COT QUIZ Flashcards
(175 cards)
1
Q
“1 year ago”, “Constant”, “Suddenly” are all examples of what component of the HPI?
A. Duration
B. Modifying Factors
C. Context
D. Timing
History and Documentation 3%
A
D. Timing
Timing is when did it start; Duration is how long does it last.
2
Q
1 mm radius of corneal curvature equals
a. 1 D.
b. 2.5 D.
c. 5 D.
d. 10 D.
A
a. 1 D.
b. 2.5 D.
c. 5 D.
d. 10 D.
3
Q
A +1D lens is decentered by 10mm. What is the amount of prism inflicted by this decentered lens?
a. 0.1D
b. 1D
c. 5D
d. 10D
A
a. 0.1D
b. 1D
c. 5D
d. 10D
4
Q
A +5D spectacle lens is decentered by 4mm. What is the amount of prism inflicted by this decentered lens?
a. 0.5 D.
b. 2 D.
c. 10 D.
d. 20 D.
A
a. 0.5 D.
b. 2 D.
c. 10 D.
d. 20 D.
5
Q
A 0.50 D lens has a focal length of
a. 0.25 meters.
b. 2 meters.
c. 5 meters.
d. 10 meters.
A
a. 0.25 meters.
b. 2 meters.
c. 5 meters.
d. 10 meters.
6
Q
A contact Lens that doesn’t center well and is uncomfortable indicates the contact lens is
a. too flat.
b. too steep.
c. too tight.
d. just right.
A
a. too flat.
b. too steep.
c. too tight.
d. just right.
7
Q
A dark shadow arising from inferior VF or an ascending veil are symptoms of
a. advanced glaucoma.
b. cataract.
c. retinal detachment.
d. macular degeneration.
A
a. advanced glaucoma.
b. cataract.
c. retinal detachment.
d. macular degeneration.
8
Q
A direct ophthalmoscope should be
a. stored with viewing lens at zero
b. kept in charge when not in use
c. used with the transformer set on the highest setting.
d. all of the above
A
a. stored with viewing lens at zero
b. kept in charge when not in use
c. used with the transformer set on the highest setting.
d. all of the above
9
Q
A fluorescein pattern on a contact lens wearer that shows bubbles are under the contact lens indicates the lens is
a. too flat.
b. too steep.
c. fit just right.
d. none of the above
A
a. too flat.
b. too steep.
c. fit just right.
d. none of the above
10
Q
A Goldmann tonometer prism should be disinfected with
a. Alcohol
b. Hydrogen Peroxide
c. Acetone
d. UV Radiation
A
a. Alcohol
b. Hydrogen Peroxide
c. Acetone
d. UV Radiation
11
Q
A patient who reports they were scratched in the eye with a palm frond is MOST at risk of developing what kind of infection?
a. Bacterial
b. Fungal
c. Viral
d. Parasitic
A
a. Bacterial
b. Fungal
c. Viral
d. Parasitic
12
Q
A patient’s Schirmer’s II readings are 12 mm OD and 14 mm OS. This indicates the patient has
a. dry Eyes.
b. excessive lacrimation.
c. normal tear output.
d. none of the above
A
a. dry Eyes.
b. excessive lacrimation.
c. normal tear output.
d. none of the above
13
Q
A phoria is
a. a disease involving a cranial nerve.
b. associated with Myasthenia Gravis.
c. normal.
d. present with both eyes open.
A
a. a disease involving a cranial nerve.
b. associated with Myasthenia Gravis.
c. normal.
d. present with both eyes open.
14
Q
A rapid and weak pulse, skin rash and difficulty breathing after taking a medication are signs of
a. a medication side effect.
b. corticosteroid use.
c. an allergic reaction.
d. Bradycardia.
A
a. a medication side effect.
b. corticosteroid use.
c. an allergic reaction.
d. Bradycardia.
15
Q
A right esotropia is characterized by the right eye being deviated
Select one:
a. up.
b. down.
c. in.
d. out
A
a. up.
b. down.
c. in.
d. out
16
Q
A substances’ index of refraction is calculated by
Select one:
a. The speed of light in air divided by the speed of light in the substance.
b. The speed of light in the substance multiplied by the speed of light in air.
c. The speed of sound in air divided by the speed of sound in the substance.
d. The speed of light in the substance divided by the speed of light in water.
A
a. The speed of light in air divided by the speed of light in the substance.
b. The speed of light in the substance multiplied by the speed of light in air.
c. The speed of sound in air divided by the speed of sound in the substance.
d. The speed of light in the substance divided by the speed of light in water.
17
Q
A trichromat
Select one:
a. cannot detect green pigments.
b. can only see in shades of gray.
c. cannot detect red pigments.
d. has normal color vision.
A
Select one:
a. cannot detect green pigments.
b. can only see in shades of gray.
c. cannot detect red pigments.
d. has normal color vision.
18
Q
A Typical 55 year old patient is likely to require an ADD power of
Select one:
a. +1.50.
b. +2.00.
c. +2.50.
d. +3.00.
A
Select one:
a. +1.50.
b. +2.00.
c. +2.50.
d. +3.00.
19
Q
A YAG LASER is used to
Select one:
a. clear posterior capsular opacification.
b. seal leaking blood vessels in the retina.
c. alter the cornea to change the refractive error.
d. alter the trabecular meshwork to lower IOP.
A
a. clear posterior capsular opacification.
b. seal leaking blood vessels in the retina.
c. alter the cornea to change the refractive error.
d. alter the trabecular meshwork to lower IOP.
20
Q
Accommodative Esotropia occurs due to
Select one:
a. the eyes requiring an extraordinary amount of accommodation.
b. hypertropia.
c. a congenital cranial nerve palsy.
d. none of the above
A
Select one:
a. the eyes requiring an extraordinary amount of accommodation.
b. hypertropia.
c. a congenital cranial nerve palsy.
d. none of the above
21
Q
All of the following are TRUE about binocular diplopia EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. it can occur with or without glasses.
b. it can be caused by trauma, a nerve palsy or stroke.
c. it goes away when one eye is covered.
d. it only occurs when looking at near.
A
a. it can occur with or without glasses.
b. it can be caused by trauma, a nerve palsy or stroke.
c. it goes away when one eye is covered.
d. it only occurs when looking at near.
22
Q
All of the following can cause irregularly shaped pupils EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. synechiae.
b. hippus.
c. acute angle closure glaucoma.
d. surgery.
A
Select one:
a. synechiae.
b. hippus.
c. acute angle closure glaucoma.
d. surgery.
23
Q
All of the following instruments use LASER technology EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. IOL Master.
b. OCT.
c. pachymetry.
d. GDX.
A
Select one:
a. IOL Master.
b. OCT.
c. pachymetry.
d. GDX.
24
Q
All of the following may be used to measure a contact lens EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. ultrasonic transducer.
b. lensmeter.
c. microspherometer.
d. distometer.
A
a. ultrasonic transducer.
b. lensmeter.
c. microspherometer.
d. distometer.
