Coagulopathies Flashcards

1
Q

What is hemostasis?

A

Hemostasis is a complex physiologic phenomenon that keeps the blood in a fluid state and prevents thrombus formation in normal vessels.

In case of vascular injury, this phenomenon is responsible for inducing hemostatic plug formation to prevent hemorrhage from the injured site.

This is a complex process carefully regulated by the body to prevent the excess growth of thrombus by using normally occurring anticoagulant and fibrinolytic systems in the body.

The hemostatic system is a physiologic process using a complex interaction of platelets, plasma proteins, endothelium, and subendothelial structures.

Defects in this regulatory process can either lead to either excessive bleeding or thrombosis.

Clot formation results from primary and secondary hemostasis.

Protein C, protein S, and antithrombin help limit clot formation, while plasminogen contributes to clot lysis.

Three distinct structures are involved in the process of hemostasis: blood vessels, platelets, and circulating hemostatic proteins. Together, these components form the coagulation system, the naturally occurring anticoagulation system, and the fibrinolytic system.

Coagulation must act rapidly to stop the loss of blood from an injured vessel, but the clot that is formed must remain localized so that it does not interfere with the passage of blood through the intact circulation.

The anticoagulation system prevents the extension of the clot beyond the site of injury.

The fibrinolytic system removes excess hemostatic material that has been released into the circulation and slowly lyses the clot once it is no longer needed.

The stimulus for starting clot formation occurs following the disruption of endothelial cells. This leads to exposure of collagen and subendothelial tissues.

The hemostatic response to tissue injury consists of four stages.

First, vasoconstriction by the contraction of smooth muscle in the injured vessel wall reduces blood flow.

Second, platelets adhere to the exposed endothelium, aggregate, and release their granular contents. This activity stimulates further vasoconstriction and recruits more platelets. This action results in “primary hemostasis” that occludes the gap in the blood vessel and stops blood loss through the vessel.

Third, the extrinsic and intrinsic coagulation systems are activated to form fibrin which, with factor XIII activity, stabilizes the platelets and forms a solid clot.

Fourth, fibrinolysis results from the release of plasminogen activators from the injured vessel wall. These activators limit the coagulation process and, once healing has taken place, they begin dissolution of formed clot so that vascular patency can be restored.

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2
Q

What is the role of endothelial cells in hemostasis?

A

Endothelial cells maintain the integrity of the blood vessel and prevent extravasation of blood into the surrounding tissue.

Endothelium has a significant impact on hemostasis by pro- and anticoagulation properties of endothelial cells and the extracellular matrix.

Passive thromboresistance is provided by endothelial proteoglycans, primarily endogenous heparin sulfate.

Active thromboresistance is achieved through several mechanisms, including the synthesis and release of prostacyclin, a potent vasodilator and an inhibitor of platelet adhesion and aggregation.

When the endothelium is injured, tissue factor (thromboplastin) is produced and rapidly promotes local thrombin formation.

Tissue factor binds factor VII and converts it to factor VIIa, which is the first step in activation of the extrinsic coagulation pathway.

It also activates factor IX, which activates the common pathway, resulting in fibrin formation.

Capillaries seal with little dependence on the hemostatic system, but arterioles and venules require the presence of platelets to form an occluding plug.

In arteries and veins, hemostasis depends on both vascular contraction and clot formation around an occluding primary hemostatic plug.

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3
Q

What is the role of platelets in hemostasis?

A

In the resting state, platelets circulate as disk-shaped, anuclear cells that have been released from megakaryocytes in the bone marrow.

They are 2–3 μm in size and remain in circulation for approximately 5–9 days unless they participate in coagulation reactions or are removed by the spleen.

Normal blood contains 150,000–400,000 platelets/μL.

In the resting state platelets do not bind to intact endothelium.

Once platelets bind to injured tissue and are activated, their discoid shape changes. They spread on the subendothelial connective tissue and degranulate releasing serotonin, adenosine diphosphate, adenosine triphosphate, and calcium.

Alpha granules release factor V, fibrinogen, von Willebrand factor (FVIII:vWF), fibronectin, platelet factor 4, β-thromboglobulin, and platelet-derived growth factor.

This recruits and aggregates more platelets from the circulation onto the already adherent platelets.

When a vessel is disrupted, platelet adhesion occurs through the binding of collagen and vWF (found in the subendothelium) to the platelet membrane.

For platelet adhesion to occur, platelets must express specific glycoprotein Ib receptors on their surface to bind the vWF complex. If this specific glycoprotein is missing, platelets are unable to adhere to areas of injury.

