COA (Non multiple choice) Flashcards

(300 cards)

1
Q

Why is it important to specifically ask a patient about the medications they are taking?

History Taking 5%

A

Because certain medications may affect the eyes and can they can also clue you into what medical conditions they have and did not mention.

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2
Q

Name the eight components of the ophthalmic history

History Taking 5%

A

1) Chief complaint
2) History of present illness
3) Past ocular history
4) Medications (ocular and systemic)
5) General medical & surgical history
6) Drug allergies
7) Social history
8) Family history

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3
Q

What is the proper response to a patient’s request from the ophthalmic technician for medical advice or a diagnosis?

History Taking 5%

A

Refer the patient to the ophthalmologist

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4
Q

What is the term used for the main reason for the patient’s visit?

History Taking 5%

A

Chief complaint

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5
Q

What elements are documented in social history taking?

History Taking 5%

A

Smoking, alcohol, drug use, occupation, and hobbies

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6
Q

Prior use of topical ocular pharmaceutical agents that have failed is documented in what part of the history?

History Taking 5%

A

Past ocular history

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7
Q

Pertinent family history of a patient should include which relatives?

History Taking 5%

A

Parents, grandparents, and genetic siblings

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8
Q

A patient describing an experience of getting hives after taking sulfa drugs is providing information that should be documented in what section of the history?

History Taking 5%

A

Drug allergies

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9
Q

How many components of the HPI must be present to be able to bill a level 4 E/M code?

This changed in 2021, but the test has not been updated since then!

History Taking 5%

A

4 (location, duration, quality, timing, severity, context, aggravating, or relieving factors)

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10
Q

This program determins Medicare payment adjustments based on performance of certain measures.

History Taking 5%

A

MIPS (Merit-based Incentive Payment System)

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11
Q

What is the name of the test used for detecting a relative afferent pupillary defect?

Pupil Assessment 3%

A

Swinging flashlight test

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12
Q

What is the term for the spasmodic, rhythmic dilating, and contracting pupillary movements during pupil function testing?

Pupil Assessment 3%

A

Hippus

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13
Q

Which muscle of the iris causes constriction in bright light?

Pupil Assessment 3%

A

Sphincter

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14
Q

What is the medical term for pupil dilation?

Pupil Assessment 3%

A

Mydriasis

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15
Q

What is the term used when there is a difference in pupil size?

Pupil Assessment 3%

A

Anisocoria

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16
Q

What is the name of the reflexive reaction that occurs when a light is directed into one pupil and the pupil of the opposite eye simultaneously reacts?

Pupil Assessment 3%

A

Consensual pupillary reaction

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17
Q

When cleaning the goniolens, what is used to rinse off the gel?

Equipment Maintenance and Repair 2%

A

Warm running water

Be sure to never submerge a goinolens (or any lens) in water/liquid.

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18
Q

Calibration of the applanation tonometer should be checked at least how often?

Equipment Maintenance and Repair 2%

A

Two months (or sooner with regular use)

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19
Q

When replacing a light bulb why is it important to not touch it?

Equipment Maintenance and Repair 2%

A

Oil from fingers can diminish its effectiveness and life.

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20
Q

The process of eliminating or reducing harmful microorganisms from objects and surfaces is called what?

Equipment Maintenance and Repair 2%

A

Disinfection

Sterilization is the process of killing all microorganisms

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21
Q

How should the removable glass slides inside the American Optical acuity projector be cleaned?

Equipment Maintenance and Repair 2%

A

Wipe with clean, soft, lint-free towel/cloth or lens tissue

Never use tissue or other cloths as they can scratch the slides.

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22
Q

If dust accumulates on the mirror of the slit lamp, the technician may clean it by using what cleaning methods?

Equipment Maintenance and Repair 2%

A

A lint-free cloth, lens brush, or canned air.

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23
Q

Who should repair and maintain equipment such as a laser?

Equipment Maintenance and Repair 2%

A

A qualified service technician

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24
Q

Which accessories are used to check the calibration of an ophthalmometer/keratometer?

Equipment Maintenance and Repair 2%

A

Three test spheres made of steel, also called “Lensco Meter”