25
Alpha Adrenergenics
Select one:
a. work by decreasing the amount of aqueous produced.
b. are the most likely eye drop to cause an allergic reaction.
c. can cause drowsiness and fatigue.
d. all of the above
Select one:
a. work by decreasing the amount of aqueous produced.
b. are the most likely eye drop to cause an allergic reaction.
c. can cause drowsiness and fatigue.
d. all of the above
26
An autoclave sterilizes by
Select one:
a. boiling.
b. moist heat under pressure.
c. ultraviolet rays.
d. chemicals.
select one:
a. boiling.
b. moist heat under pressure.
c. ultraviolet rays.
d. chemicals.
27
An axial length of 24.9 is
Select one:
a. within the standard dimensions of the eye.
b. longer than the standard dimensions of the eye.
c. shorter than the standard dimensions of the eye.
d. none of the above
a. within the standard dimensions of the eye.
b. longer than the standard dimensions of the eye.
c. shorter than the standard dimensions of the eye.
d. none of the above
28
An NEMB notifies the patient that
Select one:
a. the practice does not accept Medicare Assignment.
b. a service may not be covered by Medicare.
c. they will have to pay the fee because their deductible has not been met.
d. a service will not be covered by Medicare.
Select one:
a. the practice does not accept Medicare Assignment.
b. a service may not be covered by Medicare.
c. they will have to pay the fee because their deductible has not been met.
d. a service will not be covered by Medicare.
29
Aniseikonia refers to the
Select one:
a. difference in refractive error between 2 eyes.
b. difference in pupil sizes of > 1mm.
c. amount of prism in a spectacle Rx.
d. difference in perceived image size due to refractive error.
Select one:
a. difference in refractive error between 2 eyes.
b. difference in pupil sizes of > 1mm.
c. amount of prism in a spectacle Rx.
d. difference in perceived image size due to refractive error.
30
Applanation tonometry is based on what principle?
Select one:
a. The Prentice Principle
b. The Imbert-Fick Principle
c. The Goldmann Principle
d. Snell's Law
Select one:
a. The Prentice Principle
b. The Imbert-Fick Principle
c. The Goldmann Principle
d. Snell's Law
31
Aqueous fluid forms in the _____ and exits through the _________.
Select one:
a. ciliary process / trabecular meshwork then aqueous veins
b. ciliary body / trabecul meshwork
c. iris / canal of Sclemm then aqueous veins
d. ciliary body / canal of Schlemm
Select one:
a. ciliary process / trabecular meshwork then aqueous veins
b. ciliary body / trabecul meshwork
c. iris / canal of Sclemm then aqueous veins
d. ciliary body / canal of Schlemm
32
Avastin, Macugen and Lucentis are examples of
Select one:
a. Beta-Blockers.
b. Anti VEGF drugs.
c. NSAIDs.
d. steroids.
Select one:
a. Beta-Blockers.
b. Anti VEGF drugs.
c. NSAIDs.
d. steroids.
33
Binocular diplopia occurs
Select one:
a. when one eye is covered.
b. due to ocular misalignment.
c. when a patient has head tilt.
d. due to anisocoria.
Select one:
a. when one eye is covered.
b. due to ocular misalignment.
c. when a patient has head tilt.
d. due to anisocoria.
34
Blurred vision secondary to organic disease
Select one:
a. is corrected with spectacles.
b. usually occurs at all distances and with all activities.
c. usually occurs at a particular distance.
d. is usually associated with a specific activity.
Select one:
a. is corrected with spectacles.
b. usually occurs at all distances and with all activities.
c. usually occurs at a particular distance.
d. is usually associated with a specific activity.
35
Bulbs in Welch Allyn Retinoscopes and Transilluminators are removed by
Select one:
a. loosening with a 5/16 Allen wrench, then flipping with a screwdriver.
b. pulling them straight out.
c. unscrewing them.
d. none of the above
Select one:
a. loosening with a 5/16 Allen wrench, then flipping with a screwdriver.
b. pulling them straight out.
c. unscrewing them.
d. none of the above
36
By age 3 months a child should be able to
Select one:
a. use an Allen chart.
b. reach for a toy.
c. follow light.
d. none of the above
Select one:
a. use an Allen chart.
b. reach for a toy.
c. follow light.
d. none of the above
37
Calculate the spherical equivalent of -3.50 +1.00 x 180
Select one:
a. -2.50.
b. -3.00.
c. +2.50.
d. -0.50.
Select one:
a. -2.50.
b. -3.00.
c. +2.50.
d. -0.50.
38
Causes of Color Deficiency include
Select one:
a. optic nerve disease.
b. congenital causes.
c. retinal diseases.
d. all of the Above
Select one:
a. optic nerve disease.
b. congenital causes.
c. retinal diseases.
d. all of the Above
39
Causes of cranial nerve palsies include
Select one:
a. head Trauma.
b. basilar artery insufficiency.
c. stroke.
d. all of the above
Select one:
a. head Trauma.
b. basilar artery insufficiency.
c. stroke.
d. all of the above
40
Cellulitis, boils and styes are caused by the ______ bacteria.
Select one:
a. strep
b. staph
c. corneobacterium
d. gonococcus
Select one:
a. strep
b. staph
c. corneobacterium
d. gonococcus
41
Choroidal flush occurs during which phase of fluorescein angiography?
Select one:
a. Arterial
b. Capillary
c. Venous
d. Pre-Arterial
Select one:
a. Arterial
b. Capillary
c. Venous
d. Pre-Arterial
42
Cold Sterilization is a good option when
Select one:
a. you want to save money.
b. heat would damage or destroy an instrument.
c. you don’t need to use the instrument for at least 20 minutes.
d. all of the above
Select one:
a. you want to save money.
b. heat would damage or destroy an instrument.
c. you don’t need to use the instrument for at least 20 minutes.
d. all of the above
43
Contact lenses are measured by the
Select one:
a. posterior radius at the periphery of lens.
b. anterior radius to the end of the lens.
c. posterior radius at the apex of lens.
d. sagittal height plus radius of lens.
a. posterior radius at the periphery of lens.
b. anterior radius to the end of the lens.
c. posterior radius at the apex of lens.
d. sagittal height plus radius of lens.
44
Convert the following script to minus cyl: +1.00 +1.75 x 170
Select one:
a. +2.75 -1.75 x 170
b. +2.75 -1.75 x 080
c. -0.75 -1.75 x 170
d. -0.75 -1.75 x 080
Select one:
a. +2.75 -1.75 x 170
b. +2.75 -1.75 x 080
c. -0.75 -1.75 x 170
d. -0.75 -1.75 x 080
45
Corneal edema can be caused by
Select one:
a. infection.
b. corneal Scar.
c. inflammation.
d. all of the above
Select one:
a. infection.
b. corneal Scar.
c. inflammation.
d. all of the above
46
Corneal Topographers measure
Select one:
a. only the central 2 mm of K.
b. the K limbus to limbus.
c. corneal thickness.
d. only the peripheral 2 mm of K.
Select one:
a. only the central 2 mm of K.
b. the K limbus to limbus.
c. corneal thickness.
d. only the peripheral 2 mm of K.
47
Distorted vision
Select one:
a. can occur due to macular disorders.
b. tends to occur in emmetropes.
c. typically is the first sign of glaucoma.
d. occurs in patients with Vitamin A deficiency.
Select one:
a. can occur due to macular disorders.
b. tends to occur in emmetropes.
c. typically is the first sign of glaucoma.
d. occurs in patients with Vitamin A deficiency.
