is placed to a pre-selected cabin station
138
How can the flight crew make a PA announcement to all areas of the cabin?
Push the PA transmitter select switch on the audio control panel and key any mic switch
Using the flight deck handset, enter the appropriate dial code from the handset directory, then push the handset PA push to talk
Push the CAB transmitter select switch on the audio control panel, then enter the appropriate code using the CDU keypad, then key any mic switch
All of the above
All of the above
139
What is true ATC data link operation?
Logon occurs automatically with FMC CDU route activation
The crew must manually log on to participating ATC facility
An ATC facility must initiate the log on
Logon occurs automatically any time AC power is established on the airplane
The crew must manually log on to participating ATC facility
140
Which of the following is NOT an example of an ATC REQUESTED REPORT that can be armed for automatic downlink to ATC?
LEVEL FL330
LEAVING FL330
MAINTAINING FL330
PASSING SEA
MAINTAINING FL330
141
Which of the following data values does NOT provide crew feedback, by turning green, when you comply with ATC uplink message?
MCP HEADING
VOR frequency
VHF frequency
Barometer setting
VOR frequency
142
How can the crew cancel a displayed company or ATC uplink message?
Push the CANC switch at the glareshield
Select the cancel command key on the MFD COMM page
Push the CANC/RCL switch on the display select panel
Either A or B
Either A or B
143
What is necessary to talk to MECHANIC at APU service area?
You can only speak with ground crew at nose landing gear wheel well
Position the service interphone SERV INTPH switch to ON position
Use CDU to line select service interphone
Position the service interphone SERV INTPH switch to ON position
144
What does the illuminated FLT Interphone CALL light on the audio control panel indicate?
Another airplane is calling
A ground crew technician is calling the flight deck
Someone is calling the flight deck on VHF radio
The FLT transmit switch is stuck in the ON position
A ground crew technician is calling the flight deck
145
What does EICAS SATCOM indicate?
The SATCOM system has failed
A SATCOM voice call has been received and is waiting to be answered
SATCOM voice capability is temporarily lost
A SATCOM uplink has been received and may be reviewed on the comms display
The SATCOM system has
146
What does amber SATCOM VOICE EICAS indicate?
A SATCOM voice call has been received and waiting to be answered
The SATCOM system has failed
The SATCOM voice communications system is inoperative
SATCOM voice capability is temporarily lost
The SATCOM voice communications system is inoperative
147
What does EICAS *COMM message mean when accompanied by a high-low chime?
VHF or HF selective call received or SATCOM call received waiting to be answered
ACARS has failed
A MEDIUM priority uplink has been received and may be reviewed on COMM display
A LOW priority downlink message has been sent
A MEDIUM priority uplink has been received and may be reviewed on COMM display
148
A high-low chime sounds and a *COMM communication alert message appears on EICAS. What action should you take?
Push the COMM switch on the display select panel and view the uplinked message
Push the COMM function key an the CDU and view the uplinked message
Push the COMM switch on the display select panel and view the uplinked message on the MFD
Push the TRANSMITTER select switch with the illuminated CALL light and respond the call
Push the COMM switch on the display select panel and view the uplinked message on the MFD
149
What does the *SELCAL communication EICAS alert message indicate?
The selective calling system has failed
A VHF or HF call has been received and is waiting to be answered
A cabin attendant is calling the flight deck
An uplink has been received
A VHF or HF call has been received and is waiting to be answered
150
What does amber PAPER light on PRINTER indicate?
The telephone handset has failed
The flight deck printer is out of paper OR the paper is jammed
The flight deck printer is turned off
The main cabin printer is out of paper
The flight deck printer is out of paper OR the paper is jammed
151
What does amber DATALINK SYS EICAS message indicate?
A data link system is temporarily lost
All data link systems are inoperative
A lost data link connection has been received
An uplink message has been received
All data link systems are inoperative
152
You have a cold airplane (no power connected). Which items will be powered if you push the BATTERY switch ON?
The APU controller and the DC fuel pump will be powered
Only the main battery bus will be powered
The hot battery bus will be powered
The APU controller and the DC fuel pump will be powered
153
Which items are unpowered following BATTERY OFF during power down?
Fire extinguisher bottles
Standby Bus, Captains flight instruments and left AIMS
APU battery and hot battery bus
Clocks
Standby Bus, Captains flight instruments and left AIMS
154
What does the green EXT PWR AVAIL light indicate?
External power is disconnected from the airplane
External power is connected to all the airplane's electrical busses
Electrical power is available to the electrical busses but may not be correct
External power is connected to the airplane, correct and ready to power the electrical busses
External power is connected to the airplane, correct and ready to power the electrical busses
155
What occurs, if you start the APU while primary and secondary external power are connected (engines not running)?
Nothing, the APU has to be connected manually to the electrical system
The APU connects to the left main bus
The APU connects to the right main bus
The APU connects to both main busses
The APU connects to the left main bus
156
What automatic switching will occur if you start the APU with the External Power on the Tie Bus System?
The APU connects to the Bus Tie switches but does not power either Main Bus
The APU connects to the Bus Tie and replaces Secondary External Power on the Left Main Bus
The APU connects to the Bus Tie and replaces Primary External Power
The APU connects to the Bus Tie and replaces Secondary External Power on the Left Main Bus
157
With APU and both engines running with no external power, what powers RIGHT MAIN BUS after right engine shutdown?
Opposite engine generator
The APU generator
Primary external power
The APU generator
158
How are the busses powered if the right engine is started with APU powering the Left bus system and External Power powering the Right bus system?
External power continues to supply the right main bus
The right engine generator automatically powers the right main bus
The right engine generator automatically powers both main busses
The right engine generator automatically powers the right main bus
159
What powers the left main bus if the left engine is shut down, the right generator is running, the APU generator is not running?
Secondary external power supplies the left main bus
The APU generator powers the left main bus
The right engine generator powers the left main bus
The right engine generator powers the left main bus
160
Which EICAS display is the result of manually disconnecting the left generator drive?
[] ELEC DRIVE L
[] ELEC GEN DRIVE L and ELEC GEN OFF L
[] ELEC DRIVE L and ELEC BUS ISLN L
[] ELEC BACKUP GEN
[] ELEC GEN DRIVE L and ELEC GEN OFF L
161
What does the EICAS advisory message [] ELEC GEN DRIVE R indicate?
The drive has disconnected automatically because of eng failure
The drive has disconnected automatically because of low oil pressure
There is low oil pressure in the drive. Disconnect the drive manually
The right main generator and right back up generator have failed
There is low oil pressure in the drive. Disconnect the drive manually
162
What condition causes the ELEC GEN DRIVE EICAS message to display?
Generator drive oil temperature is high
Generator drive oil pressure is low
GENERATOR CONTROL switch is selected OFF
Either A or B
Generator drive oil pressure is low
163
Under what conditions does an automatic APU start occur?
In flight, if both AC transfer busses lose power
In flight, if both AC main busses lose power
In flight, if on both IDGs low oil pressure is sensed
In flight, if there has an engine failure occurred
In flight, if both AC transfer busses lose power
164
Which bus operates only on the ground?
The ground service bus
The ground handling bus
The left main AC bus
The right transfer bus
The ground handling bus
165
With no external power, how can you power the GROUND HANDLING BUS before/after engine shutdown?
Select ground handling bus on
Bus is powered as long as the right main bus is powered
Start the APU
Start the APU
166
What is the correct Electrical Panel configuration for normal flight?
Bus Tie Switch in ISLN, Battery switch ON, Generator Control Switch ON
Bus Tie Switch in AUTO, Battery switch OFF, Generator Control Switch ON
Bus Tie Switch in AUTO, Battery switch ON, Generator Control Switch ON
Bus Tie Switch ISLN, Battery switch ON, Generator Control Switch OFF
Bus Tie Switch in AUTO, Battery switch ON, Generator Control Switch ON
167
What is the electrical configuration during autoland?
There is no change from normal
The left transfer bus isolates from the right main bus
The right transfer bus isolates from the right main AC bus
The left transfer bus isolates from the right transfer bus
The right transfer bus isolates from the right main AC bus
(left Gen to Left Main to Left XFR....Backup Generators to right XFR and right Gen to Right main bus)
168
When does the right transfer bus isolate from the right main bus?
Never
During descent
When the system configures for autoland
When main AC busses are powered
When the system configures for autoland
169
What is the primary source of power for the XFR BUSSES?
Ram Air Turbine
Backup generators
Engine generators
Main AC busses
Main AC busses
170
What is the primary source of DC power during normal flight?
APU battery
Main battery
Transformer Rectifier Units (TRUs)
DC generators
Transformer Rectifier Units (TRUs)
171
What provides DC power on this airplane?
DC generators
Standby inverters
Transfer busses
Transformer rectifier units
Transformer rectifier units
172
If all main AC and backup generators fail, what becomes the primary source of power for the standby electrical system?
Main battery
APU
PMGs
RAT
RAT
173
What is the main power source for the power supply assemblies (PSAs) within the flight control DC electrical system?
PMGs
Respective main DC busses
Respective AC transfer busses
Hot battery bus and back up generators
PMGs
174
What is the EICAS message resulting from manually disconnecting the LEFT IDG?
ELEC GEN OFF L, ELEC BACKUP GEN L and ELEC DRIVE DISC L
ELEC GEN OFF L and ELEC DRIVE DISC L
ELEC BACKUP GEN L and ELEC DRIVE DISC L
ELEC GEN OFF L and ELEC BACKUP GEN L
ELEC GEN OFF L and ELEC DRIVE DISC L
175
What is the primary power source for 'fly-by-wire'?
Battery
Main AC buses
Permanent Magnet Generators
APU
Permanent Magnet Generators
176
What is SECONDARY power source for FLY-BY-WIRE of 1 or more PMGs unpowered?