Platelets in BernardSoulier syndrome lack glycoprotein Ib and are unable to adhere and form the initial hemostatic plug.

If the vWF is defective or deficient, platelets do not adhere to sites of vascular injury. The result is von Willebrand disease, of which several specific types and subtypes have been defined.

Very high concentrations of prostacyclin also can inhibit platelet adhesion to exposed subendothelium.

Platelet Aggregation
Aggregation is a complex reaction that involves platelet granule release, cleavage of membrane phospholipids by phospholipases A 2 and C, alterations in intracellular cyclic adenosine monophosphate levels, mobilization of intracellular calcium, and the expression of fibrinogen receptors on the platelet surface.

If fibrinogen receptors (glycoproteins IIb and IIIa) are missing, platelets do not aggregate.

This results in Glanzmann thrombasthenia, causing patients to have a serious, lifelong bleeding disorder.

After aggregation, platelets function to enhance thrombin formation.

The platelet membrane provides specific binding sites for factors Xa and V, causing effective assembly of the prothrombinase complex making thrombin.

Thrombin formation results in a stable hemostatic plug of adherent platelets surrounded by a network of fibrin strands.

Generation of Thrombin
Thrombin is the enzyme responsible for transforming liquid blood into a fibrin gel.

The initial activation of factor VII by tissue factor results in the production of thrombin by the extrinsic system.

Tissue factor is released only after injury to the endothelial cells.

The majority of thrombin production results from the activation of the intrinsic coagulation system, not the extrinsic system.

Exposed subendothelium converts factor XII to factor XIIa and thereby activates the intrinsic pathway, although deficits in factor XII do not cause a bleeding disorder.

Activation of factors XI and IX follows, and activated factor IX in combination with factor VIII, calcium, and platelet phospholipid activates factor X.

Activated factor VII, complexed with tissue factor, activates factor IX.

Factor Xa with factor V then cleaves prothrombin into the active molecule thrombin, which can convert fibrinogen into fibrin.

Formation of Fibrin
When thrombin acts on fibrinogen, fibrin monomers result after the proteolytic release of fibrinopeptides A and B.

The monomeric fibrin then polymerizes into a gel.

With additional stabilization of the fibrin gel provided by factor XIII, fibrin surrounds and stabilizes the platelet plug.

This process makes the multimeric fibrin more resistant to plasmin digestion and completes the formation and stabilization of the blood clot.

Several regulatory proteins serve to localize thrombin formation to the surface of the blood vessel.

Endothelial cells have receptors for protein C.

Protein S is a cofactor for the activation of protein C.

Thrombomodulin is an endothelial surface protein that acts in combination with thrombin to activate the bound protein C.

Activated protein C then degrades factors Va and VIIIa, which inhibit thrombin formation.

Heparin-like anticoagulant molecules, present on endothelial cells, act in combination with antithrombin III to inhibit factors XIIa, XIa, IXa, Xa, and thrombin.

Inhibition of these factors prevents the spread of clot to uninjured adjacent vessels and the blockage of large vessels by excessive clot formation.

Endothelial cells, as mentioned previously, produce PGI 2 (prostacyclin), a potent vasodilator and inhibitor of platelet aggregation and adhesion.

Fibrinolysis
The regulatory process that dissolves fibrin and preserves vessel patency is called fibrinolysis.

Circulating plasminogen is converted into plasmin by tissue plasminogen activators.

These activators are released from the vessel walls at the site of blood clotting. They bind to the fibrin clot and convert plasminogen to plasmin. Plasmin enzymatically degrades fibrin, fibrinogen, and other plasma proteins, and this process results in the dissolution of formed clot.

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4
Q

How are coagulopathies evaluated in the pediatric patient?

A

There is currently no completely reliable screening test available to evaluate hemostasis in preoperative patients.

A careful history, including a full family history, remains the best means of uncovering mild bleeding problems, including von Willebrand disease or qualitative platelet abnormalities.

These disorders may easily escape standard laboratory screening tests, such as prothrombin time (PT), activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), platelet count, and bleeding time. aPTT screening yields many false-positive results caused by both analytical problems and detection of clinically insignificant disorders.

In addition, a normal aPTT may lead to a false sense of safety because it does not exclude all serious bleeding disorders.

Because no method can reliably predict all bleeding complications, postoperative monitoring remains important for all patients.

Likewise, patients with mild disorders who have not previously undergone an operation may have no history of bleeding problems and might be identified preoperatively only if screening tests are performed.

