CO545 Final Flashcards
(220 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following is an advantage of alternative tests?
A
They are suitable for use with populations with disabilities.
2
Q
Alternative individual ability tests
A
are often not as reliant on a verbal response as are the Binet and Wechsler scales.
3
Q
One way to overcome the limitations of a particular alternative ability tests is to
A
use several such tests in conjunction.
4
Q
In comparison to the Binet and Wechsler Scales, alternative forms
A
are not as psychometrically sound.
5
Q
In comparison to the Binet and Wechsler scales, the alternative individual ability tests
A
can be used for specific populations.
6
Q
Alternative individual intelligence tests
A
find their major advantage when used for their own unique purposes.
7
Q
An IQ score based on one of the alternative tests
A
should generally not be used interchangeably with a score from one of the major scales.
8
Q
Which of the following is true of ability tests other than the Binet and Wechsler tests?
A
While some focus on a wide range of abilities, most focus on a narrow range.
9
Q
Which ability test preceded the development of the Binet scale?
A
Sequin Form Board Test
10
Q
A heavy emphasis was placed on speed in performance of the
A
Sequin Form Board Test
11
Q
The Brazelton Scale
A
lacks predictive validity.
12
Q
Of the infant and preschool tests, the youngest age range is covered by
A
The Brazelton Neonatal Assessment Scale.
13
Q
No normative data is available for the
A
Brazelton Neonatal Assessment Scale.
14
Q
A major drawback of the Brazelton Scale is that
A
no norms are available.
15
Q
Test-retest reliability coefficients for the Brazelton Scale
A
are both poor and unstable,
16
Q
The Brazelton Scale
A
purports to measure a newborn’s competence.
17
Q
Normative data for the Gesell Scale
A
was not representative of the population.
18
Q
The Developmental Quotient (DQ) is employed in the
A
Gesell Developmental Schedules
19
Q
The developmental quotient (DQ)
A
parallels the Mental Age (MA) concept.
20
Q
After years of extensive use, the Gesell scale
A
still has a number of problems.
21
Q
An individual test
A
provides information about the unique attributes of the examinee.
22
Q
In general, a paper and pencil test is representative of
A
group tests.
23
Q
When utilizing the results of group tests, it is wise to
A
include the scores as only a part of the data.
24
Q
Which of the following is an advantage of individually-administered tests?
A
They allow individualized interpretation.
25
In general, group tests
are psychometrically sound.
26
One of the advantages of group tests is (are)
that they minimize the amount of professional time.
27
Scoring of group tests is ____ objective and ____ reliable than scoring of many individual tests.
more; more
28
Which of the following is an advantage of group tests?
They require minimal examiner skill to administer and score.
29
What should an educator or teacher do when wide discrepancies exist between a test score and other sources of data?
Refer the subject for individual testing.
30
Which of the following is important to remember when using group tests?
Discrepancies in scores between group tests and other measures should be investigated.
31
Validity of an aptitude test relies heavily on ____ oriented evidence.
criterion
32
A final examination in a school course is a type of ___ test.
achievement
33
Achievement tests
evaluate the product of a course of training.
34
Which of the followings is an example of a K-12 group test?
KAT
35
Which of the following is characteristic of aptitude tests?
Aptitude tests measure the effects of unknown and uncontrolled experiences.
36
Which test added alternate forms for children with visual limitations when it was renormed in 2000?
Stanford Achievement Test
37
Which of the following is a characteristic of the Kulmann-Anderson Test?
While most achievement tests rely increasingly on verbal items with increasing grade level, the KAT remains nonverbal throughout.
38
Which of the following is true of the Henmon-Nelson test?
It has a low ceiling and does not discriminate well at high levels of intelligence.
39
To measure an individual's potential in music, you would use a(n) ____ test.
aptitude
40
Which of the following types of tests typically predicts general ability?
intelligence
41
Personality is defined as an individual's patterns of behavior that
are relatively stable and enduring and characterize a person's reactions to the environment.