Hot Battery Bus
Left XFR Bus
Main DC Busses
Main AC Busses
Main DC Busses
177
Which of the following causes the RAT to deploy automatically in flight?
Centre and right hydraulic system pressures are low
Left engine is failed and centre hydraulic system pressure is low
Left AC transfer bus and right main AC bus are unpowered
Both AC transfer busses are unpowered
Both AC transfer busses are unpowered
178
What is the source of standby electrical power if the RAT sheds electrical power because of low hydraulic pressure?
APU
Backup generators
Main battery
DC busses
Main battery
179
Prior to engine start, with NO APU, PRIMARY and SECONDARY External power ON, How are the busses powered if the right engine is started?
Right engine generator automatically powers right main bus only
External power continues to supply right main bus until selected off
Right engine generator automatically powers LEFT and RIGHT main busses
Right engine generator automatically powers right main bus only
180
Where is the engine oil quantity displayed?
Secondary engine indications
Status display
Primary engine indications
Both A and B are correct
Secondary engine indications
181
During CLIMB with normal engine EEC modes configured, you manually position the thrust levers to the full forward position. What will happen?
The engines will exceed the maximum thrust limit
The engines will produce maximum climb thrust
The EEC alternate mode will automatically engage
The engines will produce maximum rated thrust
The engines will produce maximum rated thrust
182
During CRUISE with normal engine EEC modes configured, you manually position the thrust levers to the full forward position. What will happen?
The engines will exceed the maximum thrust limit
The engines will produce maximum cruise thrust
The EEC alternate mode will automatically engage
The engines will produce maximum rated thrust
The engines will produce maximum rated thrust
183
With the engine EECs manually selected to the alternate mode, which statement is true?
The autothrottle automatically disengages
Positioning of the thrust levers to the full forward position will cause an engine limit to be exceeded
Both engine EECs are now in the soft alternate mode
The EEC schedules N2 as a function of thrust lever position
Positioning of the thrust levers to the full forward position will cause an engine limit to be exceeded
184
What is proper response for ENG EEC MODE L EICAS, with blanked L EPR and ALTN in the L ENGINE EEC MODE switch in flight?
Select hard mode on both EEC mode switches
Disconnect the autothrottle
Retard thrust in preparation for hard mode
Cancel EICAS message
Retard thrust in preparation for hard mode
185
If both NORM and ALTN annunciators lit on L ENGINE EEC MODE switch (NORM only on the R ENGINE EEC MODE switch), which statement is true?
The autothrottles have automatically disengaged
Positioning the thrust levers to full forward causes an engine limit to be exceeded
Right engine EEC is now in soft alternate mode
The N1 readout, pointer and fill pattern are not displayed on EICAS
Positioning the thrust levers to full forward causes an engine limit to be exceeded
186
Which statement is true concerning the alternate EEC mode?
If a fault occurs in normal mode, EEC automatically switches to soft alternate mode
In the hard alternate mode, EEC uses EPR as controlling parameter
Engine thrust limit protection is provided in both normal and hard alternate modes
Overspeed protection is NOT available in the hard alternate mode (ENG RPM LIMITED L/R EICAS and EEC reduces Fuel flow when approaching an overspeed)
If a fault occurs in normal mode, EEC automatically switches to soft alternate mode
(Soft is automatic with NORM and ALTN light in the switch, Hard is Manual with only ALTN light in switch. Both display ENG EEC MODE L/R EICAS. Autothrottles remain
engaged in both modes)
187
With EECs in hard alternate mode, what is your action for ENG LIMT PROT L and ENG LIMT PROT R EICAS?
Cancel EICAS warning
De-select the Alternate mode
Reduce thrust
Select CLB CON
Reduce thrust
188
Which statement(s) are true concerning alternate EEC mode?
In hard alternate mode, EEC uses N1 as controlling parameter
Engine thrust limit protection is provided in both normal and hard alternate modes (Only overspeed protection)
EEC automatically switches to soft alternate mode if a fault occurs in the normal mode
Overspeed protection is NOT available in hard alternate mode
In hard alternate mode, EEC uses N1 as controlling parameter
EEC automatically switches to soft alternate mode if a fault occurs in the normal
189
What occurs when engine anti-ice is operated?
Probe heat switches from reduced to full power
Approach idle is selected
The ENGINE ANTI-ICE ON memo message displays
The backup window heat system operates
Approach idle is selected
190
When does the EEC select approach idle?
When the flaps are out of the UP position
When the flaps are commanded to 25 or greater
When the engine bleed air valve is open
When wing anti-ice is ON
When the flaps are commanded to 25 or greater
191
What does a red box around the digital N1 INDICATION ONLY mean?
Normal - indicator is operating in normal range
Caution - Indicator is operating in caution range
Exceeding - Indicator is operating at or beyond its' maximum limit
Normal - indicator is operating in normal range
(red readout, box AND pointer means a limit has been reached, white is normal range)
192
What do AMBER EGT BOX, Digital, Pointer and Scale mean?
Normal range
Caution range
Exceeding maximum limit
Exceeding maximum limit
On the FCOM only talks of Caution Range for Eng Oil Temp & Press and Vib
(All 4 red indicate operation At or Above maximum limit, Same for N1 and N3
193
N1 RPM has returned to normal range after an EXCEEDENCE. How do you clear the indication from EICAS?
Bring u p Status page
Bring up appropriate exceedence checklist
Select the secondary engine indications
Use Cancel/Recall switch
Use Cancel/Recall switch
194
When do SECONDARY ENGINE INDICATIONS display automatically?
the displays initially receive electrical power
a FUEL CONTROL switch is moved to CUTOFF in flight an engine fire switch is pulled in flight
a secondary engine parameter is exceeded, or
engine N2 RPM is below idle in flight.
All of them
All of them
195
If left engine VIB displays 2.5 N2 and the right 1.8 BB, which of the following is true?
Right engine vibrations are higher than the left
The N2 rotor is the source of highest vibrations on right engine
Broadband vibrations are indicated on the left engine
The N2 rotor is the source of highest vibration on left engine
The N2 rotor is the source of highest vibration on left engine
196
What does the ENG OIL PRESS R EICAS message mean?
Engine oil pressure is low
Engine oil pressure is high
Engine oil temperature is low
Engine oil temperature is high
Engine oil pressure is low
197
What does the ENG OIL TEMP L EICAS message mean?
Engine oil pressure is low
Engine oil pressure is high
Engine oil temperature is low
Engine oil temperature is high
Engine oil temperature is high
198
With ENG OIL TEMP L EICAS, and secondary engine display shows RED, with left Oil Qty and Right engine VIB displaying black on white, which of the following are true?
Left engine oil temperature is low
Left engine oil temperature is high
Left engine oil quantity is low
Left engine vibrations are high
Right engine vibrations are high
Left engine oil temperature is high
Left engine oil quantity is low
Right engine vibrations are high
199
What does ENG FUEL VALVE R EICAS mean?
Engine fuel valve on right engine is open
Both spar and engine valves on right engine are commanded to same position
The spar or engine fuel valve on right engine has NOT reached its' commanded position
The fuel filter bypass valve is not functioning
The spar or engine fuel valve on right engine has NOT reached its' commanded position
200
If LEFT FUEL CTRL SWITCH is CUTOFF, and RIGHT FUEL CTRL SWITCH is in RUN, identify the correct statements below?
Left spar valve is closed
Left engine fuel valve is closed
Right spar valve is closed
Right engine fuel valve is closed
left spar valve is open or armed
Left engine fuel valve is open or armed
Right spar valve is open or armed
Right engine fuel valve is open or armed
Left spar valve is closed
Left engine fuel valve is closed
Right spar valve is open or armed
Right engine fuel valve is open or armed
201
Under normal conditions, what is the source of bleed air to start the second engine?
Ground pneumatic chart
The engine already running
APU
Main battery
APU
202
With the AutoStart ON, when do you move the FUEL CONTROL switches to RUN?
After START has been selected on the START/ IGNITION selector
After reaching maximum motoring speed
After engine stabilized at idle
After 18% N2 has been reached
After START has been selected on the START/ IGNITION selector
203
What malfunction, during ground start, will cause the AutoStart system to abort the start?
Low oil pressure
High oil temperature
A broken fan blade
A hot start
A hot start
204
In flight with ENG SHUTDOWN R EICAS displayed and X-BLD above right N3 indication with AutoStart ON, How do you restart the engine?
Select START on R START/IGNITION selector only
Select RUN on R FUEL CONTROL switch only
First select START on R START/IGNITION selector, THEN select RUN on R FUEL CONTROL switch
First select START on R START/IGNITION selector, THEN select RUN on R FUEL CONTROL switch
205
What is AUTO-RELIGHT?
Auto-relight provides flameout protection by activating the AutoStart system
Auto-relight provides flameout protection by activating the respective engine ignitors
Auto-relight opens the start valve automatically if the engine fails to start
Auto-relight provides hung start protection by deactivating the ignitor
Auto-relight provides flameout protection by activating the respective engine ignitors
206
When is AUTO-RELIGHT activated?
Whenever landing flaps are set and engine anti-ice is off
Whenever engine is at or below idle with FUEL CONTROL switch in RUN
Only when START/IGNITION selector is set to START position
Only when landing flaps are set
Whenever engine is at or below idle with FUEL CONTROL switch in RUN
For GE Engines is different
207
When is continuous ignition automatically provided (B777-300ER)?
When the flap lever is out of the UP position or engine anti-ice is on
When the landing gear is down
When thunderstorms are detected on the weather radar
When the thrust levers reach idle or the landing gear is down
When the flap lever is out of the UP position or engine anti-ice is on
208
Which of these AUTOSTART statements are correct?