48
DK Value refers to a contact lens'
Select one:
a. amount of spherical aberration.
b. oxygen transmissibility.
c. thickness at center and periphery.
d. diameter vs. Keratometry.
Select one:
a. amount of spherical aberration.
b. oxygen transmissibility.
c. thickness at center and periphery.
d. diameter vs. Keratometry.
49
Dry heat as a method of sterilization
Select one:
a. is good to use for sterilizing dry goods such as gowns, gloves and drapes.
b. is fast.
c. requires little maintenance and cleaning.
d. all of the above
Select one:
a. is good to use for sterilizing dry goods such as gowns, gloves and drapes.
b. is fast.
c. requires little maintenance and cleaning.
d. all of the above
50
During an automated visual field test, the patient does not respond to a bright stimulus at a point in their visual field at which they previously responded to a dimmer stimulus. This is called a(n)
Select one:
a. false positive.
b. false negative.
c. fixation loss.
d. artifact.
Select one:
a. false positive.
b. false negative.
c. fixation loss.
d. artifact.
51
During an automated visual field test, the patient has several fixation losses; however, you are monitoring the patient's fixation with the monitor and their eye is remaining fixated properly. What could be the cause of the fixation losses?
Select one:
a. The fellow eye is not patched.
b. The patient is anxious.
c. The patient did not understand your instructions.
d. All of the above
Select one:
a. The fellow eye is not patched.
b. The patient is anxious.
c. The patient did not understand your instructions.
d. All of the above
52
Eye Codes
Select one:
a. are used by all specialties.
b. are much more stringent than E and M codes.
c. have 2 levels – comprehensive and intermediate.
d. none of the above
Select one:
a. are used by all specialties.
b. are much more stringent than E and M codes.
c. have 2 levels – comprehensive and intermediate.
d. none of the above
53
Fluroescein angiography is based on the theory of
Select one:
a. how photons of energy travel from their source in a wave pattern.
b. how ultrasound travels through tissue at varying speeds.
c. how LASER influences sound wave patterns.
d. the reflection pattern of a placido disk.
Select one:
a. how photons of energy travel from their source in a wave pattern.
b. how ultrasound travels through tissue at varying speeds.
c. how LASER influences sound wave patterns.
d. the reflection pattern of a placido d
54
For billing and coding purposes, the primary diagnosis must correlate to the
Select one:
a. NEMB.
b. patient's chief complaint or past ocular history.
c. exam findings.
d. ABN.
Select one:
a. NEMB.
b. patient's chief complaint or past ocular history.
c. exam findings.
d. ABN.
55
Fresnel Prism
Select one:
a. is only used for convergence insufficiencies.
b. magnifies images.
c. is heavy.
d. is ground into the lens.
Select one:
a. is only used for convergence insufficiencies.
b. magnifies images.
c. is heavy.
d. is ground into the lens.
56
Fresnel Prism is available in powers up to
Select one:
a. 15 D.
b. 25 D.
c. 40 D.
d. 50 D.
Select one:
a. 15 D.
b. 25 D.
c. 40 D.
d. 50 D.
57
Front surface mirrors should be cleaned with
Select one:
a. dry tissues or paper towels.
b. canned air or a camel hair brush.
c. alcohol.
d. glass cleaner.
Select one:
a. dry tissues or paper towels.
b. canned air or a camel hair brush.
c. alcohol.
d. glass cleaner.
58
Goldmann tonometers are checked for calibration at what pressure readings?
Select one:
a. 10, 20, 40
b. 0, 20, 40
c. 0, 20, 60
d. 10, 40, 60
Select one:
a. 10, 20, 40
b. 0, 20, 40
c. 0, 20, 60
d. 10, 40, 60
59
Ground in prism is used for
Select one:
a. vertical prism of > 1D.
b. convergence insufficiency.
c. large horizontal phorias.
d. all of the above.
Select one:
a. vertical prism of > 1D.
b. convergence insufficiency.
c. large horizontal phorias.
d. all of the above.
60
Herpes Zoster is a
Select one:
a. virus.
b. bacteria.
c. fungus.
d. parasite.
Select one:
a. virus.
b. bacteria.
c. fungus.
d. parasite.
61
Hoffer Q and Haigis IOL Calculation Formulas are used in patients with
Select one:
a. short eyes.
b. long eyes.
c. aphakia.
d. anatomically narrow angles.
Select one:
a. short eyes.
b. long eyes.
c. aphakia.
d. anatomically narrow angles
62
If a +8D spectacle is adjusted so it is positioned 3 mm farther away from the eye, its effective power will be
Select one:
a. increased – more plus.
b. decreased – less plus.
c. unchanged.
d. None of the above
Select one:
a. increased – more plus.
b. decreased – less plus.
c. unchanged.
d. None of the above
63
If a lensmeter is found to be out of calibration it should
Select one:
a. be sent to the factory for recalibration.
b. be recalibrated in the office with trial lenses.
c. have the contact points and bulb housing checked, then recheck calibration.
d. be turned off then back on, then recalibrated using the special calibration balls which are included with the unit.
Select one:
a. be sent to the factory for recalibration.
b. be recalibrated in the office with trial lenses.
c. have the contact points and bulb housing checked, then recheck calibration.
d. be turned off then back on, then recalibrated using the special calibration balls which are included with the unit.
64
If the diameter of a contact lens remains the same but the base curve is made larger, the sagittal vault of the lens is
Select one:
a. decreased and the lens becomes flatter.
b. increased and the lens becomes steeper.
c. decreased and the lens becomes steeper.
d. increased and the lens becomes flatter.
a. decreased and the lens becomes flatter.
b. increased and the lens becomes steeper.
c. decreased and the lens becomes steeper.
d. increased and the lens becomes flatter.
65
In Goldmann Perimetry, an isopter refers to
Select one:
a. the boundaries of an area in which the patient could see a given level of illumination.
b. a measurement of visual field loss.
c. the amount of illumination at which the patient responded at least 50% of the time.
d. the size of the stimulus.
a. the boundaries of an area in which the patient could see a given level of illumination.
b. a measurement of visual field loss.
c. the amount of illumination at which the patient responded at least 50% of the time.
d. the size of the stimulus.
66
In Goldmann tonometry, the pressure is determined by
Select one:
a. the amount of aqueous which is displaced.
b. central corneal thickness divided by the drum reading multiplied by 3.14.
c. the amount of weight required to flatten the cornea a given amount.
d. none of the above
Select one:
a. the amount of aqueous which is displaced.
b. central corneal thickness divided by the drum reading multiplied by 3.14.
c. the amount of weight required to flatten the cornea a given amount.
d. none of the above
67
In measuring the test parameters used in Goldmann Perimetry, what does the Roman numeral represent?
Select one:
a. The brightness of the stimulus
b. The size of the stimulus
c. The sensitivity of the patient's response
d. The rate at which the stimulus moved
a. The brightness of the stimulus
b. The size of the stimulus
c. The sensitivity of the patient's response
d. The rate at which the stimulus moved
68
Involuntary bodily functions such as cardiovascular, respiratory and digestive functions are controlled by the
Select one:
a. Somatic Nervous System.
b. Autonomic Nervous System.
c. alpha receptors.
d. beta receptors.