It is important to consider the patient history and the family history as the most significant components of a diagnostic strategy, and to investigate any story of unusual bleeding in the patient or close relatives, even if the screening tests are normal.

Conversely, studies examining the utility of a screening preoperative PT and aPTT in patients undergoing tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy concluded that routine screening with a PT and aPTT for all patients regardless of history cannot be recommended.

In obtaining a history from the patient and parents, positive answers to the questions posed in Box 5.1 indicate the need for further evaluation.

If there is a history of abnormal bleeding, the following points must be established.

The type of bleeding (i.e., petechiae, purpura, ecchymosis, and single or generalized bleeding sites) can give an indication of the underlying defect.

Petechiae and purpura are most frequently associated with platelet abnormalities, either of function or numbers.

Von Willebrand disease is most frequently associated with mucosal bleeding, including epistaxis, whereas hemophilia is most often associated with bleeding into joints and muscle or soft tissue ecchymosis.

Bleeding when the umbilical cord separates is most often associated with a deficiency in factor XIII, as is unexplained bleeding in the central nervous system.

A single bleeding site, such as repetitive epistaxis from the same nostril, is frequently indicative of a localized, anatomic problem and not a system-wide coagulation defect.

The course or pattern of the bleeding (i.e., spontaneous or after trauma) and its frequency and duration is important, and the pattern of inheritance (i.e., X-linked or autosomal; recessive or dominant) can help narrow the differential diagnosis (e.g., hemophilia A and B are X-linked recessive diseases, whereas von Willebrand disease is autosomal dominant).

Any previous or current drug therapy must be fully documented, and a search is made for over-the-counter medications or dietary supplements that the patient might be taking but does not consider “medicine” and has therefore not mentioned. Aspirin, ibuprofen, cough medications containing guaifenesin, and antihistamines can lead to platelet dysfunction or uncover a previously undiagnosed bleeding disorder such as von Willebrand disease.

It is important to elicit the presence of other medical problems including renal failure with uremia, hepatic failure, malignancies, gastrointestinal malabsorption, vascular malformations, cardiac anomalies with or without repair, and autoimmune disorders because these may have associated coagulopathies.

The physical examination is used to help narrow the differential diagnosis and guide the laboratory investigation of hemostatic disorders.

Petechiae and purpuric bleeding occur with platelet and vascular abnormalities.

Mucocutaneous bleeding suggests a platelet disorder and includes petechiae, ecchymoses, epistaxis, and genitourinary and gastrointestinal bleeding.

Bleeding into potential spaces such as joints, fascial planes, and the retroperitoneum is instead suggestive of a coagulation factor deficiency.

Bleeding from multiple sites in an ill patient can be seen with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) or thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP).

Hemophilia patients often have palpable purpura and deep muscle bleeding that is painful, but may be difficult to detect.

Findings compatible with a collagen disorder include the body habitus of Marfan syndrome, blue sclerae, skeletal deformities, hyperextensible joints and skin, as well as nodular, spider-like, or pinpoint telangiectasia.

Organomegaly may suggest an underlying malignancy, whereas jaundice and hepatomegaly may be indicative of hepatic dysfunction.

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5
Q

What laboratory tests can aid in evaluating for coagulopathies?

A

When the bleeding history and/or family history suggest the possibility of a bleeding disorder, or if it is impossible to obtain a history due to family or social circumstances, or a very young patient who has not had any hemostatic challenges, it is customary to proceed with a series of laboratory investigations to look for a possible bleeding diagnosis.

Generally, screening tests are performed first and should include a complete blood count (CBC), PT, and aPTT (Fig. 5.3).

Additional tests can measure fibrinogen levels, assess the thrombin time, screen for inhibitors of specific coagulation factors, measure specific factor levels, and test for platelet function and von Willebrand disease.

Patients also can be evaluated for evidence of DIC by using multiple assays to test for the presence of various fibrinopeptides, consumption of fibrinogen, platelets or antithrombin, and products from the breakdown of fibrin or fibrinogen.

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6
Q

What is the significance of platelet count in the evaluation of coagulopathies?

A

The platelet count measures the adequacy of platelet numbers to provide initial hemostasis.

Thrombocytopenia (a platelet count of <150,000/μL) is one of the most common problems that occur in hospitalized patients.

As stated previously, typical manifestations include mucocutaneous bleeding.

The risk of bleeding is inversely proportional to the platelet count.

When the platelet count is <50,000/μL, minor bleeding occurs easily and the risk of major bleeding increases.

Counts between 20,000 and 50,000/μL predispose to bleeding with even minor trauma; with counts <20,000/μL, spontaneous bleeding may occur; with counts <5000/μL, severe spontaneous bleeding is more likely.