AutoStart may initiate a second start attempt on ground (2 for RR....3 for GE)
AutoStart resets FUEL CONTROL switch to CUTOFF automatically AutoStart monitors oil Temperature (Not Pressure)
AutoStart controls the engine fuel valve and ignition during start
AutoStart may cycle the engine fuel valve to correct problems
AutoStart aborts start attempt if oil pressure does not rise
AutoStart makes continuous start attempts in the air (with Fuel Control switches to RUN)
AutoStart is used for normal engine starting
AutoStart may initiate a second start attempt on ground (2 for RR....3 for GE)
AutoStart controls the engine fuel valve and ignition during start
AutoStart makes continuous start attempts in the air (with Fuel Control switches to RUN)
AutoStart is used for normal engine starting
209
What does the ENG REV LIMITED L EICAS message indicate?
The left engine reverser is limited to one hydraulic source
Engine reverse thrust is limited to the left engine only
The left engine reverser will not deploy or will be limited to idle
The left engine reverse thrust is limited to ground operation only
The left engine reverser will not deploy or will be limited to idle
210
With REV in GREEN above left engine EPR and REV in AMBER above right engine, what best describes the conditions of the reverser sleeves on Left and Right side?
Left and right reversers are stowed and locked
Left reverser is in transit and right reverser is fully open
Left reverser is fully open and right reverser is in transition
Left reverser is fully open and right reverser is in transition
211
During pre-flight, you note that all main and centre tank fuel pump switches are OFF, but the left forward pump PRESS displayed. Are these indications correct if the APU is operating?
During pre-flight, you note that all main and centre tank fuel pump switches are OFF, but the left forward pump PRESS displayed. Are these indications correct if the APU is operating?
Yes. The left forward PRESS light is extinguished, indicating the APU is on and automatically using that pump
Yes. The left forward PRESS light is extinguished, indicating the DC pump is on
No. The right forward 'RESS light should also be extinguished
No. All of the PRESS lights should be extinguished when the fuel pumps are commanded off
Yes. The left forward PRESS light is extinguished, indicating the APU is on and automatically using that pump
212
. What does APU SHUTDOWN EICAS message mean?
APU is out of fuel
APU has been manually shutdown
APU has automatically shutdown
APU controller has shut down the packs
APU has automatically shutdown
213
If the APU is in the attended mode, what fault causes an immediate automatic shutdown?
APU controller failure
High EGT
Low oil pressure
High oil temperature
APU controller failure
214
What happens when an APU fire is detected on the ground and the engines are running?
The APU shuts down automatically and the fire bottle discharges automatically
The APU shuts down automatically but the fire bottle must be discharged manually
The APU does NOT shut down automatically but the fire bottle discharges automatically
The APU does NOT shut down automatically and the fire bottle must be discharged manually
The APU shuts down automatically but the fire bottle must be discharged manually
215
What does APU LIMIT EICAS message mean?
APU is out of fuel
APU limit has been exceeded
APU has automatically shut down
APU pneumatic output limited
APU limit has been exceeded
216
During cruise you notice the OVERHEAT ENG R message displayed on EICAS, what has occurred?
An overheat condition in the right engine
A fire condition exists in the right engine
Overheat detection in the right engine has failed
A pending overheat condition exists in the right engine
An overheat condition in the right engine
217
Which of the following indicate an ENGINE OVERHEAT condition?
Master Warning, EICAS FIRE ENG L, FUEL CONTROL switch let red, L ENG FIRE HANDLE lit red
EICASE DET OVERHEAT ENG L
Master Caution, EICAS OVERHEAT ENG L
Master Caution, EICAS OVERHEAT ENG L
218
What does the DET FIRE ENG R EICAS message indicate?
Fire detection for this engine is no longer available
The fire detection system has automatically reconfigured to single loop operation
The right engine fire bottle squibs are inoperative
A fire has been detected in the right engine
Fire detection for this engine is no longer available
219
During pre-flight you notice the BOTLLE 1 DISCH ENG message on EICAS, what does this mean?
Ground maintenance is servicing fire bottle 1
The fire bottle squibs are inoperative
This is a normal indication prior APU start
Fire bottle 1 has discharged
Fire bottle 1 has discharged
220
What action should you take if the fire switch remains locked after a fire is detected?
Wait until the fire light extinguishes
Pull the fire switch to override the lock
Push the fire override switch, then pull the fire switch
Rotate the fire switch
Push the fire override switch, then pull the fire switch
221
What happens when an APU fire is detected on the ground and the engines are shut down?
The APU shuts down automatically and the fire bottle discharges automatically
The APU shuts down automatically but the fire bottle must be discharged manually
The APU does NOT shut down automatically but the fire bottle discharges automatically
The APU does NOT shut down automatically and the fire bottle must be discharged manually
The APU shuts down automatically and the fire bottle discharges automatically
222
During taxi out, DET FIRE APU EICAS is displayed. What does this indicate?
APU fire detection system has automatically reconfigured to single loop operation
APU fire detection is no longer available
The APU fire bottle squibs are inoperative
A fire has been detected in the APU
APU fire detection is no longer available
223
While you are doing walk around, APU FIRE WARNING HORN sounds. What would you do if you are near Nose Gear?
Try contact Flight deck or engineer as they might be performing an APU FIRE test. If not, press APU FIRE SHUTDOWN button, then the APU BOTTLE DISCHARGE button
224
What does BOTTLE DISCH APU EICAS and APU BTL DISCH on overhead panel indicate during preflight?
These are normal indications prior to APU start
APU fire bottle has discharged
APU fire bottle squibs are inoperative
APU fire bottle has discharged
225
What does the EICAS message DET FIRE CARGO AFT indicate?
A fire has been detected in the aft cargo compartment
There is a detection zone fault in the smoke detector for the aft cargo compartment
The aft cargo fire heat sensor is inoperative
Smoke detection for the aft cargo compartment is not available
Smoke detection for the aft cargo compartment is not available
226
With FIRE CARGO AFT EICAS, AFT CARGO FIRE ARM switch displays ARMED and AFT and CARGO FIRE DISCH switch shows DISCH, what happens when the FWD CARGO FIRE ARM switch is pushed?
The arming functions for the FWD CARGO FIRE ARM switch activate but discharge into the forward compartment does NOT occur (all bottle used for 1 compartment only)
The arming functions for the FWD CARGO FIRE ARM switch do NOT activate
The arming functions for the FWD CARGO FIRE ARM switch activate, and the metered bottles discharge into the forward compartment
The arming functions for the FWD CARGO FIRE ARM switch activate but discharge into the forward compartment does NOT occur (all bottle used for 1 compartment only)
227
After the FWD CARGO FIRE ARM switch has been armed, what happens when the CARGO FIRE DISCH switch is pushed?
Two rapid dump bottles discharge into the forward cargo compartment
All 5 fire bottles arm and airflow around the cargo compartment is reduced
All 5 bottles discharge into the forward Cargo compartment
One of the metered bottles discharges into the forward cargo compartment
Two rapid dump bottles discharge into the forward cargo compartment
228
After the forward cargo fire has been extinguished, what happens when the AFT CARGO FIRE ARM switch is now pushed?
The arming function for the AFT CARGO FIRE ARM switch activate and the metered bottles discharge into the aft cargo compartment
The arming function for the AFT CARGO FIRE ARM switch do not activate
The arming function of the AFT CARGO FIRE ARM switch activate, but discharge into the aft compartment does not occur
The arming function of the AFT CARGO FIRE ARM switch activate, but discharge into the aft compartment does not occur
229
Which statement is true about wheel well fire?
The gear should stay extended for a minimum of 10 minutes
There is no fire extinguishing system
The gear should never be retracted
There is only a single detector loop installed
There is no fire extinguishing system
230
Which statement is true regarding lavatory smoke detection?
An automatic sprinkler system activates if a fire is detected
An aural warning activates and light illuminates outside the lavatory if smoke is detected
There is no built-in fire extinguishing system for the lavatories
The lavatory fire extinguishing system is activated by a discharge switch on the overhead panel
An aural warning activates and light illuminates outside the lavatory if smoke is detected
231
Which statement is true concerning a lavatory fire?
An automatic sprinkler system activates if a fire is detected
An aural warning activates and a light illuminates outside the lavatory if smoke is detected
There is no built-in fire extinguishing system for the lavatories
The lavatory fire extinguishing system is activated by a discharge switch on the overhead panel
An aural warning activates and a light illuminates outside the lavatory if smoke is detected
232
What are the alerts if lavatory smoke is detected?
An aural alert sounds in the lavatory and in the cabin and the EICAS warning message SMOKE LAVATORY displays
The lavatory call light flashes and the master call light at the associated attendant station illuminates
An aural alert sounds in the cabin only and the EICAS advisory message SMOKE LAVATORY displays
Answer A and B from above
The lavatory call light flashes and the master call light at the associated attendant station illuminates
233
Which of the following components are part of the B777 fly-by-wire flight control system?
AFDCs, ACEs and PCUs
PFCs and ACEs
CDUs, ACEs and FMSs
All of the above
PFCs and ACEs
234
Which statement(s) are true when the primary flight computer disconnect switch is positioned to DISC?
Protection features are NOT available
The system operates in direct mode
Autopilot is NOT available
All of the above
All of the above
235
Can the aileron be trimmed with the autopilot engaged?
YES
NO, aileron trim is inhibited
YES, but only if both aileron trim switches are pushed simultaneously
No, the autopilot will disconnect
NO, aileron trim is inhibited
236
Which statement is NOT true regarding the flap position indication?
The flap position indication displays on EICAS when the flaps begin to extend
There are three flap position indications: Normal (Primary), Expanded (Secondary and Alternate)
The flap lever position is magenta when the slats and flaps are in transit to the commanded position
Alternate extension is limited to slats midrange and flaps 20
The Flap Position Indicator is on the PFD
The Flap Position Indicator is on the PFD
237
Which of these following flight control surfaces aid in roll control?