42
All of his life, whenever Thomas met new groups of people he felt timid and shy and tended to retreat to the edge of the crowd until he was better acquainted. Thomas' behavior is best described as a personality ____.
trait
43
Mrs. Bauer is normally a very happy person, but she recently learned her son had a chronic illness and has been somewhat gloomy and pessimistic. This behavior is typical of a personality ___
state
44
An organized and relatively consistent set of assumptions that a person has about himself/herself is called a(n)
self-concept
45
At the broadest level, strategies for the development of personality tests can be divided into what two types?
deductive and empirical
46
The principal distinguishing characteristic of the logical-content strategy is that it assumes that the
test item describes a subject's personality and behavior.
47
The theoretical strategy attempts to produce scales that are
homogeneous.
48
Which strategy relies on reason and logic as opposed to data collection and statistical analysis?
deductive
49
Which strategy is likely to use item analysis in order to create a homogeneous scale?
theoritical
50
Which strategy makes extensive use of cross-validation?
criterion-group
51
The two empirical strategies of test construction are the
criterion group and factor analytic.
52
The two deductive strategies of test construction are the
logical-content and theoretical.
53
The criterion group strategy is also called the
empirical strategy.
54
Which approach relies on reasoning and deductive logic?
logical-content strategy
55
Which approach examines common variance?
factor analytic strategy
56
The theoretical approach to test construction is a(n)
deductive strategy
57
The first personality inventory was called the
Woodworth Personal Data Sheet
58
What test was, in effect, a paper-pencil psychiatric interview?
Woodworth Personal Data Sheet
59
An example of an early multidimensional logical-content scale is the
Bell Adjustment Inventory.
60
The Mooney Problem Checklist relies on which approach to test construction?
logical content
61
The most controversial and misunderstood psychological tests are
projective personality tests.
62
Who first introduced the Rorschach to the United States?
David Levy
63
The Barnum effect is found when
statements that fits most of the case inflates validity.
64
Which individual played a major role in the use and investigation of Rorschach?
Klopfer
65
Which of the following is true of the Rorschach?
It was treated with suspicion from the beginning.
66
The determinant types of the Rorschach are
form, movement, color, and shading.
67
Qualitative interpretation of the Rorschach is useful in
differentiating between normal and disordered conditions.
68
Early demonstrations of the Rorschach included validation by
performance of individuals who analyzed the responses of individuals they had never met, making a diagnosis, and validating the diagnosis against other data sources
69
What are the content types of Rorschach?
human, animal, and nature
70
Exner's 2007 revision of the Rorschach
included new non-patient norms
71
Use of the Kuder-Richardson formula
increases estimates of reliability.
72
Adding information from the Rorschach to information from other sources does not improve diagnostic accuracy and may even decrease it. This indicates the lack of
incremental validity
73
The first phase of Rorschach administration is called
free association
74
The two phases of Rorschach administration are called
free association and determinant.
75
The relative proportion of W, D, and Dd location choices varies as a function of
maturation
76
The Dd response refers to
an unusual detail.
77
Which of the following is not a scoring category of the Rorschach?
inquiry
78
The DW response on the Rorschach is a(n)
confabulatory response
79
Form quality is a scoring dimension that refers to
the extent to which the response matched the stimulus qualities of the inkblot.
80
The characteristic of an inkblot that leads a subject to see a particular form is called
the determinant.
81
All of the cognitive-behavioral assessment procedures
are more direct than traditional psychological tests.
82
Which type of therapy is based on principles of learning?
behavior modification
83
Tests based on behavior modification and used as an alternative to traditional tests are known as
cognitive-behavioral assessments
84
Cognitive-behavioral assessments focus on ____ as the main problem in a disorder.
the behavior.,
85
Dr. Moore was convinced he would not be able to help his client control his compulsive overeating, unless he discovered the reason behind the behavior. Therefore, the tests he used were intended to examine these underlying causes. Dr. Moore was following the
medical model.