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25
What should be used to clean the accessible lenses of a phoropter? ## Footnote Equipment Maintenance and Repair 2%
Photographic lens cleaner and lens tissue or a lens cloth
26
What size letters (optotypes) are typically used to calibrate visual acuity projectors? ## Footnote Equipment Maintenance and Repair 2%
20/200
27
When recording prism in a spectacle Rx, what does the abbreviation BO stand for? ## Footnote Lensometry 3%
Base out | B=Base; O=Out; I=In; U=Up; D=Down BO, BI, BU, BD
28
What is the instrument used to neutralize lenses? ## Footnote Lensometry 3%
Lensometer (Lensmeter)
29
What is determined by focusing the thin lines in a manual lensometer? ## Footnote Lensometry 3%
The sphere of the spectacle Rx is determined by the thin lines. | Sometimes this can also be referred to as a "single line".
30
What is the first step in performing lensometry? ## Footnote Lensometry 3%
Focus the eyepiece | THIS IS ALWAYS THE FIRST STEP WHEN ASKED ABOUT EQUIPMENT!!! ## Footnote Look at the reticle (bullseye) when focusing!
31
Typically, if you cannot center the thick and thin lines in the lensometer, the lens has what? ## Footnote Lensometry 3%
Ground-in prism | Most times there is induced prism in progressives, but it is equal OU.
32
Each black ring seen in the lensometer eyepiece reticle measures how much prism? ## Footnote Lensometry 3%
1 diopter for each ring
33
When performing lensometry, what is indicated if both thin and wide lines are in focus at the same time? ## Footnote Lensometry 3%
The lens is spherical
34
When reading glasses in a manual lensometer, you go from the skinny lines to the fat lines by turning the power dial towards you, are you reading the glasses in minus or plus cylinder? ## Footnote Lensometry 3%
Plus | Turning the dial away from you to go from skinny to fat would be minus.
35
If you find that you are reading the glasses in the incorrect cylinder form, what would you do to get into the correct cylinder form? ## Footnote Lensometry 3%
Change the axis by 90 degrees
36
Keratometry is performed with a device called what? ## Footnote Keratometry 2%
Keratometer or ophthalmometer
37
What is the technique used to measure the radius of curvature of the anterior corneal surface? ## Footnote Keratometry 2%
Keratometry | Topography can also be used.
38
Give three examples in which a keratometry measurement would be useful. ## Footnote Keratometry 2%
1. Contact lens fitting 2. Refractive surgery 3. Intraocular lens (IOL) calculations 4. Keratoconus 5. Irregular Astigmatism
39
The unit of measurement used in keratometry is what? ## Footnote Keratometry 2%
Diopters | millimeters (mm) can also be used
40
An unfocused eyepiece can lead to an error reading of approximately how much? ## Footnote Keratometry 2%
Up to 1 diopter
41
How many meridians are measured in keratometry? ## Footnote Keratometry 2%
2 meridians | Always 90 degrees apart or perpendicular!
42
The average K reading is about how many diopters? ## Footnote Keratometry 2%
43 to 44 diopters
43
The keratometer measures how much of the cornea? ## Footnote Keratometry 2%
The central 3 mm optic zone
44
True or false: The application and evaluation of a diagnosis lens on the eye is the best way to find a contact lens. ## Footnote Contact Lenses 2%
True
45
The diffusion of oxygen through a contact lens material is referred to as the what? ## Footnote Contact Lenses 2%
DK Value
46
Name the instrument used to determine the posterior surface radius of curvature of a rigid gas permeable (RGP) contact lens. ## Footnote Contact Lenses 2%
Radiuscope
47
Name three reasons to dispense a therapeutic bandage contact lens. ## Footnote Contact Lenses 2%
1. Protect cornea from eyelids and eyelashes 2. Promote corneal healing 3. Provide comfort 4. Stop wound leaks 5. Improve vision 6. For drug delivery
48
What two measurements are required to fit a contact lens? ## Footnote Contact Lenses 2%
Refraction and K-reading (keratometry)
49
Overwear of contact lenses may result in insufficient oxygen to the cornea, this is called what? ## Footnote Contact Lenses 2%
Hypoxia
50
What are Ethics? ## Footnote Medical Ethics, Legal, & Regulatory Issues 4%
Moral principles and values that govern individual behavior
51
What must ophthalmic medical assistants abide by? ## Footnote Medical Ethics, Legal, & Regulatory Issues 4%
The laws of the state in which their employer practices and under the services of a licensed ophthalmologist
52
Attempting to work independently of an ophthalmologist (providing a diagnosis or deciding on treatment) is considered this and is illegal. ## Footnote Medical Ethics, Legal, & Regulatory Issues 4%
Practicing medicine without a license
53
What should an ophthalmic practice have in place to meet legal compliance? ## Footnote Medical Ethics, Legal, & Regulatory Issues 4%
Policies and procedures, along with a compliance officer.
54
What is HIPAA? ## Footnote Medical Ethics, Legal, & Regulatory Issues 4%
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act | From 1996
55
What does HIPAA protect? ## Footnote Medical Ethics, Legal, & Regulatory Issues 4%
Patient privacy and the dissemination of specific patient information
56
What is CPT coding? ## Footnote Medical Ethics, Legal, & Regulatory Issues 4%
The application of numerical designation for medical diagnosis, procedures, and services
57
Complete the statement: "If it isn't documented..." ## Footnote Medical Ethics, Legal, & Regulatory Issues 4%
It didn't happen
58
What is ICD-10-CM? ## Footnote Medical Ethics, Legal, & Regulatory Issues 4%
International Classification of Diseases-10th revision-Clinical Modification
59
What important process is documented when the physician or physican delegate educates the patient on the risks, benefits, and alternatives of a surgical procedure and asks for the patient's understanding and participation in the decision making process? ## Footnote Medical Ethics, Legal, & Regulatory Issues 4%
Informed consent
60
True or False: A patient's medical record is considered a legal document? ## Footnote Medical Ethics, Legal, & Regulatory Issues 4%
True You can be legally held accountable for anything documented under your login, so keep it secure!
61
All patient should be treated with this, regardless of ethnicity, race, or economic class. ## Footnote Medical Ethics, Legal, & Regulatory Issues 4%
Dignity and respect
62
Four common causes of eye infections are what? ## Footnote Microbiology 3%
Bacterial, viral, fungal, and protozoa
63
Technicians may assist with collecting these, which are are used to identify what infectious organism is growing and allow the doctor to treat effectively. ## Footnote Microbiology 3%
Cultures
64
Contact lens wearers are more susceptible in contracting what parasitic organism, especially when swimming in fresh water (lakes/ponds) or using homemade contact lens solution? ## Footnote Microbiology 3%
Acanthamoeba
65
Universal precautions are mandated by OSHA but were develeoped by the what governement department? ## Footnote Microbiology 3%
U.S. Centers for Disease Control (CDC)
66
Washing hands between patients and wearing gloves are examples of this? ## Footnote Microbiology 3%
Universal Precaution
67
A fungal infection is most commonly transmitted by what type of material? ## Footnote Microbiology 3%
Organic material (plant material such as a stick, leaf, or thorn)
68