Ailerons, Flaperons and Spoilers
Slats and Spoilers
Kruger Flaps, Slats and Spoilers
Flaperons and Slats
Ailerons, Flaperons and Spoilers
238
Which flight control surfaces provide roll control?
Ailerons
Ailerons and spoilers
Ailerons and flaperons
All of the above
All of the above
239
Which of these flight control surfaces assist in roll control?
Slats only
Slats and Spoilers
Ailerons and Flaperons
Flaperons and Slats
Ailerons and Flaperons
240
Which are not characteristics of BANK ANGLE PROTECTION?
It provides opposing wheel forces at excessive bank angles (to bring bank back to 30)
Bank angle indicator on PFD changes to magenta at angles greater than 35 (indicator changes to amber)
It begins at 35 degrees
It functions only during autopilot operation
It functions only during autopilot operation
241
For T/O, which flight control surface(s) move down to increase lift?
Slats
Flaperons and slats
Ailerons and flaperons
All of above
Ailerons and flaperons
242
Which of the following is true when the flight control system is operating in secondary mode?
Envelope protection features are available
Actuator control electronics (ACEs) are NOT available
The primary flight computers (PFCs) are NOT available
Autopilot and envelope protection are NOT available
Autopilot and envelope protection are NOT available
243
In the direct mode, which of the following components of the primary flight control system are NOT operating?
Actuator Control Electronics (ACEs)
Primary Flight Computers (PFCs)
Control surface actuators
All components are operating
Primary Flight Computers (PFCs)
244
The [ ] PRI FLIGHT COMPUTER EICAS message indicates?
The system is in the primary mode
The system is in the direct mode
Flight control modes are not affected
The system is in the secondary mode
The system is in the direct mode
245
Which trim control is inhibited when the autopilot is engaged?
Manual Trim Selector
Control wheel pitch trim switches
Alternate pitch trim levers
None of the above
Control wheel pitch trim switches
246
What is true about turn compensation?
It is available only in the secondary mode
It is NOT available if the bank angle is above 30 degrees
Elevator input is NOT required for turns up to 30 degrees of bank
The turn compensation switch is on the overhead panel
Elevator input is NOT required for turns up to 30 degrees of bank
247
When do the control wheel stab trim switches control stab movement directly?
All the time
Only during approach
Only on ground
During engine at go-around
Only on ground
248
When are pitch trim changes required with the 777 fly-by- wire system?
During airspeed changes only
When landing gear is extended
When thrust is changed
For all configuration changes
During airspeed changes only
249
What is FALSE about Stabilizer Trim?
The green band on the Stabilizer Position Indicator shows the stabilizer trim range for takeoff
You can use the pitch trim switches on the yoke to set the trim
As airspeed increases, trim rate decreases
As airspeed increases, trim rate increases
As airspeed increases, trim rate increases
250
When do the alternate pitch trim levers move the stabilizer?
When the autopilot is disengaged
Only on the ground
During flight control SECONDARY and DIRECT modes
The levers move the stabilizer directly all the times
The levers move the stabilizer directly all the times
251
Which statements are FALSE about STABILIZER TRIM?
The green band on stab position indicator shows the stabilizer trim range for takeoff
You can use the pitch trim switches on control column to set stabilizer position on the ground
The alternate pitch trim levers always move the stabilizer directly
In flight, the stabilizer can be trimmed above Vmo
In flight, the stabilizer can be trimmed above Vmo
252
What is true about alternate pitch trim?
Wheel pitch trim commands have priority over alternate pitch trim commands
The alternate pitch trim levers always move the stabilizer directly
Moving the alternate pitch trim levers with the autopilot engaged will disconnect the autopilot
Only one lever has to be moved to command trim changes
The alternate pitch trim levers always move the stabilizer directly
253
What happens when the stabilizer signal is not present or invalid?
The EICAS message STAB GREENBAND displays
The green band on the indicator turns amber
The green band and the pointer are not displayed
The CDU displays the VERIFY TRIM message in the scratchpad
The green band and the pointer are not displayed
254
What causes the [ ] STAB GREENBAND EICAS message?
The FMC gross weight (ZFW entry) may be incorrect
The FMC CG entry may be incorrect
Main gear oleo pressure switch might be at fault
Answer A & B from above
Answer A & B from above
255
What could cause the [ ] STAB GREENBAND EICAS message to be displayed?
Power to the stabilizer position indicator is lost
The stabilizer position is unreliable
The FMC weight and / or CG entry may be incorrect
The FMC weight and / or CG entry may be incorrect
256
What is wheel to rudder cross-tie?
A function which enables aircraft steering through nose wheel and rudder pedals on ground only
A function which connects the main gear aft axle steering with the rudder pedals
A function which provides the capability to control the initial effect of an engine failure using aileron inputs only
A function which provides the capability to control the initial effect of an engine failure using rudder inputs only
A function which provides the capability to control the initial effect of an engine failure using aileron inputs only
257
If TAC is available, at which airspeed starts the TAC system to operate?
After takeoff thrust has been set
At 80 knots
At 65 knots
At 70 knots
At 70 knots
258
Which one of the following statements is false?
At cruise speed, spoilers #5 and #10 are locked out
Spoilers # 4 and #11 are mechanically operated
When augmenting roll control, the spoilers work
There are 12 spoilers
There are 12 spoilers
259
Which of these flight control surfaces droop when the trailing edge flaps extend?
Flaperons
Slats only
Kruger Flaps and Slats
Flaperons and Slats
Flaperons
260
Which is NOT a characteristics of the secondary flap and slat mode?
There is an expanded flap and slat position indication
There is a flap load relief system
There is a slat load relief system
Operation of the slats is electrical
There is a flap load relief system
261
Which statement is true about flap and slat load relief?
Flap load relief operates in primary mode
Slat load relief operates in primary and secondary mode
Flap load relief operates in primary mode, only when flap placard speeds are exceeded and flaps 20 to 30 are selected
Slats retract from midrange to up when slat load relief is activated
Flap load relief operates in primary mode
262
. What can you say about the [ ] FLAPS DRIVE EICAS message?
The message is displayed when the flap drive mechanism has been shut down due to an asymmetry
The EICAS flap indicator display turns magenta
Arm the alternate system
The flaps will operate in the secondary mode
The message is displayed when the flap drive mechanism has been shut down due to an asymmetry
263
Which system is used to extend flap/slats if FLAP/SLAT CONTROL EICAS displayed?
Primary mode
Secondary mode
Alternate Mode
No further extension possible - control failure
Alternate Mode
264
What are the initial steps to extend the flaps using the Alternate Flap System?
Arm ALT FLAPS ARM switch. Select ALT FLAPS Selector to EXT
Arm ALT FLAPS ARM switch. Select NORMAL FLAPS Selector to 20
Arm ALT FLAPS ARM switch. Select ALT FLAPS selector to OFF
Push ALT FLAPS ARM switch to OFF. Select ALT FLAPS selector to EXT
Arm ALT FLAPS ARM switch. Select ALT FLAPS Selector to EXT
265
Auto speedbrake protection is provided for which phases of flight?
Takeoff, Rejected Takeoff, Approach
Takeoff, Rejected Takeoff, Landing
Takeoff, Rejected Takeoff, Approach below 200 feet
Takeoff, Rejected Takeoff, Approach, Landing
Takeoff, Rejected Takeoff, Landing
266
Under what conditions does the SPEEDBRAKE EXTEND EICAS message display?
Speedbrakes are extended and aircraft is above 800 feet RA
Speedbrakes are extended when RA is between 15 and 800 feet or landing flaps are extended
Any time Speedbrakes are extended
After landing, if Speedbrakes fail to extend
Speedbrakes are extended when RA is between 15 and 800 feet or landing flaps are extended
267
Under which conditions does the SPEEDBRAKE EXTENDED EICAS message display?
Speedbrakes are extended below 800 feet RA
Speedbrakes are extended and flap lever is in a landing position
Speedbrakes are extended and either thrust lever is not closed
All of the above
All of the above
268
Which are NOT STALL PROTECTION features?
Autothrottle advances to maintain minimum speed (wake-up)
Autothrottle disconnects
Airplane cannot be trimmed to an airspeed below minimum manoeuvring speed
Stick Shaker activates
Autothrottle disconnects
269
What are the indications given for an excessive Glideslope deviation and under what conditions?
The scale turns amber and the pointer flashes. At low radio Altitudes with the autopilot or flight director engaged
The scale remains magenta and the pointer flashes. At any altitude below 800 ft.
Any time deviation exceeds 1 dot
Amber scale flashing with an automated aural “Glideslope Glideslope”. Prior to or after localizer capture
The scale turns amber and the pointer flashes. At low radio Altitudes with the autopilot or flight director engaged
270
When does a glideslope deviation alert occur?
After glideslope capture and at low radio altitudes
Only after localizer capture
Any time deviation exceeds 1 dot
Any time after localizer capture
After glideslope capture and at low radio altitudes
271
What does the Pitch Limit Indication (PLI) indicate?
Pitch angle for best climb speed
Pitch at which underspeed warning will sound
Pitch limit at which stick shaker occurs
Proper pitch angle for takeoff
Pitch limit at which stick shaker occurs
272
When is the Pitch Limit Indication displayed?
When flaps are not up or airspeed is low with flaps up
Only when the flaps are not in the up position
If airspeed is close to VMO / MMO
After takeoff until passing 20,000 feet
When flaps are not up or airspeed is low with flaps up
273
What does the amber cross hatching (//////) indicate PFD ALTIMETER DISPLAY indicate?
A hard surfaced runway
End of Descent altitude
Altitude tape failure
Departure Airport or Runway altitude, for 400nm, then Destination Airport or Runway altitude
Departure Airport or Runway altitude, for 400nm, then Destination Airport or Runway altitude
274
When does a LOCALISER NOT CAPTURED alert occur?