86
Joey's parents went to a therapist to help them overcome Joey's fear of going to school. Before she helped them create a reward system for each time their son went to school without crying, the therapist first determined the severity and frequency of the behavior. The therapist was
establishing a baseline.
87
A behavioral assessment that involves evaluating the current frequency of a behavior, designing a treatment intervention using reinforcement, and the evaluating the effect of the treatment relative to a baseline, is based on
operant conditioning
88
The major distinction between cognitive-behavioral and traditional self-report procedures is that
cognitive-behavioral assessment has concentrated on the phenomenon of fear.
89
Which of the following models assumes that overt manifestations of psychopathology are only symptoms of an underlying problem?
the medical model
90
When traditional and cognitive-behavioral procedures are compared,
cognitive-behavioral procedures are more related to treatment.
91
Cognitive-behavioral and traditional procedures differ in that
cognitive-behavioral procedures are more direct and remain closer to observable behaviors.
92
The evaluation of the frequency, intensity, and duration of a behavior is known as
establishing a baseline.
93
The first step in a cognitive-behavioral assessment is to
identify critical behaviors.
94
Which procedure is designed to minimize the effect that the presence of an observer has on the behavior that is being observed?
self-report
95
Ken is having trouble at work because his boss takes advantage of him and gives him twice as much work as anyone else. Ken has trouble saying no to his boss but then gets very angry because of all the work he has to do. Ken's therapist is likely to use the ____ in order to assess Ken's behavior in this particular situation.
Assertive Behavior Survey Schedule
96
Cognitive-behavioral self-reports are best used in conjunction with other sources of information because
little psychometric data is available for any of them.
97
Pat is constantly cleaning and re-cleaning the house and cannot seem to stop doing so. Pat's behavior is beginning to interfere in other areas of life and cause others, as well as Pat, great concern and distress. Pat's behavior would described as a(n)
behavioral excess.
98
Organized cognitive frameworks that help organize experiences, interpret new experiences, and make predictions about what is likely to happen in the future are called
schemas
99
Which of the following problems are inappropriate for operant techniques?
general dissatisfaction with life
100
Cognitive-behavioral self=report techniques
attempt to deal with the problems in obtaining observational data
101
The first interest inventory was the
Carnegie Interest Inventory
102
The 1966 version of SVIB used standard scores with a mean of ____ and a standard deviation of ___.
50;10
103
The criterion-group approach to test construction
matches a test-taker's responses to those of a defined group.
104
Studies by Strong on occupational interest demonstrated that
occupational interests remain relatively stable after students have left school.
105
Studies that examined the stability of interest patterns indicated that
interest patterns were established by about age 17.
106
The SCII improved on the SVIB by
reducing gender bias in the scales.
107
According to Holland's six personality factors, an individual that enjoys self-expression and being dramatic would fall on the ___ factor.
artistic
108
David is very active politically and generally likes to be the leader of any group he joins. According to Holland's six personality factors, David is likely to fall on the ___ factor.
enterprising
109
Sonya builds computers for a living and enjoys camping and hiking on the weekends. Holland's theory would identify Sonya as
realistic.
110
Suppose you scored very high on the Dentist Scale of the SCII. This would suggest that
your interests are similar to those of people who say they are happy working as dentists.
111
A major criticism of the Strong Vocational Interest Blank was
sex bias.
112
Which of the following statements is true?
Scores on both the Kuder and the SCII remain stable over the course of time.
113
Next to the Strong-Campbell, the second most widely interest inventory is the
Kuder Occupational Interest Survey
114
One notable difference between CISS and the KOIS is that
KOIS has separate norms for males and females.
115
The report that is generated for the KOIS presents ___ in the first section.
dependability of the results
116
Examinations of the psychometric properties of the KOIS indiccate
good reliability and predictive validity measures.