Systemic absorption and drainage of eye drops can be prevented by doing this? ## Footnote Pharmacology 3%
Punctal occlusion
69
What medications are used as topical anesthetics? ## Footnote Pharmacology 3%
Proparacaine or tetracaine
70
What is the color of the bottle cap of a prostaglandin? ## Footnote Pharmacology 3%
Teal
71
What are the classifications of the three large groups of anti-infective agents? ## Footnote Pharmacology 3%
Antibiotics, antivirals, & antifungals
72
What sysmptom sets an allergic reaction apart from a bacterial or viral infection? ## Footnote Pharmacology 3%
Itching
73
This class of drugs induce contraction (contriction) of the iris sphincter. ## Footnote Pharmacology 3%
Miotic
74
A cycloplegic drug will blur vision at near due to temporary loss of this. ## Footnote Pharmacology 3%
Accomodation
75
What are the three types of ophthalmic preparations used to deliver medication to the eye? ## Footnote Pharmacology 3%
Solutions, suspensions, ointments
76
What is the main disadvantage of using an ophthalmic solution vs and ointment? ## Footnote Pharmacology 3%
The duration of contact with the eye is short, therefore it requires frequent instillation.
77
What is the main disadvantage of using an ophthalmic ointment? ## Footnote Pharmacology 3%
The ointment reduces vision by creating a greasy film over the surface of the cornea, so it is best used at bedtime.
78
How do ophthalmic preparations absorb directly into the eye? ## Footnote Pharmacology 3%
Penetration of the cornea
79
What is benzalkonium chloride? ## Footnote Pharmacology 3%
A preservative commonly used in ophthalmic preparations. | Abbraviated as BAK and is highly susceptible to allergic reactions.
80
Name the organism most frequently found in ophthalmic preparations. ## Footnote Pharmacology 3%
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
81
Eye drops penetrate the eye directly through the _____ and into the anterior chamber ## Footnote Pharmacology 3%
Cornea
82
How should drops be properly instilled into a patient's eyes? ## Footnote Pharmacology 3%
Into the lower cul de sac (lower fornix) | Never drop driectly onto the cornea, it can cause a minor abrasion.
83
Drugs taken orally, by injection, or intravenously are considered these types of medications. ## Footnote Pharmacology 3%
Systemic Medications
84
What drug classification is contraindicated in patients with obstructive pulmonary disease or cardiovascular disease? ## Footnote Pharmacology 3%
Beta blockers
85
What can be side effects of long-term steroid drop use? ## Footnote Pharmacology 3%
Rise in intraocular pressure (IOP), cataracts, decreased wound healing, and decreased resistance to infection
86
What is the condition in which the eyes shift involuntary in a rhythmic beating motion? ## Footnote Ocular Motility 4%
Nystagmus
87
Nystagmus indicates a problem with the this organ and not the extraocular muscles. ## Footnote Ocular Motility 4%
Brain
88
What is stereopsis? ## Footnote Ocular Motility 4%
Three-dimensional visual perception based on images being received by each eye. | Someone with one functional eye can have depth perception, not stereo VA
89
What is the easiest objective test used to detect misalignments? ## Footnote Ocular Motility 4%
Hirschberg Light Reflex Test
90
What are the movements of both eyes from one gaze position to another? ## Footnote Ocular Motility 4%
Versions
91
What is the movement of one eye called? ## Footnote Ocular Motility 4%
Duction
92
When performing EOMs, the muscles are checked in how many different positions? ## Footnote Ocular Motility 4%
Six cardinal positions | There are six muscles in each eye!
93
The movement of the eye outward toward the temple is called what? ## Footnote Ocular Motility 4%
Abduction
94
When performing the cover-uncover test, we are checking for what type of deviation? ## Footnote Ocular Motility 4%
Tropia
95
What is the term for a latent or hidden deviation? ## Footnote Ocular Motility 4%
Phoria
96
An outward deviation of the eye(s) is called this? ## Footnote Ocular Motility 4%
Exodeviation
97
An inward deviation of the eye(s) is called this? ## Footnote Ocular Motility 4%
Esodeviation
98
What is the mnemonic device used to remember the innervation of the muscles? ## Footnote Ocular Motility 4%
SO4LR6 everything else is three. | If the muscle isn't the SO or the LR it's innervated by the 3rd nerve!
99
Surgical instruments most resistant to corrosion are made of what? ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 4%
Stainless Steel
100
What is the term for the range of procedures used in medical environments to prevent the spread of infectious microbes? ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 4%
Aseptic technique
101
True or False: When creating a sterile field the drapes are usually impermeable to moisture? ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 4%
True, this is to prevent contamination.
102
What is the most common local anesthetic injected for minor/in office procedures? ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 4%
Lidocaine
103
When PRK is being performed, time remaining in the procedure should be announced in increments of how many seconds? ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 4%
10 seconds
104
Name the organism that is most destructive to the eye because is it drug resistent and can lead to death. ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 4%
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
105
What procedure using an Argon Laser is used to destroy areas of ischemic retina? ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 4%
Panretinal photocoagulation or panretinal laser
106
This area of the eye is approximately 4 mm in width and used to enter the posterior segment of the eye for intravitreal injections or retina surgery. ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 4%
Pars Plana
107
Name the procedure that requires probes, a syringe, lacrimal needle (cannula), saline, and punctum dilators to be performed. ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 4%
Lacrimal probing and irrigation
108
Typically a minor procedure has this many days of a post-op period. ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 4%
10 days
109
What injection infiltrates the soft tissue of the globe to anesthetize, rather than the muscle cone itself? ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 4%
Peribulbar injection | When injected into the cone it is a retrobulbar injection.
110
When evaluating a patient for LASIK, this measurment is vital to ensure there is enough stromal tissue to perform the surgery. ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 4%
Pachymetry or corneal thickness (CCT)
111
What is the ideal position for a patient who feels faint? ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
Head lower than the heart | It is best to lay these patients back in the exam chair.
112
Where do you check pulse on an adult patient to assess the need for CPR/BLS? ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
Neck (carotid pulse)
113
What instructions would be given over the phone to a patient who had splashed a chemical into the eyes ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
Flush the eyes with water for 15-20 minutes and then report to the ophthalmologist's office or ED.
114
What type of patch should not be used on a patient with a lacerated globe? ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