Select one:
a. Somatic Nervous System.
b. Autonomic Nervous System.
c. alpha receptors.
d. beta receptors.
69
IV Fluorescein dosage is administered according to the patient's
Select one:
a. age.
b. weight.
c. sex.
d. refractive error.
Select one:
a. age.
b. weight.
c. sex.
d. refractive error.
70
Jackson cross cylinders should be cleaned
Select one:
a. by removing from the frame, cleaning with lens cleaner and replaced.
b. by rubbing with a 1:4 alcohol solution.
c. by gently wiping with a damp cloth.
d. with a cotton tipped applicator soaked in alcohol.
Select one:
a. by removing from the frame, cleaning with lens cleaner and replaced.
b. by rubbing with a 1:4 alcohol solution.
c. by gently wiping with a damp cloth.
d. with a cotton tipped applicator soaked in alcohol.
71
LASER is an acronym for
Select one:
a. Light Amplified by Stimulated Energy Radiation.
b. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation.
c. Light Amplitude on Site of Emission of Radiation.
d. Light Amplified by Stipulated Energy of Radiation.
Select one:
a. Light Amplified by Stimulated Energy Radiation.
b. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation.
c. Light Amplitude on Site of Emission of Radiation.
d. Light Amplified by Stipulated Energy of Radiation.
72
Masks, Gloves, Gowns are examples of
Select one:
a. Universal Precautions.
b. Personal Protective Equipment.
c. Sterile Technique.
d. Aseptic Technique.
Select one:
a. Universal Precautions.
b. Personal Protective Equipment.
c. Sterile Technique.
d. Aseptic Technique.
73
Medication side effects
Select one:
a. can be prevented by the doctor reviewing a complete list of the patient's current medications prior to prescribing any new medication.
b. can be prevented when using topical eye medications by obstructing drainage of the medication through the naso-lacrimal duct.
c. can occur when taking any medication.
d. should be tolerated by the patient in order to benefit from the medication.
```
Select one:
a. can be prevented by the doctor reviewing a complete list of the patient's current medications prior to prescribing any new medication.
b. can be prevented when using topical eye medications by obstructing drainage of the medication through the naso-lacrimal duct.
c. can occur when taking any medication.
d. should be tolerated by the patient in order to benefit from the medication.
Clear my choice
Question 74
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Normal
```
74
Normal pupils
Select one:
a. are round and within 2 mm in size of one another.
b. constrict unequally and are within 1 mm in size of one another.
c. are within 1 mm in size of one another and constrict equally.
d. all of the above
Select one:
a. are round and within 2 mm in size of one another.
b. constrict unequally and are within 1 mm in size of one another.
c. are within 1 mm in size of one another and constrict equally.
d. all of the above
75
On a Corneal Topography map, warm colors (red, orange, yellow) indicate
Select one:
a. poor test quality.
b. good test quality.
c. flatter areas.
d. steeper areas.
Select one:
a. poor test quality.
b. good test quality.
c. flatter areas.
d. steeper areas.
76
On an automated visual field printout, the normal blind spot is found
Select one:
a. 15 degree temporal and 1.5 degree inferior to fixation.
b. 10 degree temporal and 5 degree superior to fixation.
c. 15 degree nasal and 1.5 degree inferior to fixation.
d. 10 degree nasal and 5 degree superior to fixation.
On an automated visual field printout, the normal blind spot is found
Select one:
a. 15 degree temporal and 1.5 degree inferior to fixation.
b. 10 degree temporal and 5 degree superior to fixation.
c. 15 degree nasal and 1.5 degree inferior to fixation.
d. 10 degree nasal and 5 degree superior to fixation.
77
One candle of light intensity is measured by the light of a single candle falling on a surface at a distance of
Select one:
a. 1".
b. 1'.
c. 1 meter.
d. 1 mm.
Select one:
a. 1".
b. 1'.
c. 1 meter.
d. 1 mm.
78
One disadvantage of applanation tonometry is
Select one:
a. it's influenced by external pressure.
b. repeated readings can be inaccurate due to displaced aqueous.
c. it often needs recalibrated.
d. it's expensive to buy and maintain.
Select one:
a. it's influenced by external pressure.
b. repeated readings can be inaccurate due to displaced aqueous.
c. it often needs recalibrated.
d. it's expensive to buy and maintain.
79
Parasympathomimetics
Select one:
a. activate digestion.
b. slows down the heart rate.
c. constricts pupils.
d. all of the above
Select one:
a. activate digestion.
b. slows down the heart rate.
c. constricts pupils.
d. all of the above
80
Patients who are allergic to Sulfa should NOT have
Select one:
a. Miotics.
b. Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors.
c. Beta Blockers.
d. Cycloplegics.
select one:
a. Miotics.
b. Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors.
c. Beta Blockers.
d. Cycloplegics.
81
Patients who have anisocoria that varies with illumination levels
Select one:
a. are more likely to have a pathological etiology.
b. are Normal.
c. likely to have an afferent defect.
d. have Light-Near Dissociation.
Select one:
a. are more likely to have a pathological etiology.
b. are Normal.
c. likely to have an afferent defect.
d. have Light-Near Dissociation
82
Patients who have PDT LASER therapy should avoid doing what for 5 days?
Select one:
a. Reading
b. Being in sunlight
c. Contact sports
d. Night driving
Select one:
a. Reading
b. Being in sunlight
c. Contact sports
d. Night driving
83
Preservatives are added to many medications to maintain a drug's
Select one:
a. concentration.
b. penetration.
c. tonicity.
d. sterility.
Select one:
a. concentration.
b. penetration.
c. tonicity.
d. sterility.
84
Projector slides should be cleaned with
Select one:
a. a camel hair brush.
b. spray lens cleaner and a lint free cloth.
c. alcohol and a lint free cloth.
d. a soft, dry cloth.
Select one:
a. a camel hair brush.
b. spray lens cleaner and a lint free cloth.
c. alcohol and a lint free cloth.
d. a soft, dry cloth.
85
Prostaglandins have what color top?
Select one:
a. Orange
b. Green
c. Yellow
d. Teal
Select one:
a. Orange
b. Green
c. Yellow
d. Teal
86
PRP LASER is used to treat
Select one:
a. diabetic retinopathy.
b. anatomically narrow angles.
c. advanced glaucoma.
d. auto immune disease.
Select one:
a. diabetic retinopathy.
b. anatomically narrow angles.
c. advanced glaucoma.
d. auto immune disease.
87
Pupillary distance is measured in
Select one:
a. cm.
b. mm.
c. inches.
d. nm.
Select one:
a. cm.
b. mm.
c. inches.
d. nm.
88
Reflecting Projector Screens should be
Select one:
a. cleaned daily with a 1:4 solution of ether.
b. washed with a mild soap only if visibly dirty.
c. cleaned daily with a camel hair brush.
d. wiped with alcohol.
Select one:
a. cleaned daily with a 1:4 solution of ether.
b. washed with a mild soap only if visibly dirty.
c. cleaned daily with a camel hair brush.
d. wiped with alcohol.
89
Risks, possible complications and alternative therapies must be included in
Select one:
a. a living will.
b. advanced directives.
c. informed consent.
d. the assessment and plan.