117
The expectation that a person has about their ability to perform the tasks associated with a particular occupation is known as
self-efficacy
118
Influencing, Helping, and Creating are three of the seven orientation scales that are part of the
Campbell Interest and Skill Inventory
119
One difference between KOIS and SCII in item format is that
the KOIS presents the test-taker with triads of (set of 3) alternative activities.
120
Which of the following tests may help college students choose a major?
Kuder Occupational Interest Survey
121
The scientific discipline that examines psychological impairments of the central nervous system, and therapeutic or educational techniques designed to bring about improvement, is known as ____.
clinical neuropsychology
122
Dr. Jackson, a psychologist, works in a rehavilitation facility that handles patients with injury or disease of teh brain and/or spinal cord. His job is to identify and describe the dysfunction that is present, to use statistical procedures to quantify that dysfunction, and to design an appropriate treatment plan for the patient. It is likely that Dr. Jackson is a specialist in
clinical neuropsychology
123
Clinical neuropsychology and ____ both focus on sensations and perceptions and on motor movements.
neurology
124
Clinical neuropsychology is multidisclipinary and overlaps with field of
psychiatry, neurology, and psychometric testing.
125
The roots of neuropsychology can be traced to the 19th century work of
Broca and Wernicke
126
Most of the work in neuropsychology is directed toward the assessment of
brain dysfunction
127
After suffering from a stroke, Louise has problems dressing and seems to have trouble telling her right from her left. She also has trouble reading because she cannot seem to recognize written words. It is quite likely that the damage from the stroke
affected the left hemisphere of her brain.
128
An individual with difficulty writing, impaired visual perception, and paralysis of a limb that they deny is paralyzed, might be suspected of having damage to which brain hemisphere?
right hemisphere
129
Wernicke's aphasia involves damage to the
superior temporal gyrus
130
Brain damage that effects information-process skills involved in the retrieval of information is likely to be located in the
frontal lobes.
131
Wernicke's aphasia is characterized by
impaired verbal comprehension
132
The factor proposed by Mirsky related to a child's ability to scan information and respond in a meaningful way is called
focus execute.
133
Your textbook presents the case of a patient who exhibited deterioration in performance on the Draw-a-Clock task, which was administered three times from 1996 to 1999. The pattern of the patient's performance indicated that
parietal lobe functioning had deterioriated.
134
The Trail Making Tests evaluates several cognitive skills, including
attention, sequencing, and thought processing.
135
Mirsky and colleagues have identified four different factors of mental processing and related them to specific anatomical regions in the brain. These four factors are
focus execute, sustain, encode, and shift
136
Dyslexia
is characterized by difficulty decoding single words.
137
Neuropsychological evaluations and ____ analysis have been used in order to identify malingering in patients who had previously had brain damage.
discriminate function
138
The concussion resolution index
can assess neuropsychological problems when other reports are normal.
139
The concussion resolution index
can assess neuropsychological problems when other reports are normal.
140
One of the major disadvantages of the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery is that the battery
requires 8 to 12 hours to administer.
141
In practice, employment interviews involve a search for
negative information.
142
The difference between I/O psychology and human resource management is that
I/O psychology emphasizes quantitative methods.
143
___ psychology is the study and practice of job analysis, job recruitment, employee selection, and the evaluation of employee, while ____ psychology is the study and practice of leadership, job satisfaction, and employee motivation.
personnel; organizational
144
In structured interviews, candidates who work hard at impression management
receive higher ratings.
145
When there has been one unfavorable impression in an interview, ___ of the interviewees are rejected; when there have been only positive impressions, ___ are rejected.
90%; 25%
146
When women apply for an entry-level management position, wear perfume, and convey friendliness through nonverbal behaviors.
they are negatively viewed, perhaps because they seem manipulative.
147
Researchers who have reviewed the literature on employment interviews almost unanimously recommend
the use of structured interview.
148
What kind of score is used when a decision is dichtomous?
cutting
149
When a false negative rate is high, test makers may
lower the cutoff.
150
When the cost of false positives is high, test makers may
raise the cutting score.