A pressure patch
115
When long wait times occur in the office what is the ophthalmic medical assistant's responsibility? ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
To communicate with the patient and keep them informed in a sensitive manner
116
What can be used to immobilize an infant for an ophthalmic examination? ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
A papoose board
117
A patient calls and says they had an episode of sudden painless vision loss (completely black) in one eye. What emergency are they likely experiencing? ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
Ischemic Optic Neuropathy | They need to be seen today!
118
A patient calls in and says that they are experiencing redness and irritation around their lash line. What chronic inflammation of the eye lid margin are they likely experiencing? ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
Blepharitis | They can be given instructions over the phone and seen within 24 hours.
119
Why do protocols for pressure patching or shields require that the adhesive tape be firmly applied starting from the cheek up to the forehead? ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
So that the cheek can be raised helping keep the eye closed. | No patch is better than a poorly taped pressure patch!
120
What is the minimum thickness of safety lenses? ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
3.0 mm
121
What is the name of the important screening process used in emergencies to determine a patient's ocular needs? ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
Triage
122
A patient's spouse calls and says that the patient has several pain in one of their eyes, can't be in bright light, and vomitting. What emergency are they likely experiencing? ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
Acute angle-closure | They need to be seen emergently, come in right now!
123
What type of exam would be needed on a patient who does not allow anybody to touch them? ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
Exam Under Anesthesia (EUA)
124
Finish this statement: If it's not recorded... ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
Then it didn't happen (or exist)
125
The suffix -opia means this. ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
Eye
126
When a patient returns for a glasses check was are 4 things you should check before re-refracting. ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
1. The optical center 2. The glasses Rx 3. Seg height for progressives 4. The fit of the glasses on the patient's face | While optical does this at VEI, you should know all of these!
127
A patient come in and says that they want to have their lids lifted. What is the medical term for that procedure? ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
Blepharoplasty
128
What are the directions the doctor may have you explain to a patient who has a stye, but needs to try therapy before an I/D? ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
To do warm compresses and lid scrubs 4x/day, as well as using artifical tears.
129
The most common type of anesthesia used for cataract surgery is this. ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
Retrobulbar injection
130
Angle-closure glaucoma is most often prevented and treated with this laser. ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
Laser peripheral iridotomy (LPI)
131
How should you respond to a patient who asks you how do the dilation drops work or why you need 2 drops? ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
We use 2 different types of medicine because we have 2 muscles in our iris. One of the drops relaxes (paralyzes) one of the muscles, while the other drop stimulates the second muscle forcing it open. This allows for quick dilation so that the patient doesn't have to wait all day to dilate well enough for the doctor.
132
Why do we typically advise patients to only use ointment tears or medication at night? ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
Because the ointment can cause the vision to be blurry for a long length of time.
133
A patient is upset because the refraction you did, did not imporve their vision. How should you repond to the patient? ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
Assure them that you showed them every option that could make their vision better, and that the doctor would let them know if there was anything going on in the back of the eye.
134
When performing any test on a patient it is important to do this prior to performing the test. ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
Explain to the patient what they can expect and give them clear instructions as to what you will need them to do to get the test done.
135
Your doctor asks you to explain how to use the Amsler Grid to a patient. What would you tell them? ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
This grid should be check at least once a day. Put it in a location that you can easily see it and test yourself (bathroom mirror or refrigerator). Block each eye individually and look at the center dot. Notice if any of the lines are wavy, broken, missing, or different in any way. If any notices are made, please call us right away.
136
What are some of the insturctions you may have to give a post-op cataract surgery patient? ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
1. Don't drop your head below your waist 2. How to use their eye drops properly 3. Wear your patch at night while sleeping to prevent accidental injury 4. No rubbing of the eyes 5. No swimming in pools, hot tubs, lakes/ponds, rivers, or oceans 6. Call us with any redness, vision changes, swelling, or pain
137
A patient calls in and c/o of loss of vision. What are 2 important questions you should ask besides which eye? ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
Was it sudden or gradual? Was/Is there any pain?
138
What vision is the definition of "legal blindness"? ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
20/200 or worse best corrected with both eyes.
139
Which ocular condition is commonly associated with Sjogren's syndrome? ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
Dry eyes | Dry mouth is another finding in Sjogren's syndrome
140
Which systemic disease can cause temporary fluctuations in refractive errors? ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
Diabetes mellitus (DM)
141
Name the virus that causes a dendritic pattern of keratitis ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
Herpes simplex
142
Increased thirst, excessive urine production and increased hunger and weight loss are characteristics of which endocrine disease? ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
Diabetes insipidus
143
What finding can occur 6-8 hours after a metallic foreign body enters the cornea? ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
Rust ring
144
Why are alkalil burns more serious than acid burns on the cornea? ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
Alkali burns penetrate deeper
145
Variability in the functions of levator and extraocular muscle is characteristic in which systemic disease? ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
Myathenia gravis
146
What is the name of the mucous membrane covering the anterior sclera? ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
Conjunctiva (bulbar) | Palpebral conjunctiva is on the inside of the eyelids.