Select one:
a. a living will.
b. advanced directives.
c. informed consent.
d. the assessment and plan.
90
Rods are responsible for
Select one:
a. seeing in dim light.
b. seeing moving objects.
c. seeing in bright light.
d. seeing color.
Select one:
a. seeing in dim light.
b. seeing moving objects.
c. seeing in bright light.
d. seeing color.
91
Sabouraund's Dextrose Agar and Thioglycollate Broth are examples of
Select one:
a. bacteria.
b. culture media.
c. specimens.
d. stains.
Select one:
a. bacteria.
b. culture media.
c. specimens.
d. stains.
92
Scribe Mark(s) on a contact lens is/are visible at what clock hour position(s)?
Select one:
a. 12 o'clock
b. 4 o'clock
c. 3 o'clock and 9 o'clock
d. 12 o'clock and 6 o'clock
Select one:
a. 12 o'clock
b. 4 o'clock
c. 3 o'clock and 9 o'clock
d. 12 o'clock and 6 o'clock
93
Scrub Techs are responsible to do ALL of the following EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. set up surgical instruments and equipment.
b. gown and glove themselves and others.
c. supervise the circulator.
d. check that instruments and equipment are working properly.
Select one:
a. set up surgical instruments and equipment.
b. gown and glove themselves and others.
c. supervise the circulator.
d. check that instruments and equipment are working properly.
94
Sharps and sponge counts should be performed
Select one:
a. before and after every case.
b. at the beginning of the day.
c. at the end of every case.
d. at the end of the day.
Select one:
a. before and after every case.
b. at the beginning of the day.
c. at the end of every case.
d. at the end of the day.
95
Signs of Horner's Syndrome can include all of the following EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. heterochromia.
b. eye deviated down and out.
c. anisocoria.
d. ptosis.
Select one:
a. heterochromia.
b. eye deviated down and out.
c. anisocoria.
d. ptosis.
96
Simultaneous movement of both eyes in the same direction is termed
Select one:
a. versions.
b. vergence.
c. phoria.
d. tropia.
select one:
a. versions.
b. vergence.
c. phoria.
d. tropia.
97
Slab off
Select one:
a. uses bicentric lenses with base up prism.
b. is placed in the most plus or least minus lens.
c. is used to correct horizontal imbalances.
d. none of the above
Select one:
a. uses bicentric lenses with base up prism.
b. is placed in the most plus or least minus lens.
c. is used to correct horizontal imbalances.
d. none of the above
98
SLT is used to treat
Select one:
a. macular degeneration.
b. glaucoma.
c. posterior capsular opacification.
d. myopia.
Select one:
a. macular degeneration.
b. glaucoma.
c. posterior capsular opacification.
d. myopia.
99
Snell's Law governs the behavior of
Select one:
a. light with mirrors.
b. light as it passes through a medium.
c. illuminated light on a surface.
d. light as it passes through air.
Select one:
a. light with mirrors.
b. light as it passes through a medium.
c. illuminated light on a surface.
d. light as it passes through air.
100
Sterile is defined as
Select one:
a. absence of microorganisms that cause disease.
b. the inhibition of growth of microorganisms that cause disease.
c. the complete destruction of all microorganisms including spores.
d. treating every patient as if they're known to have an infectious disease.
Select one:
a. absence of microorganisms that cause disease.
b. the inhibition of growth of microorganisms that cause disease.
c. the complete destruction of all microorganisms including spores.
d. treating every patient as if they're known to have an infectious disease.
101
The "Time Out" Procedure includes which of the following steps?
Select one:
a. Identifying the patient
b. Confirming surgical procedure to be performed
c. Confirming body part upon which surgical procedure will be performed
d. all of the above
Select one:
a. Identifying the patient
b. Confirming surgical procedure to be performed
c. Confirming body part upon which surgical procedure will be performed
d. all of the above
102
The automated lensmeter
Select one:
a. provides subjective measurements.
b. is more accurate than manual lensmeters.
c. is ideal for measuring prism.
d. does not require that the eye piece be focused.
Select one:
a. provides subjective measurements.
b. is more accurate than manual lensmeters.
c. is ideal for measuring prism.
d. does not require that the eye piece be focused.
103
The barrier filter on a fluorescein angiogram Unit is
Select one:
a. yellow-green and filters out blue.
b. blue and filters out green.
c. blue and filters out red.
d. green and filters out yellow.
select one:
a. yellow-green and filters out blue.
b. blue and filters out green.
c. blue and filters out red.
d. green and filters out yellow
104
The behavior of light and mirrors can be explained as
Select one:
a. the angle of refraction = the angle of reflection.
b. the angle of incidence = the angle of reflection.
c. the angle of refraction is twice the angle of reflection.
d. the angle of incidence is half the angle of reflection.
Select one:
a. the angle of refraction = the angle of reflection.
b. the angle of incidence = the angle of reflection.
c. the angle of refraction is twice the angle of reflection.
d. the angle of incidence is half the angle of reflection.
105
The BEST instrument for measuring prism in spectacles is a(n)
Select one:
a. automatic lensmeter.
b. a Risley Prism.
c. manual lensmeter.
d. Ultrasonic Transducer.
Select one:
a. automatic lensmeter.
b. a Risley Prism.
c. manual lensmeter.
d. Ultrasonic Transducer.
106
The consensual pupillary light reflex tests of the integrity of
Select one:
a. the afferent nerve pathway system.
b. the efferent nerve pathway system.
c. both the afferent and efferent nerve pathway systems.
d. neither the afferent or efferent nerve pathway systems.
select one:
a. the afferent nerve pathway system.
b. the efferent nerve pathway system.
c. both the afferent and efferent nerve pathway systems.
d. neither the afferent or efferent nerve pathway systems.
107
The Cross Cover Test is used to detect
Select one:
a. a phoria.
b. a version.
c. a tropia.
d. a vergence.
Select one:
a. a phoria.
b. a version.
c. a tropia.
d. a vergence.
108
The deficit caused by a Cranial Nerve Palsy
Select one:
a. varies depending which nerve is involved.
b. can be caused by disease or trauma.
c. can cause abnormal pupillary response.
d. All of the above
Select one:
a. varies depending which nerve is involved.
b. can be caused by disease or trauma.
c. can cause abnormal pupillary response.
d. All of the above
109
The EDTRS Eye Chart is designed for use in
Select one:
a. elementary school classrooms.
b. pilot visual assessment.
c. clinical studies.
d. Pre Surgical Evaluations.
Select one:
a. elementary school classrooms.
b. pilot visual assessment.
c. clinical studies.
d. Pre Surgical Evaluations.
110
The equivalent of 6/24 metric visual acuity is
Select one:
a. 20/40.
b. 6/80.
c. 20/200.
d. 20/80.
Select one:
a. 20/40.
b. 6/80.
c. 20/200.
d. 20/80.
111
The EVA (Electronic Visual Acuity) Test is calibrated for a distance of
Select one:
a. 3 meters.
b. 20 feet.
c. 1 meter.
d. 10 feet.
Select one:
a. 3 meters.
b. 20 feet.
c. 1 meter.
d. 10 feet.