At greater than 2 dot deviation
Above 1,000ft RA
Localiser not captured AND below 1,000ft RA ?
Only after G/S Deviation alert
Localiser not captured AND below 1,000ft RA ?
275
Which indication is never shown on PFD?
Vertical speed
Bearing pointers
Radio altitude
Takeoff speed bugs
Route map
Bearing pointers
Route map
276
What represents the letter 'L' or 'R' next to the barometric setting on the PFD?
Respective EFIS control panel's barometric setting reference for the transponder
Respective EFIS control panel's barometric setting reference for the autopilot
Respective EFIS control panel's barometric setting reference for the flight director
Answer B and C from above
Answer B and C from above
277
. Which alerts can be displayed on the PFD?
ENG FAIL, PULL UP, AIRSPEED LOW
WINDSHEAR, ENG FAIL, TRAFFIC
GO AROUND, TERRAIN, WINDSHEAR
WINDSHEAR, ENG FAIL, PULL UP
WINDSHEAR, ENG FAIL, PULL UP
278
When is the landing altitude flag removed?
After landing altitude is set on the pressurization panel
After the origin airfield is entered on the CDU route page
After the correct local altimeter setting is set
Only after takeoff
After the origin airfield is entered on the CDU route page
279
Which of the following ND modes cannot display weather radar returns?
APP centered
APP expanded
VOR expanded
MAP centered
APP centered
280
What does the POS map switch display?
ADIRU, GPS positions and VOR raw data radials
Latitude/Longitude data for all waypoints
FMC present position data
Waypoint ETA and altitude
ADIRU, GPS positions and VOR raw data radials
281
What does the nose (point) of the AIRPLANE SYMBOL on PLAN DISPLAY represent?
Present Heading
FMC present position
Active waypoint
A big investment
FMC present position
(Inhibited north of 82N/S latitudes. 11.31.8)
282
What causes the CDU-L source status to display on ND?
A single CDU failure
Pending route modifications using CDU L
Left NAV source switch in CDU
ADIRU failure
Left NAV source switch in
283
When are the annunciations, CDU L, C, R, displayed on the ND?
Navigation source switch in CDU
Only after a single FMC failure
After dual FMC failure
Both A and C
Both A and C
284
Which control(s) cause(s) range marks to be displayed in VOR EXPANDED mode?
WXR or TFC switch
Range Selector
CTR switch
All the time
WXR or TFC switch
285
When is range information displayed in VOR EXPANDED mode on ND?
All the time
Only at 10, 20 and 40 miles range
Over Wyoming and Colorado
If WXR or TCAS data is displayed
If WXR or TCAS data is displayed
286
What information can be shown on the VOR EXPANDED mode on ND?
TCAS information
Route Map
Descent path guidance
Track up compass
Weather Radar returns
TCAS information
Weather Radar returns
287
When is the selected TRACK or HEADING line removed from ND?
After missed approach is initiated
After 10 seconds if the MCP setting has not changed and LNAV is engaged
Anytime LNAV or G/S mode engaged
10 seconds after VNAV descent started and altitude setting has not changed
After 10 seconds if the MCP setting has not changed and LNAV is engaged
288
When will the TRUE light illuminate in the heading reference switch?
Any time true heading is in use
Whenever the Heading Reference switch is in the TRUE position
Above 82° N/S latitude or in the vicinity of the magnetic poles
After a correct answer is given
Whenever the Heading Reference switch is in the TRUE position
289
Why would the HEADING REFERENCE symbol beside present heading at top of ND display TRU?
The airplane is above 82 degrees N or S latitude
True heading has automatically been selected
The HDG REF switch has been selected to the TRUE position
The airplane is in vicinity of magnetic pole
All of them
All of them
290
According existing acceleration/deceleration, what predicted airspeed does the airspeed trend vector indicate?
Airspeed in 5 seconds
Airspeed in 10 seconds
Airspeed in 15 seconds
Airspeed in 20 seconds
Airspeed in 10 seconds
291
Each segment of the position trend vector on top of the airplane symbol (dashed line) represents the aircraft's position prediction after how many seconds?
10
20
30
45
30
292
How many feet vertical deviation indicates the VNAV deviation scale, displayed during VNAV PATH descent?
+/-100
+/- 200
+/- 400
+/- 800
+/- 400
293
What is the green altitude range arc (prediction on ND) based on?
Vertical speed and indicated airspeed (IAS)
Vertical speed and ground speed
Only vertical speed
Only ground speed
Vertical speed and ground speed
294
What is the maximum range at which turbulence returns can be displayed on ND?
10nm
20nm
40nm
80nm
40nm
295
How are Display Select Panel operations affected when EICAS is displayed on an inboard display unit?
All display panel select panel operations are normal
Inboard display unit can only display EICAS or the secondary engine display
All display switches are inoperative except ENG, FUEL and AIR
Any Display Select Panel selection will be displayed on the lower center display unit
All display switches are inoperative except ENG, FUEL and AIR
296
What are the steps to select the Status display on the Left inboard unit?
Select R INBD switch, then select STAT switch
Select LWR CTR switch, then select STAT switch
Select L INBD switch, then select STAT switch
Select R INBD switch, then select DOOR switch
Select L INBD switch, then select STAT switch
297
What are the steps to select the Flight Control Synoptic on the right inboard display unit?
Select R INBD switch, then select FCTL switch
Select LWR CTR switch, then select FCTL switch
Select L INBD switch, then select FCTL switch
Select R INBD switch, then select DOOR switch
Select R INBD switch, then select FCTL switch
298
How can you select a SYNOPTIC DISPLAY on the left inboard display if it's already displayed on LOWER CENTER display
Select Left INBOARD DSPL selector on MFD
299
If Left OUTER displays PFD, Left INNER displays ELEC synoptic, Center Upper is EICAS, what will the display configuration be if the outboard left display fails?
Outboard Blank, Inboard PFD, Upper Center EICAS
Outboard PFD, Inboard blank, Upper Center blank
Outboard EICAS, Inboard ND, Upper PFD
Outboard ND, Inboard EICAS, Upper ND
Outboard Blank, Inboard PFD, Upper Center EICAS
300
In what positions should the INBOARD DSPL selectors be during pre-flight stage?
PF on MFD, PNF on MFD
PF on MFD, PNF on NAV
PF on PFD, PNF on NAV
PF on PFD, PNF on MFD
PF on MFD, PNF on MFD
301
If UPPER CENTER Fails, with the lower center displaying the COMM and the left Inboard Display Selector is in the EICAS position, what is the effect on Display Select Panel operations?
All Display Select Panel operations are normal
All Display switches are inhibited
All Display switches are inoperative except ENG, FUEL and AIR
Any Display Select Panel selection will be displayed on lower center display
All Display switches are inoperative except ENG, FUEL and AIR
302
Which statement about the STANDBY ATTITUDE indicator is true (NOT the Integrated Standby Flight Display ISFD single instrument on GE engine aircraft)?
It displays pitch, bank and slip
It displays roll and bank only
It displays pitch, bank and heading
It displays pitch and bank only
It displays pitch and bank only
303
Your CLOCK has the time selector set to MAN, and ET switch to RUN. If the sweep hand on the clock is passing through 19, the top LCD TIME display reads 16:45 and lower LCD ET/CHR displays 1. Which of the following is correct?
UTC time is 16:45, Elapsed time is 0:01, Chronograph is 0:01
UTC time is unknown, Elapsed time is 16:45, Chronograph is 0:01.19
Local time is 16:45, Elapsed time is unknown, Chronograph is 0:01:19 (MAN is for manual time setting, eg. Local, UTC selection would show UTC time)
Local time is 16:45, Elapsed time is 0:19, chronograph is 0:01
Local time is 16:45, Elapsed time is unknown, Chronograph is 0:01:19 (MAN is for manual time setting, eg. Local, UTC selection would show UTC time)
304
What is the status of the below TCAS indication?
TCAS proximate traffic: Traffic is above the airplane and climbing
TCAS other traffic: Traffic is below the airplane and climbing
TCAS other traffic: Traffic is above the airplane and descending
TCAS proximate traffic: Traffic is below the airplane and descending
TCAS proximate traffic: Traffic is below the airplane and descending
305
How do you test the WEATHER RADAR?
Push WX mode then WXR map switches
Push TEST then DATA map switches
Push WXR map then TEST switch
Push TEST then WXR map switches
Push WXR map then TEST switch
306
What is represented by the color magenta in weather radar returns?
Moderate precipitation
Heavy precipitation
Turbulence within precipitation
Clear Air Turbulence
Turbulence within precipitation
307
What does WXR FAIL ANT message indicate?
Weather returns will not display due to a problem with the antenna
Weather returns will not display due to a problem with the antenna
308
What does the WXR FAIL R/T message indicate?
Weather returns will not display as the selected R/T has failed
Weather returns will not display as the selected R/T has failed
309
What does a square icon next to an EICAS message indicate?
The non-normal condition is no longer present
There is no electronic checklist associated with this message
There is an electronic checklist associated with this message and the checklist is complete
There is an electronic checklist associated with this message and the checklist is NOT complete
There is an electronic checklist associated with this message and the checklist is NOT complete
310
What does cyan colour indicate in the electronic checklist?
The step must be reset
The step must be repeated
Do not perform the step
The step was performed wrong
Do not perform the step
311
Which statement about the electronic checklist NORMAL and NON-NORMAL keys are true?
The NON-NORMAL key displays a list of the normal checklist
The NON-NORMAL key displays the last checklist completed
The NORMAL key displays the next normal checklist in the sequence
The NORMAL key displays the last normal checklist in the sequence
The NORMAL key displays the next normal checklist in the sequence
312
Which statement about the non-normal queue is true?