151
Which of the following is a problem with tests that purport to measure and predict antisocial behavior by measuring childhood aggression?
They have high false positive rates.
152
Which of the following is needed for Tayler-Russell tables?
a definition of success
153
Which of the following is true of decision and utility theory?
It requires information that is difficult to estimate.
154
Which type of employment interview has the lowest validity?
psychologically-based
155
In order for a test to be considered useful, it must provide more information than would be known by
making a decision without a test.
156
A cutting score is
a decision point.
157
The percent of cases in which a test accurately predicts success or failure is known as the
hit rate.
158
A base rate is
the proportion of people with a defined condition in the general population.
159
If an applicant is selected on the basis of test performance, but fails on the job, the situation is best described as
false positive.
160
On the basis of a psychological test, an individual is identified as schizophrenic. An interview reveals schizophrenic thinking and a history of psychiatric hospitalization. This case best illustrates a
hit.
161
Much of the controversy regarding testing has centered on the finding that on average, the IQ scores of African Americans are
one standard deviation below the scores of white Americans.
162
The highest scores on the SAT Reasoning Test math section are obtained by
Asian Americans.
163
The finding that intelligence scores have changed significantly over time for some groups lends support to the argument that
intelligence is not completely determined by genetics.
164
A test has adverse impact if it
systematically rejects higher proportions of minority than non-minority individuals.
165
The real dispute about racial differences in intelligence test results is
why the differences exist.
166
Which of the following makes it difficult to interpret racial differences in test performance?
Increasing numbers of individuals will not report their race when asked.
167
The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission was created by
Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act
168
If an employer declined applicants from specific minorities based on a psychological test results, that illustrates
adverse impact.
169
The 1978 Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures provides
guidelines for the use of psychological tests in education and industry.
170
Under current guidelines, what must an employer do if a selection procedure has adverse impact?
Demonstrate the procedure's validity in making the inferences the employer wants to make.
171
Flaughter (1978) contends that arguments about test bias were based on misunderstandings because test developers
focus on overall test performance and how it correlates with an external criteria.
172
___ attempts to identify items that are specifically biased against specific groups.
Differential item functioning analysis
173
Which of the following is true of job performance measures in relation to race?
The differences between African Americans and whites are greater for objective than subjective measures.
174
Which of the following is true of biased test items?
Elimination of biased items does not eliminate test score differences.
175
Examination of tests such as the WAIS and WISC-R have found that white males are more often depicted in test items than other groups. What has research shown about such differences?
No one has established that these differences affect test performance.
176
In one study on content bias in elementary reading tests, groups of experts were able to inspect the test and eliminate items that were potentially biased toward the majority group. How did this affect the differences between scores obtained by groups of majority and minority students?
It had little or no effect.
177
A clear case of test bias is when regression lines describing the relationship between test and criterion for two different groups
have different slopes.
178
The type of analysis that starts by finding equivalent subgroups of various test takers then comparing their performance on specific test questions is known as
differential item functioning analysis
179
The most clear-cut case of test bias is shown when the regression lines for two groups have ___ slopes and ___ intercepts.
different; different
180
Meagan grew up in a small rural town where she was a top student in her school. She was active in the Agricultural Club, but had not had an opportunity to travel, or attend plays, operas, and formal dinners. She did not score well on an intelligence test that asked questions about these types of events. Her low score reflects
a violation of content validity.
181
The amendment the guarantees all citizens due process and equal protection under the law is the ____ amendment.
14th
182
Rules that are written by a legislative body at any governmental level are known as
statutes
183
Before a statute becomes a law, it is known as a
bill
184
In accordance with the US Constitution, individual states
cannot pass a law that is inconsistent with the Constitution.
185
ABC Company has received 150 job applicants for a job opening: 100 white applicants, 25 Mexican Americans, 25 African Americans. They hired 60 of the white applicants. How many of the other two groups do they have to hire in order to abide by the four-fifths rule?