112
The Farnsworth-Munsell color vision test chips vary in
Select one:
a. brightness.
b. hue.
c. saturation.
d. A and B
Select one:
a. brightness.
b. hue.
c. saturation.
d. A and B
113
The focal length of a 4D lens is
Select one:
a. 0.25 meters.
b. 1 meter.
c. 4 meters.
d. 20 meters.
Select one:
a. 0.25 meters.
b. 1 meter.
c. 4 meters.
d. 20 meters.
114
The layer of the cornea that is directly posterior to the epithelium is the
Select one:
a. stroma.
b. Descemet's membrane.
c. Bowman's membrane.
d. endothelium.
Select one:
a. stroma.
b. Descemet's membrane.
c. Bowman's membrane.
d. endothelium.
115
The main purpose of obtaining a History of Present Illness is to
Select one:
a. document the history of medication interactions.
b. help the doctor determine the cause for the chief complaint.
c. determine if corrective lenses will be required.
d. enhance the patient/physician relationship.
Select one:
a. document the history of medication interactions.
b. help the doctor determine the cause for the chief complaint.
c. determine if corrective lenses will be required.
d. enhance the patient/physician relationship.
116
The measure Pupillary Distance one should measure from
Select one:
a. the center of one pupil to the center of the other pupil.
b. the nasal edge of one pupil to the nasal edge of the other pupil.
c. the nasal edge of one pupil to the temporal edge of the other pupil.
d. the temporal edge of one pupil to the temporal edge of the other pupil.
Select one:
a. the center of one pupil to the center of the other pupil.
b. the nasal edge of one pupil to the nasal edge of the other pupil.
c. the nasal edge of one pupil to the temporal edge of the other pupil.
d. the temporal edge of one pupil to the temporal edge of the other pupil.
117
The metric equivalent of 20/50 is
Select one:
a. 20/15.
b. 6/12.
c. 6/30.
d. 6/15.
Select one:
a. 20/15.
b. 6/12.
c. 6/30.
d. 6/15.
118
The MOST common strep that invades the eye, causing conjunctivitis, corneal ulcers and endophthalmitis is
Select one:
a. streptococcus Pneumoniae.
b. pseudomonas.
c. syphilis.
d. adenovirus.
Select one:
a. streptococcus Pneumoniae.
b. pseudomonas.
c. syphilis.
d. adenovirus.
119
The optic nerve is protected by
Select one:
a. rods and Ccnes.
b. layers of fat and muscles.
c. choroid.
d. retinal pigment epithelium.
Select one:
a. rods and Ccnes.
b. layers of fat and muscles.
c. choroid.
d. retinal pigment epithelium.
120
The outermost layer of the tear film is the
Select one:
a. goblet.
b. aqueous.
c. mucous.
d. lipid.
Select one:
a. goblet.
b. aqueous.
c. mucous.
d. lipid.
121
The part of the nervous system that allows the body to function under stress is called the
Select one:
a. Parasympathetic Nervous System.
b. Sympathetic Nervous System.
c. Somatic Nervous System.
d. none of the above
Select one:
a. Parasympathetic Nervous System.
b. Sympathetic Nervous System.
c. Somatic Nervous System.
d. none of the above
122
The purpose of binocular balancing is to
```
Select one:
a. determine the dominant eye.
b. check for amblyopia.
c. equalize accommodative effort of both eyes.
d. reverse the patient's eye dominance.
The purpose of binocular balancing is to
```
```
Select one:
a. determine the dominant eye.
b. check for amblyopia.
c. equalize accommodative effort of both eyes.
d. reverse the patient's eye dominance.
The purpose of binocular balancing is to
```
123
The staph bacteria is _________ shaped and is Gram stain _________.
Select one:
a. rod, positive
b. spiral, negative
c. round, positive
d. round, negative
Select one:
a. rod, positive
b. spiral, negative
c. round, positive
d. round, negative
124
The sterile field in an operating room includes
Select one:
a. the instrument table from the top to the bottom of the sterile drape.
b. the surgeon and sterile assistant(s) from chest to sterile field in the front and from gloved fingers to 2" above elbows.
c. the patient's blood pressure cuff.
d. all of the above
select one:
a. the instrument table from the top to the bottom of the sterile drape.
b. the surgeon and sterile assistant(s) from chest to sterile field in the front and from gloved fingers to 2" above elbows.
c. the patient's blood pressure cuff.
d. all of the above
125
The syphilis bacteria is ______ shaped.
Select one:
a. rod
b. round
c. spiral
d. none of the above
Select one:
a. rod
b. round
c. spiral
d. none of the above
126
The theory behind A Scan technology is
Select one:
a. light waves travel through tissue at varying speeds.
b. tissue reflect light waves at various wavelengths.
c. sound waves travel through tissue at varying speeds due to different densities of tissues.
d. B and C
Select one:
a. light waves travel through tissue at varying speeds.
b. tissue reflect light waves at various wavelengths.
c. sound waves travel through tissue at varying speeds due to different densities of tissues.
d. B and C
127
The type of tissue which will absorb the LASER beam depends on
Select one:
a. the wavelength of the LASER.
b. the power of the LASER beam.
c. the angle of the LASER.
d. the coherency of the LASER.
Select one:
a. the wavelength of the LASER.
b. the power of the LASER beam.
c. the angle of the LASER.
d. the coherency of the LASER.
128
The visible spectrum of light is from
Select one:
a. 400 – 700 nanometers.
b. 300-700 nanometers.
c. 500-900 meters.
d. 400-600 meters.
Select one:
a. 400 – 700 nanometers.
b. 300-700 nanometers.
c. 500-900 meters.
d. 400-600 meters.
129
The Visual Acuity Optotype letter "E" subtends how many minutes of arc?
Select one:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 5
d. 10
Select one:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 5
d. 10
130
To avoid instrument staining when using an autoclave
Select one:
a. warm the instruments with a dry cycle first.
b. soak them in warm water for 20 minutes before sterilizing.
c. open the door immediately after the cycle is complete.
d. all of the above
Select one:
a. warm the instruments with a dry cycle first.
b. soak them in warm water for 20 minutes before sterilizing.
c. open the door immediately after the cycle is complete.
d. all of the above
131
To evaluate the conjunctival or corneal surface for degenerated cells, one should use
Select one:
a. fluorescein dye.
b. Rose Bengal.
c. Indocyanine Green.
d. 5-Fluorouracil.
Select one:
a. fluorescein dye.
b. Rose Bengal.
c. Indocyanine Green.
d. 5-Fluorouracil.
132
To measure pupillary distance in a patient with one seeing eye, measure from
Select one:
a. the center of one pupil to the center of the other pupil.
b. the center of the bridge of the nose to the center of the pupil of the good eye.
c. the center of the bridge of the nose to the temporal edge of the pupil of the good eye.
d. the center of the pupil of the bad eye to the nasal edge of the pupil in the good eye.
Select one:
a. the center of one pupil to the center of the other pupil.
b. the center of the bridge of the nose to the center of the pupil of the good eye.
c. the center of the bridge of the nose to the temporal edge of the pupil of the good eye.
d. the center of the pupil of the bad eye to the nasal edge of the pupil in the good eye.
133
To sterilize an entire room the best method would be
Select one:
a. EO gas.
b. UV light.
c. moist heat.
d. dry heat.