At the same time, patients with counts <10,000/μL may be asymptomatic for years.

Surgical bleeding does not usually occur until the platelet count is <50,000 platelets/μL.

A platelet count of <50,000/μL is considered a cut-off criterion for transfusions, and the prophylactic use of platelet transfusion may be indicated for any invasive procedure.

Patients with significant clinical bleeding and an abnormal platelet count should also be transfused with platelets.

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7
Q

What is the significance of bleeding time in the evaluation of coagulopathies?

A

The bleeding time is defined as the length of time required for a standardized incision to stop oozing blood that can be absorbed onto filter paper.

A variety of procedures have been used, but all have variable sensitivity and have been difficult to reproduce accurately, leading many centers to drop the bleeding time from the list of approved laboratory tests.

The PFA-100 Analyzer (Siemens Healthcare Diagnostics, Deerfield, IL) is now widely used as a replacement for the bleeding time.

It creates an in vitro high shear stress condition that results in the activation of platelet-dependent and vWF-dependent attachment, and aggregation of platelets to a collagen–ADP or collagen–epinephrine surface.

In most cases, the PFA-100 closure time is superior to the bleeding time in the detection of von Willebrand disease, aspirin effect, or platelet dysfunction.

However, test results can be influenced by the sample’s hematocrit. Although the PFA-100 does not detect all platelet dysfunctions or cases of von Willebrand disease, when used in conjunction with a standardized questionnaire, it will likely detect impaired hemostasis in most cases.

It can also produce false-positive test results.

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8
Q

What is the significance of prothrombin time (PT) in the evaluation of coagulopathies?

A

The PT is a measure of the function of the extrinsic and common coagulation pathways.

It represents the time (in seconds) for the patient’s plasma to clot after the addition of calcium and thromboplastin (an activator of the extrinsic pathway).

Isolated prolongation of the PT is seen most commonly in patients who are deficient in vitamin K due to previous antibiotic treatment.

It also occurs with factor VII deficiency, mild hypofibrinogenemia, dysfibrinogenemia, and warfarin therapy.

The PT may also be prolonged with significant liver dysfunction.

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9
Q

What is the significance of partial thromboplastin time (PTT) in the evaluation of coagulopathies?

A

The aPTT measures the function of the intrinsic and common coagulation pathways.

The aPTT represents the time (in seconds) for the patient’s plasma to clot after the addition of phospholipid, calcium, and an intrinsic pathway activator.

The aPTT detects deficiencies in factors XII, XI, IX, and VIII, and in the common pathway, but mild factor deficiencies may be missed.

The aPTT also is used to monitor anticoagulation with heparin.

Several inherited disorders of coagulation are not detected by the preceding tests.

Results from standard hemostatic screening tests, such as the PT and aPTT, are normal in factor XIII (FXIII) deficiency.

Therefore, assessment of clot stability is the most common screening test used for FXIII deficiency with a quantitative assay required to confirm the diagnosis of FXIII deficiency.

Von Willebrand disease patients may have normal or prolonged aPTTs, and patients with a deficiency in α-2-antiplasmin have a normal aPTT.

Both the PT and aPTT are prolonged in patients with deficiencies of factors X and V, prothrombin, and fibrinogen, and in patients with DIC or severe liver disease.

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10
Q

What is the significance of fibrinogen in the evaluation of coagulopathies?

A

The standard method for fibrinogen determination measures clottable fibrinogen by using a kinetic assay.

Normal levels of fibrinogen are 150–350 mg/dL.

As fibrinogen is the substrate for the final reaction in the formation of a clot and all plasma-based screening tests depend on the formation of a clot as the end point of the reaction, fibrinogen levels below 80 mg/dL prolong the PT, aPTT, and thrombin time, and therefore make the results uninterpretable.

Large amounts of fibrin degradation products interfere with the formation of fibrin and cause an artificially low level of measured fibrinogen.

An immunologic-based assay for fibrinogen is used to measure both clottable and nonclottable fibrinogen.

This test is most often used in identifying patients with a dysfibrinogenemia in whom the functional level of fibrinogen is low and the immunologic level is normal.

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11
Q

What is the significance of inhibitor screening tests in the evaluation of coagulopathies?

A

Repeating the PT or aPTT by using a 1:1 mix of patient plasma with normal plasma is a useful procedure for investigating a prolonged PT or aPTT.

Normal plasma has, by definition, 100% levels of all factors.