147
Blockage of a central retinal blood vessle by an embolus, which stops blood flow to the eye, causing acute loss of vision and a cherry red spot in the retina, is called what? ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
CRAO (Central Retina Artery Occlusion) | Arteries bring blood from the heart to the eye, veins take blood back.
148
What is the visual symptom, and its cause, often experienced by diabetic patients during episodes of increased blood sugar? ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
Blurred vision caused by temporary changes in the refractive index (R.I.) of the crystalline lens. (myopic shift is when the R.I. increases; and hyperopic shift is when the R.I. decreases)
149
This is the most common type of glaucoma. ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
Primary Open Angle Glaucoma (POAG) | Can also be called COAG C=Chronic
150
Aqueous humor drains out of the eye through this net-like structure. ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
Trabecular Meshwork
151
Which layer of the cornea is the thickest? ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
The Stroma
152
Inflammation of the conjunctiva is called this. ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
Conjunctivitis
153
Conjunctivitis can be one of three types, what are they? ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
Allergic, viral, and bacterial | Allergic is most common
154
Forward displacement of the eye in its bony socket causing the eye to bulge forward is called what? ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
Proptosis/exophthalmus | This is typically seen in thyroid patients
155
The cornea provides approximately how much of the refractive power of the eye? ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
2/3 | ~40D, they eye has a total of ~60D
156
The absence of a lens in an eye is called this. ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
Aphakia
157
The presence of an intraocular lens (IOL) is called this. ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
Pseudophakia
158
Name the retinal receptors that function best in dim lighting, number about 125 million and are found primarily in the periphery of the retina. ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
Rods
159
Name the retinal receptors that are responsible for color vision, number about 6 million and are found primarily in the macula. ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
Cones
160
What is a hemorrhage confined to the anterior chamber called? ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
Hyphema
161
What part of the eye is responsible for ~1/3 of the refractive power of the eye.
Crystalline lens | This can also change is power, adding plus so we can see at near.
162
This part of the retina is exclusively made up of cones. ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
Fovea | The macula does have some rods, but the very center (fovea) is all cones
163
How do you abbreviate: 1. Right eye 2. Left eye 3. Both eyes ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
1. OD 2. OS 3. OU
164
Spell the branch of medicine concerned with the diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the eye. ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
OPHTHALMOLOGY
165
Cranial nerve III is called the oculomotor nerve. What areas of the eye does it innervate? ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
1. Levator muscle (eyelid) 2. Sphinctor muscle of the iris 3. Ciliary muscles that control the lens 4. 4 extraocular muscles (SR, IR, MR, IO)
166
If a cotton tip has a drop of blood on it, does it have to be disposed of in a bio-hazard receptacle? ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 14%
No, only materials that are soaked in blood need to be put in a bio-hazard receptacle? | All needles and glass must by put into a sharps container!
167
Specular microscopy is a method of evaluating this layer of the cornea. ## Footnote Ophthalmic Imaging 5%
Endothelial
168
In OCT, the "T" stands for this, a device that creates 3-D cross-sectional digital images. ## Footnote Ophthalmic Imaging 5%
Tomography or Tomographer
169
These three common tomographic image devices are used to image the retina and nerve. ## Footnote Ophthalmic Imaging 5%
OCT-optical coherence tomography, HRT-Heidelberg retinal tomography, and GDx scanner laser polorimeter | The GDx is obsolite due to the OCT and HRT. It only scans the nerve.
170
The data provided by tomographic devices of the nerve are useful in evaluating progressive damage to this layer of the retina. ## Footnote Ophthalmic Imaging 5%
Retinal nerve fiber layer (RNFL)
171
Computer assisted corneal topography is instrumental in early diagnosis of this corneal condition. ## Footnote Ophthalmic Imaging 5%
Keratoconus
172
Corneal topography uses these colors to denote steeper areas of the cornea. ## Footnote Ophthalmic Imaging 5%
Red, orange, and yellow
173
Corneal topography systems are based on data obtained from a reflected image off of this background with concentric rings. ## Footnote Ophthalmic Imaging 5%
Placido disc
174
Corneal topography uses these colors to denote flat areas of the cornea. ## Footnote Ophthalmic Imaging 5%
Blue and green
175
Computer assisted corneal topographer systems are based on data obtained using this imaging technology. ## Footnote Ophthalmic Imaging 5%
Scheimpflug imaging
176
This type of scan is a true ultrasound of the eye. ## Footnote Ophthalmic Imaging 5%
B-Scan | B, like Baby scan.
177
In fundus photography, when the camera is too far from the eye, you will see this around the image. ## Footnote Photography and Videography 5%
Blue-grey halo
178
This type of photography is used to photograph the anterior segment of the eye. ## Footnote Photography and Videography 5%
Slit lamp
179
This type of photography documents the posterior segment of the eye. ## Footnote Photography and Videography 5%
Fundus
180
Ophthalmic photography can be used to do these two things for ophthalmic conditions. ## Footnote Photography and Videography 5%
Document and diagnose
181
This is the type of photography that done when the doctor is looking for leakage of the retinal blood vessels. ## Footnote Photography and Videography 5%
Flourescein Angiography
182
When the camera is not centered properly, you will see this appear in the photo. ## Footnote Photography and Videography 5%
An orangish, yellowish, or whitish crescent on one side of the image,
183
When taking these types of photos it requires that you take a central photo and then a photo about 10 degrees off center to produce a 3D effect when viewed together. ## Footnote Photography and Videography 5%
Stereo (this is typically done for the optic nerve to determine it's depth into the eye)
184
When taking external photos prior to a patient having strabismus surgery, how many photos are required? ## Footnote Photography and Videography 5%
10 A head shot showing postion, then up close photos of just the 2 eyes in 9 different postions. The six cardinals postions, plus straight up and straight down, and primary gaze.
185
In fundus photography, a red free filter is used to evaluate which structure(s) in the eye? ## Footnote Photography and Videography 5%
Blood vessels
186