Select one:
a. EO gas.
b. UV light.
c. moist heat.
d. dry heat.
134
Tonicity refers to a drug's
Select one:
a. concentration.
b. pH.
c. stability.
d. sterility.
Select one:
a. concentration.
b. pH.
c. stability.
d. sterility.
135
Tumbling E's should be used to assess vision on a
Select one:
a. 3 year old.
b. 1 year old.
c. infant.
d. teenager.
Select one:
a. 3 year old.
b. 1 year old.
c. infant.
d. teenager.
136
Typical side effects of antihistamines include
Select one:
a. blurred vision, pupil dilation, dry eyes.
b. increased IOP, PSC cataracts.
c. subconj heme, vitreoretinal heme.
d. keratopathy, optic neuritis, ptosis.
Select one:
a. blurred vision, pupil dilation, dry eyes.
b. increased IOP, PSC cataracts.
c. subconj heme, vitreoretinal heme.
d. keratopathy, optic neuritis, ptosis.
137
Under what circumstances must the Goldmann tonometer prism must be positioned at the patient's axis?
Select one:
a. When the patient has more than 1D of cyl.
b. When the patient has had corneal refractive surgery.
c. When the patient has > 3D of cyl.
d. When measuring IOP for a diurnal curve.
Select one:
a. When the patient has more than 1D of cyl.
b. When the patient has had corneal refractive surgery.
c. When the patient has > 3D of cyl.
d. When measuring IOP for a diurnal curv
138
Vertex distance is measured from
Select one:
a. the back surface of cornea to the back surface of the spectacle lens.
b. the front surface of the spectacle lens to the back surface of the cornea.
c. the back surface of the spectacle lens to the front surface of the cornea.
d. None of the above
Select one:
a. the back surface of cornea to the back surface of the spectacle lens.
b. the front surface of the spectacle lens to the back surface of the cornea.
c. the back surface of the spectacle lens to the front surface of the cornea.
d. None of the above
139
Wavelengths are measured in
Select one:
a. meters.
b. feet.
c. degrees.
d. millimeters.
Select one:
a. meters.
b. feet.
c. degrees.
d. millimeters.
140
What area of the cornea is flattened by the prism of a Goldmann tonometer?
Select one:
a. 2.56 mm
b. 3.54 mm
c. 3.06 mm
d. 2.74 mm
Select one:
a. 2.56 mm
b. 3.54 mm
c. 3.06 mm
d. 2.74 mm
141
What is asepsis?
Select one:
a. Free of all micro-organisms including spores
b. The absence of micro-organisms that cause disease
c. Arresting the growth of micro-organisms
d. A disease state caused by infection with micro-organisms
Select one:
a. Free of all micro-organisms including spores
b. The absence of micro-organisms that cause disease
c. Arresting the growth of micro-organisms
d. A disease state caused by infection with micro-organisms
142
What is the main neuro-transmitter of the Parasympathetic Nervous System?
Select one:
a. Benzalkonium
b. Acetylcholine
c. Epinephrine
d. Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors
Select one:
a. Benzalkonium
b. Acetylcholine
c. Epinephrine
d. Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors
143
What line is used to calibrate a 20' Snellen Eye Chart?
Select one:
a. 20/20
b. 20/50
c. 20/200
d. 20/400
Select one:
a. 20/20
b. 20/50
c. 20/200
d. 20/400
144
What organism does biological monitoring use as a gauge?
Select one:
a. Virus
b. Bacteria
c. Spore
d. Fungus
Select one:
a. Virus
b. Bacteria
c. Spore
d. Fungus
145
What size white target would be advisable to use when performing a Goldmann Visual Field test on an older patient who has 20/200 vision?
Select one:
a. 2 mm.
b. 1 mm.
c. 5 mm.
d. 10 mm.
Select one:
a. 2 mm.
b. 1 mm.
c. 5 mm.
d. 10 mm.
146
When a mirror is touched with a pencil, it shows space between the pencil and its reflection. This mirror is a
Select one:
a. front surface mirror.
b. convex mirror.
c. back surface mirror.
d. concave mirror.
Select one:
a. front surface mirror.
b. convex mirror.
c. back surface mirror.
d. concave mirror
147
When a provider "Accepts Medicare Assignment" it means they
Select one:
a. accept what Medicare pays as payment in full.
b. agree not charge the patient more than the Medicare Allowable.
c. agree not to bill the patient for anything Medicare doesn't cover.
d. agree to bill the insurance on behalf of the patient.
Select one:
a. accept what Medicare pays as payment in full.
b. agree not charge the patient more than the Medicare Allowable.
c. agree not to bill the patient for anything Medicare doesn't cover.
d. agree to bill the insurance on behalf of the patient.
148
When handling instrument bulbs, it's important NOT to hold the glass part of the bulb with bare hands because
Select one:
a. it may break.
b. oils can dim the illumination.
c. it may decrease the life of the bulb.
d. all of the above
Select one:
a. it may break.
b. oils can dim the illumination.
c. it may decrease the life of the bulb.
d. all of the above
149
When measuring VA, the patient cannot read anything on the Snellen chart nor can he detect the light of your transilluminator from any of the 4 of their visual field. Your next course of action should be
Select one:
a. check again for LP with an indirect ophthalmoscope.
b. check for hand motion.
c. turn room lights on and try again.
d. record NLP.
Select one:
a. check again for LP with an indirect ophthalmoscope.
b. check for hand motion.
c. turn room lights on and try again.
d. record NLP.
150
When performing a horizontal B Scan the examiner should orient the probe
Select one:
a. vertically.
b. nasally.
c. temporally.
d. inferiorly.
Select one:
a. vertically.
b. nasally.
c. temporally.
d. inferiorly.
151
When performing Direct Light Reflex testing your subject's pupils constrict briskly, both pupils slowly dilate to an intermediate size followed by a state of unrest. This characterizes what?
Select one:
a. An Adies Tonic Pupil
b. Normal Pupils
c. Anisocoria
d. A Reverse Marcus Gunn Pupil
When performing Direct Light Reflex testing your subject's pupils constrict briskly, both pupils slowly dilate to an intermediate size followed by a state of unrest. This characterizes what?
Select one:
a. An Adies Tonic Pupil
b. Normal Pupils
c. Anisocoria
d. A Reverse Marcus Gunn Pupil
152
When performing retinoscopy, which of the following steps should be performed first?
Select one:
a. Add plus sphere.
b. Add minus sphere.
c. Level phoropter.
d. Subtract sphere lenses to account for working distance
Select one:
a. Add plus sphere.
b. Add minus sphere.
c. Level phoropter.
d. Subtract sphere lenses to account for working distance.
153
When performing the Cover/Uncover Test the examiner should
Select one:
a. look at the uncovered eye.
b. never allow the patient to be binocular.
c. have the patient look at a large distant object.
d. all of the above
Select one:
a. look at the uncovered eye.
b. never allow the patient to be binocular.
c. have the patient look at a large distant object.
d. all of the above
154
When performing the Swinging Flashlight Test the examiner should have
Select one:
a. a small fixation target.
b. dim room light.
c. bright room light.
d. a dim hand light.
Select one:
a. a small fixation target.
b. dim room light.
c. bright room light.
d. a dim hand light.