Each checklist in queue must be completed in the order listed
The checklist queue allows you to select which checklist to perform next
While the queue is displaying, it continuously updates automatically each time a new EICAS message appears
The queue displays checklists for message that do not have an icon
The checklist queue allows you to select which checklist to perform next
313
How do you display an unannunciated non-normal checklist?
Highlight and select the NON-NORMAL MENU key then select the UNANNUNCIATED CHECKLIST key
Highlight and select the NORMAL MENU key then select the UNANNUNCIATED CHECKLIST key
Highlight and select the NON-NORMAL MENU key
Highlight and select the CHKL RESET key then select the UNANNUNCIATED CHECKLIST key
Highlight and select the NON-NORMAL MENU key then select the UNANNUNCIATED CHECKLIST key
314
What does the NOTES key do?
The NOTES key resets the operational notes collected from non-normal checklists during flight
The NOTES key displays the operational notes collected from non-normal checklists during flight
The NOTES key allows you to create a note for the displayed checklist
The NOTES key adds the displayed checklist to the notes queue
The NOTES key displays the operational notes collected from non-normal checklists during flight
315
Which statement about resets is true?
The CHKL RESET key resets all of the normal checklists The CHKL RESET key resets all of the non- normal
All checklists can be reset once by using the RESETS key followed by the RESETS ALL key
All checklists can be reset once by using the NON-NORMAL MENU key followed by the CHKL RESET KEY
All checklists can be reset once by using the RESETS key followed by the RESETS ALL key
316
Which statement about overrides is true?
To override a checklist you must display that checklist and then use the CHKL OVRD key
Closed loops steps cannot be overridden
Steps that are overridden remain white
To override a checklist you must reset it first
To override a checklist you must display that checklist and then use the CHKL OVRD key
317
What does the CHKL OVRD key do when selected?
Overrides the highlighted item on the checklist
Overrides the displayed checklist
Displays the next checklist to be overridden
Displays the last overridden checklist
Overrides the displayed checklist
318
You complete the HYD PRESS SYS C checklist and prompt CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT DEFERRED ITEMS is displayed. Which of the following is true?
The deferred items can be completed on this checklist but should be completed on the approach checklist
This checklist is complete only when deferred items are accomplished
The deferred items cannot be completed on this checklist
The deferred items cannot be completed on the approach checklist
The deferred items can be completed on this checklist but should be completed on the approach checklist
319
Which of the following statements about FMC CDU pages is true?
Dashes indicate data input is optional
'ERASE' is used to delete data in a single line
Page titles are magenta when active
The RTE page title is white when inactive
Dashes indicate data input is optional
320
If the FMC NAV RAD page displays PARK next to the ILS freq/course (which is in small font), how do you select the ILS freq/course for your planned runway?
Line select 4L
You can't. you must wait until you are close enough for FMC to autotune
You must manually enter Freq/Course into scratchpad and line select 4L
Line select 4L
(park means ILS not being used and not tuned)
321
Which EICAS message do you see when the ADIRU is in alignment mode?
EICAS memo message ADIRU ALIGN MODE
EICAS alert message NAV ALIGN MODE
CDU scratchpad message ADIRU ALIGN
CDU scratchpad message ENTER ADIRU POSITION
EICAS memo message ADIRU ALIGN MODE
322
How long should a ADIRU switch remain off when manually realigning the ADIRU?
Momentarily
24 seconds
30 seconds
45 seconds
30 seconds
323
If ADIRU is ON, and the ON BAT light is illuminated, which of the following is true?
The ADIRU is operating on its internal battery
The airplane was secured, primary power was left ON, and the ADIRU was left ON
The ADIRU is performing a self-test
Primary power was removed, the BATTERY switch is OFF and the ground call horn is on
Primary power was removed, the BATTERY switch is OFF and the ground call horn is on
324
What happens if the ADIRU switch is left on and then primary power is removed from the airplane and the BATTERY switch is turned off?
The ON BAT light illuminates and the EICAS memo message ADIRU ON BAT displays
The ON BAT light illuminates and the ground crew call horn sounds
The ON BAT light extinguishes when the BATTERY switch is turned off
Nothing. The ADIRU switch is always left on when securing the airplane
The ON BAT light illuminates and the ground crew call horn sounds
325
. How often is a complete ADIRU alignment recommended?
Every 15 hours
Every 24 hours
Whenever the total time in the navigation mode is expected to exceed 15 hours
Whenever the total time in the navigation mode is expected to exceed 24 hours
Whenever the total time in the navigation mode is expected to exceed 24 hours
326
Which statement about the ADIRU is true?
The inertial reference position is updated using information from the air data modules
The ADIRU sends magnetic variation data to the FMCs to convert true heading to magnetic heading
The ADIRU receives the same data inputs as the SAARU but compares and validates the data independently
If the ADIRU fails, the PFDs blank
The ADIRU receives the same data inputs as the SAARU but compares and validates the data independently
327
Which of the following are data sources for the ADIRU?
Air data modules only
Static ports only
Air data modules, AOA vanes and TAT probe
AOA vanes and TAT probe only
Air data modules, AOA vanes and TAT probe
328
Which of the following are data sources for the SAARU?
Air data modules only
Static ports only
Air data modules, AOA vanes and TAT probe
AOA vanes and TAT probe only
Air data modules, AOA vanes and TAT probe
329
What is the altitude source for transponder altitude reporting when the ALT SOURCE selector is in the ALT position?
ADIRU
SAARU
Air data modules
Either A or B
SAARU
330
What is the correct CDU entry to create crossing points along the flight plan route starting with N24 degrees Latitude and every 8 degrees thereafter?
N24-8
N024/8
N024x8
N24.8
N24-8
331
What is true about cost index?
Larger values decrease ECON speed
LRC speed may be obtained by entering a cost index of 0
Larger values increase ECON speed
The ECON speed is NOT based on the cost index
Larger values increase ECON speed
332
On 777, COST INDEX of 140 approximates?
MRC
LRC
VMO/MMO
LRC
333
Which one of the following is inoperative with dual FMC failure?
LNAV
VNAV
MAP display
Both CDUs
VNAV
334
The air turnback arrival page is accessible under which conditions?
Less than 100 miles from the origin and nearer to the origin than the destination
Less than 200 miles from the origin and nearer to the origin than the destination
Less than 400 miles from the origin and nearer to the origin than the destination
The air turn back arrival page can always be used during the flight
FCOM 11.41.16
Less than 400 miles from the origin and nearer to the origin than the destination
335
On which CDU page can the GPS position data be enabled/disabled?
POS INIT 1/3
POS REF
ACT RTA PROGRESS 3/3
The GPS position data function cannot be disabled
POS REF
336
What colour is the VOR data on the NAV RADIO page?
Magenta
Cyan
Green
White
Green
337
What colour is the ADF data on the NAV RADIO page?
Magenta
Cyan
Green
White
Cyan
338
Which CDU page allows NAVAID INHIBIT?
REF NAV DATA
POS REF 3/3
NAV RADIO 2/2
NAVA ID INHIBIT is not an available function
REF NAV DATA
339
Which one of the following pages is available following dual FMC failure?
ALTN PERF INIT
ALTN REF NAV DATA
ALTN POS REF
ALTN NAV LEGS
ALTN NAV LEGS
340
Which of the items listed below is NOT determined by the Fuel Quantity Indicating System?
Fuel temperature
Fuel height
Fuel type
Fuel density
Fuel type
FQIS (Fuel Quantity Indicating System) utilizes height and density to calculate fuel quantity.
No reference
341
The sequence of fuel burn is?
Left and right main tank to the respective engine and the centre tank resupplies the main tank fuel
Tank for engine feed is selected by configuring the fuel pumps and crossfeed valves respectively
Left and right main tank to the respective engine until reaching 11,500 pounds or 5,200 kg, then the centre tank feeds the engines until empty, then the remaining main tank fuel feeds
Centre tank fuel feeds both engines until empty then the main tanks feed their respective engines
Centre tank fuel feeds both engines until empty then the main tanks feed their respective engines
342
During pre-flight, you note that all main and center tank fuel pump switches are OFF, but the left forward pump PRESS light is not displayed. Are these indications correct if the APU is operating?
Yes. The left forward PRESS light is extinguished, indicating the APU is on and automatically using that pump
Yes. The left forward PRESS light is extinguished, indicating the DC pump is on
No. The right forward PRESS light should also be extinguished
No. All of the PRESS lights should be extinguished when the fuel pumps are commanded off
Yes. The left forward PRESS light is extinguished, indicating the APU is on and automatically using that pump
343
Before engine start on the ground, the right centre tank pump PRESS light is illuminated without the EICAS message [] FUEL PUMP CENTRE R displayed. Is this condition correct?
Yes. One pump is electrically load shed and the message is inhibited
Yes. Centre tank fuel is not used during engine start and the message is inhibited
No. The EICAS message is never inhibited
No. The EICAS message will be displayed after a short sensing delay
Yes. One pump is electrically load shed and the message is inhibited
344
Which statement is true about supplying fuel to operate the APU prior to establish AC power?
The APU cannot operate because there is no fuel pressure
The APU will operate without a fuel pump
The left main tank has a DC fuel pump to operate the APU
The center tank has a DC fuel pump to operate the APU
The left main tank has a DC fuel pump to operate the APU
345
With no AC power available, what supplies fuel to operate the APU?
Left FWD AC main tank fuel pump
Left main tank jettison pump
The APU is on suction feed
Left main tank DC fuel pump
Left main tank DC fuel pump
346
Once the center tank pumps are turned off in flight some fuel remains in the center tank as unusable fuel. Is this statement true?