In slit lamp photography there are several different illuminations that can be used. When taking general slit lamp photos, this type of illumination is used, because it is a softer light that evenly illuminates the entire area without highlighting something specific. ## Footnote Photography and Videography 5%
Diffuse | This is commonly used by the doctor to examine the front of the eye.
187
This diagnostic test is performed for quantitative evaluations of a tissue's structure, reflectivity and sound absorption. This is typically used when optical biometry cannot obtain the measurements. ## Footnote Biometry 3%
Ultrasound A-scan | Often done for axial length measurements when the cataract is too dense.
188
A-scan biometry measures the distance between these structures. ## Footnote Biometry 3%
Internal ocular surfaces. From the cornea to the lens, from the front of the lens to the back of the lens, from the back of the lens to the retina, from the retina to the sclera, and from the sclera to the orbital fat. | All spikes should be at a 90 degree angle to ensure accuracy.
189
When performing A-scan biometry, a 1mm error in axial length may result in an error of this many diopters post-op. ## Footnote Biometry 3%
Three
190
Name the two measurements required to determine the dioptric power of the intraocular lens ## Footnote Biometry 3%
A-scan (axial length of the eye) and keratometry (corneal curvature)
191
Optical biometers uses this instead of sound to determine the measurements. ## Footnote Biometry 3%
Light
192
What are 2 examples of optical biometry. ## Footnote Biometry 3%
IOL Master and Lenstar
193
What is the number that must be entered into the IOL calculations called? It is provided by the manufacturer, but can be refined based on the variations of a surgeon's outcomes and surgical technique. ## Footnote Biometry 3%
A-constant
194
Optical biometers must be calibrated how often using a test eye? ## Footnote Biometry 3%
Daily
195
The average axial length of an adult eye is how many millimeters? ## Footnote Biometry 3%
23-25 mm
196
Name of the instrument that houses various lenses to determine the refractive error of the eye? ## Footnote Refraction, Retinoscopy, & Refinement 5%
Phoropter
197
Define the property of refraction ## Footnote Refraction, Retinoscopy, & Refinement 5%
The Property of Refraction is the bending of the path of waves/rays of visible light as they pass from one transparent medium into another of a different density. The speed of the waves and it's wavelength will also change. | Essentially it is the bending of light.
198
What are some important directions that should be explained when preparing a patient for refraction? ## Footnote Refraction, Retinoscopy, & Refinement 5%
1. Choose the lens that provides the clearest vision of the options shown. 2. Remind them to keep their forehead forward. 3. Blink normally during the duration of the test.
199
What are some common mistakes made during the refraction of a patient? ## Footnote Refraction, Retinoscopy, & Refinement 5%
1. Not making sure the patient is comfortable. 2. Not leveling the phoropter. 3. Not giving good directions and having to ask the same question a different way to get the desired answer. 4. Flipping the lenses too quickly. 5. Forgetting to occlude the eye not being tested.
200
What are three appropriate starting points for refracting a patient? ## Footnote Refraction, Retinoscopy, & Refinement 5%
1. Autorefraction 2. Patient's current Rx 3. Patient's last manifest 4. Retinoscopy (this is a lost art, but it is still tested on!)
201
What is the order of operations for a refraction? ## Footnote Refraction, Retinoscopy, & Refinement 5%
1. Sphere 2. Axis 3. Cylinder Power 4. Sphere again if the cylinder power was altered. This is done to be sure the spherical equivalent is kept. | Remember SACS
202
What is the name of the lens used to refine cylinder axis and/or power? ## Footnote Refraction, Retinoscopy, & Refinement 5%
Jackson Cross Cylinder (JCC)
203
Retinoscopy is this method of refraction, where the examiner decides what the prescription is vs the patient giving answers. ## Footnote Refraction, Retinoscopy, & Refinement 5%
Objective refraction
204
This method of refraction requires the patient to give answers to the examiner. ## Footnote Refraction, Retinoscopy, & Refinement 5%
Subjective refraction
205
Why is pinholing the patient useful prior to performing refraction? ## Footnote Refraction, Retinoscopy, & Refinement 5%
It lets the examiner know if the decreased visual acuity is due to a refractive error or not. If the vision isn't improving, the examiner can expect that they may not get an improvemet in visual acuity with refraction. | This is of course if there isn't user error by the patient.
206
What is the name of the test to determine if the refraction is correct using red/green filter on the projector? ## Footnote Refraction, Retinoscopy, & Refinement 5%
Duochrome test | This is done to assess over minusing on each eye individually.
207
What other measurement can you reference to asses the amount of cylinder power and it's axis in a patient? ## Footnote Refraction, Retinoscopy, & Refinement 5%
Keratometry measurements. These provide the amount of curvature at the flattest and sttepest parts of the cornea and are useful if there is a problem with the cylinder power and/or axis.
208
What normally determines the strength of an add power for near correction? ## Footnote Refraction, Retinoscopy, & Refinement 5%
The age of the patient
209
What method of refraction is indicated for children with accomodative esotropia or patients who have latent hyperopia? ## Footnote Refraction, Retinoscopy, & Refinement 5%
Cycloplegic (wet) refraction is best used in these situations.
210
What is the distance from the back surface of a lens to the front of the eye called? ## Footnote Refraction, Retinoscopy, & Refinement 5%
Vertex distance
211
Transpose this Rx: -2.75-1.25x105 ## Footnote Optics and Spectacles 2%
-4.00+1.25x015 1. Combine the sphere and the cyl powers: -2.75-1.25=-4.00 2. Change the sign of the cyl power, but not the actual power: +1.25 3. Change the axis by 90 degrees: 015 | Keep the signs with the numbers!
212
Which instrument measures the radius of curvature, or base curve, of a spectacle lens surface in diopters? ## Footnote Optics and Spectacles 2%
Geneva lens clock
213
What is the spherical equivalent of -2.00 +3.00 x 90? ## Footnote Optics and Spectacles 2%
-0.50 sph 1. Take half of the cylinder power: +3.00/2=+1.50 2. Combine that with the sphere: -2.00+1.50=-0.50 3. That's it! | Spherical equivalent is taking a cylinder Rx and making is sphere only.
214
The add power of the trifocal portion of a lens with a +2.00 reading add will be what power? ## Footnote Optics and Spectacles 2%
+1.00 | The trifocal add power is always half of the reading add power.
215
In the terms of lens thickness, the center of a myopic lens is thinner or thicker then the outer part of the lens? ## Footnote Optics and Spectacles 2%
Thinner | The reverse is true for a hyperopic lens, it is thicker in the center!
216
What is the distance from the center of one pupil to the center of the other pupil called? ## Footnote Optics and Spectacles 2%
Interpupillary Distance
217
What are some symptoms a patient can experience if their PD was measured incorrectly? ## Footnote Optics and Spectacles 2%
1. Blurred vision (sometimes described as looking underwater) 2. Eye strain 3. Fatigue 4. Headaches 5. Possible double vision
218
Transpose this Rx: -1.25+2.75x175 ## Footnote Optics and Spectacles 2%