155
When taking fundus photos on a patient with dark pigmentation, the examiner should
Select one:
a. turn the flash setting up.
b. turn the fixation light off.
c. use cylinder corrective lenses.
d. use a non-myd camera.
Select one:
a. turn the flash setting up.
b. turn the fixation light off.
c. use cylinder corrective lenses.
d. use a non-myd camera.
156
When testing the visual field beyond the central 30 dregee with a Goldmann Perimeter, it's important to
Select one:
a. remove the trial lens.
b. recalibrate the instrument.
c. turn the room lights on.
d. change the fixation target.
Select one:
a. remove the trial lens.
b. recalibrate the instrument.
c. turn the room lights on.
d. change the fixation target.
157
When the right eye abducts it is looking
Select one:
a. right.
b. left.
c. up.
d. down.
Select one:
a. right.
b. left.
c. up.
d. down.
158
Which disorder causes the eyes to have incomplete closure with blink?
Select one:
a. Xanthalasma
b. Lagophthalmos
c. Dermatochalsis
d. Ptosis
Select one:
a. Xanthalasma
b. Lagophthalmos
c. Dermatochalsis
d. Ptosis
159
Which method is BEST used to detect a central visual field defect?
Select one:
a. Confrontation visual field testing
b. Amsler Grid testing
c. Binocular automated perimetry
d. Ptosis visual field test
Select one:
a. Confrontation visual field testing
b. Amsler Grid testing
c. Binocular automated perimetry
d. Ptosis visual field test
160
Which of the following disorders can cause an APD?
Select one:
a. Optic neuritis
b. Strabismus
c. Bilateral, severe optic neuropathy
d. High myopia in one eye
Select one:
a. Optic neuritis
b. Strabismus
c. Bilateral, severe optic neuropathy
d. High myopia in one eye
161
Which of the following is a symptom?
Select one:
a. Red eye
b. Flashes of light
c. Discharge
d. Growth on lid
Select one:
a. Red eye
b. Flashes of light
c. Discharge
d. Growth on lid
162
Which of the following is important to get accurate IOL Master readings?
Select one:
a. A spherical cornea.
b. A good tear film.
c. 3 or more consistent ultrasound measurements.
d. A dilated pupil.
Select one:
a. A spherical cornea.
b. A good tear film.
c. 3 or more consistent ultrasound measurements.
d. A dilated pupil.
163
Which of the following is NOT a component of the Near Reflex Triad?
Select one:
a. Pupillary constriction
b. Divergence
c. Accommodation
d. Convergence
Select one:
a. Pupillary constriction
b. Divergence
c. Accommodation
d. Convergence
164
Which of the following is NOT a descriptive used when documenting the History of Present Illness?
Select one:
a. Timing
b. Side Effects
c. Modifying Factors
d. Context
Select one:
a. Timing
b. Side Effects
c. Modifying Factors
d. Context
165
Which of the following is TRUE about Threshold Visual Field Testing?
Select one:
a. The values represent the level of stimulus which the patient saw only 50% of the time.
b. It requires multiple tests of the same point at varying intensities of light.
c. It can be performed with static or kinetic stimuli.
d. All of the above
Select one:
a. The values represent the level of stimulus which the patient saw only 50% of the time.
b. It requires multiple tests of the same point at varying intensities of light.
c. It can be performed with static or kinetic stimuli.
d. All of the above
166
Which of the following is TRUE for the Visual Potential Test (PAM)?
Select one:
a. It uses a Snellen chart.
b. The patient's astigmatism must be corrected.
c. It cannot be used in patients with visually significant cataracts.
d. All of the above
Select one:
a. It uses a Snellen chart.
b. The patient's astigmatism must be corrected.
c. It cannot be used in patients with visually significant cataracts.
d. All of the above
167
Which of the following patients should be considered to be immune-compromised?
Select one:
a. Alcoholics
b. Diabetics
c. Renal transplant patients
d. all of the above
Select one:
a. Alcoholics
b. Diabetics
c. Renal transplant patients
d. all of the above
168
Which of the following visual assessment methods is suitable for a patient with a language barrier?
Select one:
a. Sheridan-Gardiner
b. Teller Acuity Cards
c. Tumbling E's
d. ETDRS Chart
Select one:
a. Sheridan-Gardiner
b. Teller Acuity Cards
c. Tumbling E's
d. ETDRS Chart
169
While measuring spectacle lenses in a manual lensmeter, you notice you cannot center the target. This indicates
```
Select one:
a. the lenses must be read from the back.
b. the presence of prism.
c. the presence of slab off.
d. a lens with high spherical aberration.
Clear my choice
Question 170
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Select one:
a. the lenses must be read from the back.
b. the presence of prism.
c. the presence of slab off.
d. a lens with high spherical aberration.
Clear my choice
170
While you are performing retinoscopy, you see 'with' movement. This indicates you should dial in
Select one:
a. more plus sphere.
b. more minus cyl.
c. more minus sphere.
d. more plus cyl.
Select one:
a. more plus sphere.
b. more minus cyl.
c. more minus sphere.
d. more plus cyl.
171
Why is it important to keep BSS flowing during phacoemulsification?
Select one:
a. To maintain a sterile field
b. To keep the temperature at a safe level inside the eye
c. To stabilize the energy flow
d. all of the above
Select one:
a. To maintain a sterile field
b. To keep the temperature at a safe level inside the eye
c. To stabilize the energy flow
d. all of the above
172
With Amblyopia it's important to
Select one:
a. patch the amblyopic eye.
b. begin treatment at an early age.
c. keep the amblyopic eye covered when not in use.
d. all of the above
Select one:
a. patch the amblyopic eye.
b. begin treatment at an early age.
c. keep the amblyopic eye covered when not in use.
d. all of the above
173
With LASER technology, the longer the wavelength the
Select one:
a. shorter the duration.
b. deeper the penetration.
c. higher the emission.
d. longer the frequency.
Select one:
a. shorter the duration.
b. deeper the penetration.
c. higher the emission.
d. longer the frequency.
174
You are opening supplies in the OR for a staff member who is scrubbed in. A sterile instrument in an intact peel pack is dropped on the dry floor of the OR. Your BEST course of action is to
Select one:
a. peel the instrument package open using aseptic technique and let the sterile scrub grasp the instrument.
b. put the package with the instrument back in the sterile storage area for future use.
c. open the package, repackage and resterilize the instrument.
d. put the unopened package on the sterile back table.
Select one:
a. peel the instrument package open using aseptic technique and let the sterile scrub grasp the instrument.
b. put the package with the instrument back in the sterile storage area for future use.
c. open the package, repackage and resterilize the instrument.
d. put the unopened package on the sterile back table.
175
Your subject's pupils are 4.0 mm OD and 4.5 mm OS in ambient light. Both are briskly reactive to direct light. When performing SWIFT, the right pupil constricts to 3.5 mm and the left pupil dilates to 5.0. This characterizes
Select one:
a. anisocoria.
b. Marcus Gunn Pupil OS.
c. Marcus Gunn Pupil OD.
d. Horner's Syndrome.
Select one:
a. anisocoria.
b. Marcus Gunn Pupil OS.
c. Marcus Gunn Pupil OD.
d. Horner's Syndrome.