Yes. Main tank pump pressure prevents any further fuel transfer
No. A scavenge system transfers remaining fuel when either main tank quantity decreases below a set level
Yes. The center tank fuel valves automatically close
No. The pumps can be turned on again to empty the center tank
No. A scavenge system transfers remaining fuel when either main tank quantity decreases below a set level
347
Balancing fuel requires the use of:
Either crossfeed valve and both pumps in the low main tank
Both crossfeed valves and both pumps in the high main tank
Either crossfeed valve and both pumps in the high main tank
Both crossfeed valves and both pumps in the low main tank
Either crossfeed valve and both pumps in the high main tank
Both FUEL PUMPS in the fuller tank are required for fuel balancing, but only 1 crossfeed valve needed
348
Which fuel pumps are used for fuel jettison?
Left and right main tank fuel pumps and the centre tank override pumps
Left and right main tank jettison pumps only
Left and right main tank jettison pumps and the centre tank override / jettison pumps
Left and right main tank jettison pumps and the centre tank override / jettison
349
Select the best statement from the following
The left and right main tanks each contain two AC driven fuel pumps
The center tank contains two override pumps and two separate jettison pumps
The APU receives fuel from only the left main tank using a DC or AC driven pump
The left and right main tanks each contain two jettison tanks
The left and right main tanks each contain two AC driven fuel p
350
Select the best statement from following:
Fuel may be jettisoned to any minimum quantity at or above MLW Fuel may be jettisoned to any quantity at or below MLW
Fuel may be jettisoned to a minimum quantity of 11500 lbs or 5200 kg in each main tank
Fuel may be jettisoned to a minimum quantity of 11500 lbs or 5200 kg in each main tank
In new airplanes the minimum quantity is 3800 Kg
351
After FUEL JETTISON, when total fuel equals TO REMAIN fuel (MLW), what are the actions on FUEL JETTISON panel?
Select ARM switch to DISARM, FUEL TO REMAIN push in, and switch L and R nozzle switches are off
Select L and R nozzle switches off, return FUEL TO REMAIN switch to auto and use arm switch to disarm fuel jettison
Select L and R Nozzle switches OFF and set ARM switch to DISARM position
Select L and R Nozzle switches OFF and set ARM switch to DISARM position
352
What is the lowest possible fuel quantity remaining in each main tank, after fuel jettison is completed?
At least 4,200 kg
At least 5,200 kg
There is no minimum amount specified
A fuel amount which corresponds to MLW
At least 5,200 kg
353
Which is the FUEL JETTISON rate?
The FUEL JETTISON rate with one nozzle valve open is 2700 lbs/min (1224 kgs) with the operation of jettison pumps only and 3500 lbs/min (1587 kgs) with the jettison and override/jettison pumps.
The fuel jettison rate with 2 nozzle valves open is 3100 lbs/min (1406 kgs) with the operation of the jettison pumps only, and 5400 lbs/min (2449 kgs) with jettison and override/jettison pumps. I.e. 2500 with fuel in centre and 1400 with only main tank fuel.
Both are correct.
Both are correct.
A answer is not in any document anymore
354
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
When there is a FUEL IMBALANCE of more than 500 Kgs the EICAS display shows a fuel imbalance pointer to the main tank that has the least fuel.
If a crossfeed valve is open, a fuel imbalance more than 200 Kgs causes the pointer to show.
The pointer stays until the imbalance is less than 100 Kgs.
A solid amber fuel imbalance pointer replaces the white pointer if the FUEL IMBALANCE message is displayed
If a crossfeed valve is open, a fuel imbalance more than 200 Kgs causes the pointer to show.
355
The EICAS message FUEL IN CENTER is displayed when?
The center tank contains fuel
A Main tank fuel pump is ON
The center tank pump switches are OFF
All of the above together
All of the above together
356
When is the EICAS message FUEL PUMP CENTER L displayed?
Anytime there is no pump output pressure
When the center tank contains fuel and the fuel pump switch is OFF
When the center tank is empty and the pump switch is ON
When the center tank fuel pump is ON and the pump output pressure is low
When the center tank fuel pump is ON and the pump output pressure is low
357
What is NOT true when FUEL PRESS ENG L EICAS displayed?
The left engine will flame out from fuel starvation
Crossfeed may be necessary to prevent thrust decay
The left engine suction feeds from the left main fuel tank
Both left main fuel tank pumps are inoperative
The left engine will flame out from fuel starvation
358
How many hydraulic systems are needed to power enough of the flight controls for safe flight?
One system
Two systems
Three systems
One system
359
Where are hydraulic system quantities displayed?
Status display
Hydraulic synoptic display
Secondary engine display
Both A and B
Both A and B
360
What does the FAULT light under the L ELEC DEMAND selector indicate?
Hydraulic pump pressure is low or hydraulic pump temperature high
Left engine primary fuel pump is inoperative
Automatic systems using the left system are faulty
The autobrake system is faulty
Hydraulic pump pressure is low or hydraulic pump temperature high
361
What does the FAULT light in the L ENG primary HYDRAULIC PUMP switch indicate?
Engine EGT is high or engine speed is low
Left engine primary fuel pump is inoperative
Hydraulic pump pressure is low or temperature is high
Left engine is faulty
Hydraulic pump pressure is low or temperature is high
362
If the left and right hydraulic systems are lost, can the centre hydraulic system sufficiently power enough of the flight controls for a safe flight?
Yes
No
Yes
363
What powers the right engine thrust reverser?
Left engine bleed air
Right engine bleed air
Centre hydraulic system
Right hydraulic system
Right hydraulic system
364
If the left and right hydraulic systems are lost, the center hydraulic system cannot adequately provide airplane controllability?
True
False
False
365
What happens if both Cl and C2 DEMAND pump selectors are positioned to ON?
Only the Cl DEMAND pump will operate
Only the C2 DEMAND pump will operate
Both the Cl and C2 DEMAND pumps will operate
Both the Cl and C2 DEMAND pumps will operate only if a Cl or C2 PRIMARY pump has low pressure
Only the Cl DEMAND pump will operate
366
What actions do you take to eliminate source of an overheat with []HYD OVERHEAT PRI C2 EICAS message?
Turn of the C1 and C2 primary hydraulic pumps
Turn off the C1 and C2 primary and demand hydraulic pumps
Turn off the C2 primary hydraulic pump
Turn off all center system hydraulic sources
Turn off the C2 primary hydraulic pump
367
With []HYD PRESS DEM R EICAS displayed, and switch in AUTO, how can you check whether the pump or automatic function of the pump has failed?
Turn off the R ENG PRIMARY pump and check system pressure
Turn off the R ELEC DEMAND pump and return to AUTO then Check for EICAS message
Turn the R ELEC DEMAN pump ON
You cannot check the automatic function
Turn the R ELEC DEMAN pump ON
L and R demand pumps are electric....Center are Air driven
368
Autoland is inoperative for which of the following conditions?
Left hydraulic system pressure low
Center hydraulic system pressure low
Right hydraulic system pressure low
All of the above
Left hydraulic system pressure low
Auto Land will not be possible due to the reduced control redundancy of the Stabilizer (Study Guide)
369
When the RAT deploys automatically due to system failures, what does it hydraulically power?
Alternate gear extension
Normal brakes (after landing and airspeed <60 kts)
Primary Flight Control components normally powered by the center hydraulic system
All of the above
Primary Flight Control components normally powered by the center hydraulic system
370
When FIRE SWITCH pulled, what of the following are turned off?
Engine-Driven Hydraulic Pump
Demand Hydraulic pump
Both Engine and Demand Hydraulic pumps
Engine-Driven Hydraulic Pump
371
Which wheel number has the left middle outboard main wheel?
#3
#4
#5
#7
#5
372
. Select the true statement about alternate gear extension?
After the landing gear is extended the main gear doors close
The landing gear free falls to the down and locked position
Landing gear cannot be retracted after alternate extension
The landing gear lever must be in the down position
The landing gear free falls to the down and locked position
373
Select the true statement about alternate gear extension
A dedicated DC hydraulic pump delivers pressure to lower the gear. There is no free fall
The landing gear lever has to be in the down position before activating the ALTERNATE GEAR switch
The EICAS landing gear position indication displays the expanded gear position indication
The landing gear can NEVER be retracted following an alternate extension
The EICAS landing gear position indication displays the expanded gear position indication
374
. Select the true statement about alternate gear extension
The landing gear lever must be in the down position when using the alternate gear extension system
After the landing gear is extended, the main gear doors close
The normal landing gear indications are displayed on EICAS
The landing gear may be retracted after alternate extension, if the normal system is operating
The landing gear may be retracted after alternate extension, if the normal system is operating
375
. Which statement is true? Main gear steering is commanded:
Whenever rudder pedals must be used for sharp turns
When rudder pedals reach maximum deflection
When nose wheel angle exceeds 70 degrees
When the nose wheel steering angle exceeds 13 degrees
When the nose wheel steering angle exceeds 13 degrees
376
Which Hydraulic system powers NOSE GEAR STEERING?
Left System
Right System
Center System
Center System
(Center used for all Wheel/Gear controls, except normal braking, which is on the Right system)
377
Which statement is true about the rudder pedals?
The rudder pedals are best used for sharp turns
The rudder pedals are locked to centre at high speeds
The rudder pedals control only nose wheel steering and the rudder
The rudder pedals control nose wheel steering, main gear steering and the rudder
The rudder pedals control only nose wheel steering and the rudder
378
Which pressure source is providing antiskid protection?
Normal brake hydraulic system pressure
Normal and alternate/reserve brake hydraulic system pressure
Pressure supplied by the brake accumulator
All of the above
All of the above
379
When does the BRAKE SOURCE light illuminate?
When the right and center / reserve hydraulic system have been lost
After loss of the right hydraulic system
When the reserve system is NOT selected manually after a loss of the right hydraulic system
When the left and center / reserve hydraulic system have been lost
When the right and center / reserve hydraulic system have been lost
380
Why would the BRAKE SOURCE light illuminate?