+1.50-2.75x085 1. Combine the sphere and the cyl powers: -1.25+2.75=+1.50 2. Change the sign of the cyl power, but not the actual power: -2.75 3. Change the axis by 90 degrees: 085 | Keep the signs with the numbers!
219
Which color defects may be distinguished by the Ishihara test? ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 3%
Red and green
220
Which color vision test consists of pseudo isochromatic plates that determine red-green color anomalies and deficiencies? ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 3%
Ishihara color plates
221
How long are the Schirmer strips left in place during a tear test? ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 3%
Five minutes
222
The most accurate way a technician can estimate the anterior chamber depth is to use this machine. ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 3%
The slit lamp | Only a doctor can perform a gonioscopy.
223
Which two ocular structures can touch if the anterior chamber is flat/shallow? ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 3%
Iris and cornea
224
When determining anterior chamber depth using a flashlight test, a shadow on the nasal iris indicates that the AC is this. ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 3%
Abnormally shallow or narrow angle
225
What is the name of the instrument used to measure extension of the anterior surface of the cornea beyond the lateral orbital rim (eye protrusion)? ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 3%
Exophthalmometer
226
What does BAT stand for and what does it measure? ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 3%
Brightness Acuity Test measures glare.
227
What is the term for the amount of time it takes for dry spots to form on the cornea when the eye is in a starting (not blinking) position? ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 3%
TBUT or BUT (tear break-up time)
228
This green dye is useful in evaluating the integrity of the corneal epithelium. ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 3%
Lissamine Green | This has replaced Rose Bengal due to it burning the eyes.
229
The _____ _____ test uses rainbow colored cups that must be arranged in order of similar hues. ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 3%
Farnsworth-Munsell 100-hue or Farnsworth D-15
230
This color vision test consists of a series of plates with a gray background and colored circles, crosses, and triangles. ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 3%
Hardy-Rand-Ritter
231
Name the tear deficiency test which uses strips of filter paper inserted into the lower fornix ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 3%
Schirmer's Test
232
Should color vision be tested monocularly or binocularly? ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 3%
Monocularly. If tested binocularly, one eye could make up for color deficiencies in the other eye and will be missed when color deficiency is acquired (not congenital).
233
This is the test for measuring the thickness of the cornea. ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 3%
Pachymetry
234
When using a penlight to determine anterior chamber depth, it is important to be sure the light is aligned this way with the cornea. ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 3%
Perpendicular, if it is at any other angle a shadow could be produced or missed!
235
How many seconds is considered a normal TBUT? ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 3%
10 seconds
236
What are 2 conditions where the thickness of the cornea can determine treatment? ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 3%
Glaucoma and Fuch's Endothelial Dystrophy
237
The Goldmann applanation tonometer prism is best cleaned between patients with what solution(s). ## Footnote Tonometry 4%
Hydrogen peroxide soaks or 1:10 bleach solution | Alcohol is accepted, but the other 2 are better.
238
In order to check the calibration of this method of tonometry, a balance or calibration rod must be used. ## Footnote Tonometry 4%
Goldmann Applanation
239
When performing Goldmann Applanation this dye is necessary to see the mires. ## Footnote Tonometry 4%
Fluorescein dye
240
What is the diameter of the corneal area applanated by a Goldmann tonometer? ## Footnote Tonometry 4%
3.06mm | Know this about the goldmann applanator!!!
241
The scientific word for measuring IOP is this. ## Footnote Tonometry 4%
Tonometry | The suffix -metry means to measure
242
When the IOP increases, the eye will start to feel this way. ## Footnote Tonometry 4%
Harder
243
Putting pressure on the eye can cause aqueous humor to displace, Goldmann applanation only diplaces about this much aqueous humor. ## Footnote Tonometry 4%
0.5 microliters
244
When recording intraocular pressure, the reading on the Goldmann applanation tonometer scale should be multiplied by this much. ## Footnote Tonometry 4%
Ten
245
What is the normal range of intraocular pressure? ## Footnote Tonometry 4%
10-21 mmHg
246
To applanate means to do this. ## Footnote Tonometry 4%
To flatten
247
What measurement error is produced when the fluorescein rings are too narrow during applanation tonometry? ## Footnote Tonometry 4%
False low reading
248
When applanating, what measurement error is produced when a patient holds their breath or is straining? ## Footnote Tonometry 4%
False high reading
249
What is the unit of measurement is used for IOP? ## Footnote Tonometry 4%
millimeters of Mercury (mmHg) | Hg is the symbol for Mercury on the peroidic table.
250
The iCare is this type of tonometry where a probe is "fired" onto the cornea, creating a very small applanation, and the IOP is determined by how long it takes for the probe to return to its resting postion. ## Footnote Tonometry 4%
Rebound
251
This method of tonometry has largely been replaced by applanation because it doesn't account for the scleral rigidity. ## Footnote Tonometry 4%
Schiøtz (Indentation) Tonometry
252
This hand held method of applanating can take accurate measurements on an irregular cornea and over a soft contact lens. ## Footnote Tonometry 4%
Tono-Pen
253
How is it recorded when the patient perceives light and can indicate the source direction? ## Footnote Visual Assessment 6%
Light perception with projection (LP w/P)
254
The visual acuity notation 20/200 indicates the patient could see the 200 optotype at how many feet? ## Footnote Visual Assessment 6%
20 | The numerator ALWAYS represent how far the away the patient is!!
255
The distance of 20 feet is used in visual acuity assessment because it is considered this. ## Footnote Visual Assessment 6%
Optical infinity
256
How is the visual acuity value of 20/40 expressed as the metric equivalent? ## Footnote Visual Assessment 6%
6/12 | 20/20=6/6, 20/30=6/9, 20/40=6/12, 20/50=6/15, 20/60=6/18, 20/70=6/21...
257
If a patient has decreased vision, performing this acuity test will usually demonstrate that the decreased vision is due to a refractive error. | (NOT REFRACTION) ## Footnote Visual Assessment 6%
Pinhole acuity
258
Jaeger notation and the point system are units of measure used in recording this type of vision. ## Footnote Visual Assessment 6%
Near
259
In visual assessment the acronym PAM represents this testing device. ## Footnote Visual Assessment 6%
Potential acuity meter | No longer in use, we typically will use the "super pinhole" method prn.
260