12 from each.
186
The EEOC requires organizations with more than ___ employees to complete an annual form that specifies the number of women and members of four minority groups who are employed in nine job categories within that organization/
100
187
Decisions forbidding the placement of black children in EMR classes on the basis of standardized test scores are typically made by
the judicial system.
188
Before proposed statutes become law, they are called
bills
189
The 14th Amendment guarantees all citizens
due process and equal protection under the law.
190
The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)
evolved from the Civil Rights Act of 1964.
191
One of the effects of the 1991 Civil Rights Act was that the burden of proof regarding psychological tests was placed on the
employer.
192
The New York Truth in Testing Law was the result of an investigation of the
ETS
193
Section 9 of the 1991 Civil Rights Act
specifically prohibits discriminatory use of test scores.
194
The Easy Buy corporation uses a test of interpersonal skills to select employees. Experience indicates that 70% of women who score about a cutting score will be hired. Under the four-fifths rule, what percentage of men must be selected?
56%
195
Which of the following is a key component of No Child Left Behind?
Tests of student progress are used to assess student progress and hold schools accountable.
196
The organization most responsible for getting the Educational Testing Service to revise some of their policies was the
NYPIRG.
197
In 1996, California passed ____, a measure that made the preferential treatment based on demographic characteristics illegal.
Proposition 209
198
One of the most interesting issues with the four-fifths rule is that
efforts to recruit minority group members reduce the percentage hired from that group.
199
According to the EEOC guidelines for criterion validity in statistical relationship,
no more than one in twenty relationships between selection procedure scores and criterion measures should happen by chance.
200
In general, NCLB
did not have strong evidence that educational level was improved.
201
Two major professional issues in testing are
theoretical concerns and the adequacy of the tests.
202
When we say a test has reliability,
we are implying that test results are attributable to a systematic source of variance.
203
More existing tests are presumed to measure
a stable entity.
204
A theory consistent with the data concerning the reliability of tests would propose that
humans possess an ability to adapt to changing circumstances.
205
According to your text, the real issue in testing is
how tests are used.
206
Studies have indicated that the temporal stability of tests is
in need of improvement, even for the best tests.
207
The model by Cacioppo, Berntson, and Anderson (1991) indicates
a distinct effect on behavior by the social environment.
208
Behavioral dispositions are
stable and lasting traits.
209
The authors of your textbook have suggested that one reason for the relatively poor long-term reliability of personality tests is because
although people exhibit a core of stability, they continually change.
210
Sawyer (1966) and Sines (1970) examined studies in which test results were interpreted by a set of rules and compared them to studies in which trained professionals interpreting the test results. They found that
the set of rules was more accurate than the trained professionals.
211
Studies on actuarial vs. clinical prediction by Meehl, Sawyer, and Sines have indicated that a set of rules is
more accurate than the interpretations of trained professional practitioners even when they know the rules.
212
Which of the following issues is classified by your text as theoretical concern?
Whether the systematic sources of variance measured by the test arise from the person or the setting
213
Which of the following is true about how tests are used?
In the end, it may be determined by law and the threat of litigation.
214
Under what circumstances have clinicians been found to provide better prediction than actuarial data?
When clinicians consider additional sources of data such as test batteries, interviews, or test histories.
215
A 2011 survey of independent practitioners about their use of technology found that
they were unsure about what uses a computer technology were ethical and which were unethical.
216
Under what circumstance is informed consent not required for testing?
When the testing is ordered by the courts.
217
Which of the following is of particular concern when computers are used to score and interpret the results of complex psychological tests?
dehumanization
218
Which of the following is true of test security?
Test security cannot be predicted at the expense of an individual's right to know the basis of adverse decisions.
219
Which of the following is a responsibility of potential test takers?
Knowing and demanding their rights
220
Which of the following did Dahlstrom note about invasion of privacy?
Individuals must cooperate in order to be tested, and can refuse to be tested if they do not like the situation.