Brake accumulator does not have any pressure in it
Left and right hydraulic systems operating normally, but the center system has low pressure
Normal and Alternate brake system pressures are low
Alternate brake system is depressurised
Normal and Alternate brake system pressures are lo
381
Above which ground speed does the RTO autobrake setting command maximum braking pressure during RTO?
65 knots
80 knots
85 knots
Anytime during takeoff if both thrust levers are retarded to idle
85 knots
382
When does the autobrake application begin after landing?
After the wheels have spun up and the reverse thrust levers are pulled
After the wheels have spun up and the left main gear strut is compressed
After wheels have spun up
After both thrust levers are retard to idle and the wheels have spun up
After both thrust levers are retard to idle and the wheels have spun up
383
When are brake applied after landing with AUTOBRAKE 3?
Immediately after thrust levers are at idle
After wheel spin up below 85kts
Reverse thrust selected, after wheel spin up and 2000ft runway remaining
After landing, thrust levers idle and after wheel spin up
After landing, thrust levers idle and after wheel spin up
384
Which AUTO BRAKE selector setting will you see immediately after takeoff?
MAX AUTO
DISARM
OFF
RTO
OFF
385
Which AUTOBRAKE mode provides the highest deceleration rate for landing?
AUTOBRAKE 1
AUTOBRAKE MAX AUTO
AUTOBRAKE 4
AUTOBRAKE
AUTOBRAKE MAX AUTO
386
What is the highest AUTOBRAKE setting with a time delay?
1
2
3
4
MAX AUTO
2
387
Which controls disengage the AUTOBRAKE?
Rudder pedals
Control column
Autobrake selector
Parking brake lever
Rudder pedals
Autobrake selector
(as well as speedbrake stowed, and advancing a thrust lever above idle)
388
If UP surrounded by a white box on EICAS GEAR INDICATION, what is true?
Landing hear are down and locked
Landing gear in transit
GEAR UP displayed for 10 seconds then blanked
Landing gear display remains until gear extended
GEAR UP displayed for 10 seconds then blanked
(Crosshatched while in transit, and blank with for inop position indicators)
389
How do you know the parking brake is set?
The EICAS message PARKING BRAKE SET is displayed
Normal and alternate brake pressure are available
The parking brake lever is in the up position
The BRAKE SOURCE light is extinguished
The EICAS message PARKING BRAKE SET is displayed
390
What can you say about the parking brake if the PARKING BRAKE SET message is not displayed?
It is set because the APU RUNNING message is displayed
It is not set
It cannot be set because the brake accumulator pressure is 1500psi
The APU RUNNING message will hide the PARKING BRAKE SET message
It is not set
391
Which indications show that the PARKING BRAKE can be set?
BRAKE SOURCE light lit, pressure gauge 3000 PSI
BRAKE SOURCE light lit, pressure gauge 2500 PSI
BRAKE SOURCE light lit, pressure gauge 0 PSI
BRAKE SOURCE light NOT lit, pressure gauge 3000 PSI
BRAKE SOURCE light NOT lit, pressure gauge 3000 PSI
392
What does the CONFIG WARNING SYS EICAS indicate if displayed in-flight?
Takeoff config warning system AND master warning lights inop Landing config warning system AND master caution lights inop
Takeoff and landing config warning systems, master warning lights, master caution lights and warning loudspeakers inop
Landing config warning system is inop OR 1 or both master warning lights OR 1 or both warning loudspeakers inop
Landing config warning system is inop OR 1 or both master warning lights OR 1 or both warning loudspeakers inop
Systems and Expanded QRH pg 136. NO other Ref for warning lights and warning loud speakers (If displayed prior to departure, it means takeoff config warning system inop or the same as above)
393
Which statement is FALSE about Alert Messages?
● PRINTER (white) message on EICAS is LOW LEVEL COMMUNICATION
Alert message BARO SET DISAGREE on EICAS (Amber) is an ADVISORY LEVEL Alert message
[ ] HYD PRESS SYS C (Amber) on EICAS is a CAUTION LEVEL Alert message
● FMC (white. not indented) on EICAS is MEDIUM LEVEL COMMUNICATION alert message
All of them.
All of them.
394
Which alerts can be displayed on the PFD?
ENG FAIL, PULL UP, AIRSPEED LOW
WINDSHEAR, ENG FAIL, TRAFFIC
GO AROUND, TERRAIN, WINDSHEAR
WINDSHEAR, ENG FAIL, PULL UP
WINDSHEAR, ENG FAIL, PULL UP
395
The GPWS provides various warning, caution and advisory level alerts below which altitude?
2450 feet baro altitude
1500 feet RA
10,000 feet baro altitude
2450 feet RA
2450 feet RA
396
How is a WINDSHEAR time critical warning alert cancelled?
By resetting the master warning system
By flying out of the windshear conditions
By pushing the GND PROX switch
By flying out of the windshear conditions
397
When is a WINDSHEAR time critical warning alert cancelled?
After pushing the GND PROX switch
After resetting the Master Warning system
When windshear conditions no longer exist
When windshear conditions no longer exist
398
What does STALL WARNING consist of?
Stick shaker followed by a stall warning horn
Stick shaker but NO stall warning horn
EICAS message 'STALL'
Stall warning horn
Stick shaker but NO stall warning horn
399
What does stall warning consist of?
Initial buffet, stick shaker and stall warning horn
Autothrottle 'wake up' function
Initial buffet and stick shaker
Pitch envelope protection
Initial buffet and stick shaker
400
What precaution should be taken if a TAIL STRIKE occurs during takeoff?
Pressurise the airplane to a lower cabin altitude
No special precautions are necessary
Airplane should not be pressurised
Airplane should not be pressurised
401
What are types of TCAS traffic alerts?
None, Approximate, Traffic Resolution, Other Advisory
Other Advisory, Proximate Traffic, Traffic Advisory, Traffic Resolution
Other, Proximate, Traffic Advisory, Resolution Advisory
TA/RA, TA ONLY, Proximate, Other
Other, Proximate, Traffic Advisory, Resolution Advisory
402
A filled square TCAS alert indicates?
Other Traffic
Proximate Traffic
TA
RA
RA
403
A filled white diamond TCAS alert indicates?
Other Traffic
Proximate Traffic
TA
RA
Proximate Traffic
404
What is the status of the below TCAS indication?
(PICTURE)
TCAS traffic advisory, range 5.0 Nm, traffic is 500 feet above the aircraft and descending
TCAS resolution advisory, range unknown, traffic is at 5,000 feet radio altitude and descending with 500 feet/minute
TCAS resolution advisory, range 5.0 Nm, traffic is 500 feet above the aircraft and descending with more than 500 feet/minute
TCAS resolution advisory, range and bearing unknown, traffic is at 5,000 feet QNH and descending with 500 feet/minute
TCAS resolution advisory, range 5.0 Nm, traffic is 500 feet above the aircraft and descending with more than 500 feet/minute
405
What does TCAS RA F/O EICAS advisory message indicate?
TCAS is incapable of displaying RA vertical guidance on the captains PFD
TCAS is incapable of displaying RA traffic symbols on the F/O’s ND
TCAS is incapable of displaying RA traffic symbols on the captain’s ND
TCAS is incapable of displaying RA vertical guidance on the F/O’s PFD
TCAS is incapable of displaying RA vertical guidance on the F/O’s PFD
406
What is the meaning of the EICAS advisory message TCAS RA CAPTAIN ?
TCAS is NOT able to display RA guidance on the F/O's PFD
The Captain's ND traffic displays and voice alerts are not available
TCAS is NOT able to display RA guidance on the Captain's PFD
TCAS is NOT able to display RA guidance on the Captain's PFD
407
Which statement is true about TCAS traffic alerts?
RA predicts a conflict in approximately 40 to 50 seconds
The TA symbol is a filled white diamond
There are four types of traffic alerts: Offscale, Proximate, TA and RA
GPWS immediate windshear alert inhibits all TCAS alerts
GPWS immediate windshear alert inhibits all TCAS
408
What is the purpose of airplane system STATUS message?
To alert the crew of impending system malfunctions
To provide crew awareness of system faults that may affect airplane dispatch
To inform the crew that a malfunction is about to occur
STATUS messages are used by maintenance personnel only
To provide crew awareness of system faults that may affect airplane dispatch
409
What is the level of urgency for a time critical warning?
A time critical warning requires immediate crew awareness and may require that crew action be performed in a timely manner
A time critical warning is a crew reminder of the current state of manually or automatically configured airplane systems
A time critical warning requires crew awareness and may require that crew action be accomplished “as time permits”
A time critical warning requires immediate crew awareness and an immediate response and is usually associated with flight path control
A time critical warning requires immediate crew awareness and an immediate response and is usually associated with flight path control
410
How long will a WINDSHEAR time critical warning remain active?
Until wind shear conditions are no longer detected
Until the master warning light reset switch is pushed
Until the GND PROX G/S caution light is pushed
Until the landing gear is retracted
Until wind shear conditions are no longer detected
411
What is indicated by an Amber OFFSCALE message on ND?
TCAS has failed
ATC transponder is off
TCAS has detected a potential traffic threat that is beyond the current selected display range of the ND
TCAS cannot display vertical guidance symbols on the ND
TCAS has detected a potential traffic threat that is beyond the current selected display range of the ND
412
All TCAS alerts are inhibited by:
Windshear alerts
EICAS caution message
System STATUS messages
EICAS warning messages
Windshear alerts
413
What is recommended pitch when responding to TCAS RA?
No more than 10 Nose up
Along the Red line of RA trapezium
Anywhere inside the RA trapezium
Anywhere outside the RA trapezium
Anywhere outside the RA trapezium
414
If you have a time critical GPWS warning (PULL UP, or WINDSHEAR on PFD), TCAS resolution advisories:?
Override the GPWS alert
Occur at the same time
Are inhibited during GPWS alert
Are not affected
Are inhibited during GPWS alert