The ability of human vision to discern shapes by their relative lightness and darkness is referred to as this. ## Footnote Visual Assessment 6%
Contrast sensitivity
261
During visual acuity assessment the patient is able to clearly read the 20/30 line but misses one letter, how would you record the acuity? ## Footnote Visual Assessment 6%
20/30-1
262
Why is it important to observe the patient during visual acuity testing? ## Footnote Visual Assessment 6%
To ensure proper occlusion | Patients will always cheat subconsciously when an eye has poor vision.
263
While assessing visual acuity the assistant notes the patient consistently misses the optotypes on the same side of the chart. This may indicate that the patient may have this. ## Footnote Visual Assessment 6%
Visual field defect
264
When there are opacities in the ocular media, a BAT may be use to asses them the their potenital to cause this problem. ## Footnote Visual Assessment 6%
Glare
265
In patients with nystagmus, visual acuity often perfomed this way because when one of the eyes is occulded the nystagmus worsens. ## Footnote Visual Assessment 6%
Binocularly | When refracting or other testing we fog their eye with a +5.00
266
At what distance are adult near visual acuity charts designed to be read? ## Footnote Visual Assessment 6%
14-16 inches from the eye
267
Normal visual acuity in a two-month old infant may be estimated by? ## Footnote Visual Assessment 6%
Fixation (follow at 3-months)
268
If a patient cannot see the largest optotype on the chart the next thing you should check is this. ## Footnote Visual Assessment 6%
Their ability to Count Fingers (CF) at a certain distance.
269
The standard chart used to assess visual acuity is this chart. ## Footnote Visual Assessment 6%
Snellen acuity chart
270
Each letter on most visual acuity charts are subtended this much. ## Footnote Visual Assessment 6%
5 minutes of arc
271
This visual field test is done by comparing the boundaries of the patient's visual field with that of the examiner to determine a patient's gross visual field. ## Footnote Visual Fields 4%
Confrontation (CVF)
272
The Amsler grid test determines the presence and location of defects in what part of the visual field? ## Footnote Visual Fields 4%
Central
273
During Amsler grid visual field testing, the patient should be wearing this type of correction if applicable. ## Footnote Visual Fields 4%
Near
274
Because there are no photoreceptor cells (rods or cones) in the optic nerve, this is produced in the visual field. ## Footnote Visual Fields 4%
Physiologic blind spot
275
A physical defect in the patient's superior temporal retina, will cause a visual field defect in this part of their vision. ## Footnote Visual Fields 4%
Inferior nasal | Fresh Prince...everything is flipped and turned upside down.
276
What are the two basic methods of perimetry are used to map the field of vision? ## Footnote Visual Fields 4%
Kinetic and static | Static=HVF Kinetic (moving)=GVF
277
A localized area of reduced sensitivity in a visual field that is called this. ## Footnote Visual Fields 4%
Scotoma | An absolute scotoma means there is no vision at all, e.g. ON blind spot
278
This unit of measurement is used to indicate the brightness of the light used during a visual field. ## Footnote Visual Fields 4%
Decibel
279
A visual field defect occupying the right or left half of the visual is referred to as this. ## Footnote Visual Fields 4%
Hemiaopia/Hemianopsia
280
When performing a visual field, the patient's near correction should only be used when testing the central how many degrees? ## Footnote Visual Fields 4%
Thirty (30) | If used for >30, it will be distorted and a false depression of the VF
281
The presence of ptosis can result in this part of the visual field. ## Footnote Visual Fields 4%
Superior | Only the retina is flipped, the lid is blocking the actual superior VF.
282
If a pupil is only about 2 mm or less, this can happen to the visual field. ## Footnote Visual Fields 4%
Contraction, appear to be smaller and more narrow than it actually is.
283
Normal peripheral limits of the visual field are how many degrees in each direction? Nasal, Superior, Inferior, and Temporal. ## Footnote Visual Fields 4%
60 degrees for both nasally and superiorly, 70 degrees inferiorly, and 90 temporally.
284
In the grayscale printout of an automated perimeter the lighter area corresponds to what levels of illumination being seen by the patient. ## Footnote Visual Fields 4%
Dim levels | The dimmer the light seen, the better and more sensitive the vision.
285
A patient with a bitemporal visual field defect means that this area of the visual pathway is affected. ## Footnote Visual Fields 4%
Optic chiasm (usually a pituitary tumor that has grown and is now touching the chiam causing vision loss)
286
There can be a high number of these errors when the patient is clicking too much because they are afraid they will "miss" a light. ## Footnote Visual Fields 4%
False-positive error | A false-negative happens when the patient isn't paying attention.
287
Name the two types of surgical scrub methods ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 7%
1. Anatomincal timed (so much time spent scrubing a specific area) 2. Counted brush stroke (certain number of strokes used to clean each area)
288
The most common method of sterilizing instruments is this. ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 7%
Steam sterilization
289
Wearing this, is a safety precaution when lasers are being used. ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 7%
Eye protection
290
Name the four shapes of suture needles. ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 7%
1. Taper point 2. Cutting 3. Reverse cutting 4. Spatula
291
When performing a proper site identification, what two things must be identified? ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 7%
Correct patient and correct side
292
The YAG laser is this type of laser, using quick pulses of energy without heating up tissue. ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 7%
Cold
293
What method of sterilization is used in sterilizing intraocular lens implants? ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 7%
Ethylene Oxide | This is a chemical germicide, we call this cold sterilization
294
Name the two main classification areas of most ophthalmic surgical procedures. ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 7%
Intraocular and Extraocular
295
Name five types of sutures used in ophthalmic surgery. ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 7%
1. Plain catgut 2. Vicryl 3. Nylon 4. Silk 5. Prolene
296
What is a common blade used for ophthalmic surgeries? ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 7%
Diamond blade
297
An operating room must be amoric. Define amoric. ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 7%
No particles
298
This type of water should be used in an autoclave to help prevent stains from happening on the instruments. ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 7%
Distilled (even better is deionized distilled water)
299
Prior to sterilization, this should be done to all instruments. ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 7%
Cleaning with a neutral cleaning solution or an enzyme cleaner for instruments with blood and debris on them.
300
The process of complete elimination or destruction of all forms of microbial life is this. ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 7%
Sterilization