When mixed with an equal volume of patient plasma, if there is a minimum of 50% of any given factor present, the PT or aPTT should normalize.

Correction of the clotting time suggests the presence of a factor deficiency, whereas lack of normalization suggests the presence of an inhibitor that interferes with either thrombin or fibrin formation.

Two types of acquired inhibitors prolong the aPTT. One blocks or inactivates one of the intrinsic factors, whereas the other is a lupus-like inhibitor that interferes with phospholipid-based clotting reactions.

The first type of inhibitor occurs in 10–15% of hemophilia A patients and can occur spontaneously, but it is extremely rare in nonhemophiliac children.

The lupus-like inhibitor is associated not with bleeding problems but rather with an increased risk of thrombotic problems in adults.

Lupus-like inhibitors are mentioned because they commonly cause prolongations of the aPTT after viral infections in children.

Specific investigation of either of these situations should be referred to a coagulation reference laboratory.

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12
Q

What is the significance of platelet function studies in the evaluation of coagulopathies?

A

Platelet function studies measure in vitro platelet aggregation. In this test, platelet-rich plasma is incubated with an agonist and then changes are noted in the amount of light transmitted through the platelet suspension.

Agonists used to induce platelet aggregation include collagen, epinephrine, ADP, thrombin, and ristocetin.

Three distinct phases are seen in the reaction.

The first is an initial change in the shape of the platelets, leading to a temporary decrease in light transmission.

Next is the first wave of aggregation, which is a reversible platelet-platelet interaction.

With additional stimulation, the final phase, and the second wave of aggregation, occurs, and produces irreversible platelet aggregation.

The second wave of aggregation is due to release of the platelet granules and thromboxane A2 synthesis.

The release reaction is blocked by aspirin and is absent in patients with an inherited storage pool defect, congenital deficiency in thromboxane A2 synthesis, or cyclooxygenase deficiency.

The PFA-100 has become the test of choice to replace the bleeding time and is used to screen for a variety of disorders, but full characterization of platelet function requires traditional platelet aggregation studies in a specialized laboratory.

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13
Q

What is the significance of specific factor assays in the evaluation of coagulopathies?

A

Specific factor assays are available for all known coagulation, fibrinolysis, and anticoagulation factors to quantify their levels in plasma.

These tests are not indicated unless a screening test result is abnormal.

The only exception involves the patient with a history that is suggestive of von Willebrand disease, factor XIII deficiency, or dysfibrinogenemia.

In these cases, the aPTT may not be sensitive enough to detect the disorder.

Further testing may be justified on clinical suspicion based on the patient’s history.

For von Willebrand disease, the workup consists of measuring factor VIII levels, vWF antigen levels, ristocetin cofactor activity, and ristocetin-induced platelet aggregation.

Analysis of the distribution of vWF multimers and vWF-collagen binding assays can be useful to the hematologist in identifying the specific type of von Willebrand disease.

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14
Q

What tests can be done for disseminated intravascular coagulation?

A

The tests that are available in most hospital laboratories for identification of DIC are semiquantitative fibrin or fibrinogen degradation product assays, which involve a slide agglutination procedure or a d-dimer assay.

An increased amount of these degradation products suggests that either plasmin has circulated to lyse fibrin, or the patient’s hepatic function is insufficient to clear the small amounts of regularly produced degradation products.

The d-dimer test is a slide agglutination procedure that tests for the presence of two d subunits of fibrin that are cross-linked by factor XIII. This test provides specific evidence that plasmin has digested the fibrin clot and not fibrinogen.

It is positive in patients with DIC, in patients with resolving large intravascular clots, gastrointestinal bleeding, after major surgery, and in patients with hepatic insufficiency.

Specific assays to demonstrate the presence of soluble fibrin monomer complexes or fibrinopeptides produced by the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin are also useful in some situations and available in specialized laboratories.

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15
Q

What is the significance of the thromboelastograph in the evaluation of coagulopathies?

A

The thromboelastograph (TEG) and rotational thromboelastometry (ROTEM) are used as a functional measure of whole blood coagulation in pediatric cardiac surgical and liver transplant patients, and are a useful monitor in patients with major trauma and patients with coagulation deficits.

ROTEM is a newer technology compared with TEG, requires less blood, and is less likely to show abnormal results that are due to mechanical shock.

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16
Q

What is the significance of flow cytometry in the evaluation of coagulopathies?

A

Flow cytometry is a measure of quantitative surface glycoprotein and can be used to diagnose platelet disorders such as Glanzmann thrombasthenia, Bernard–Soulier syndrome, δ-granule defect, and glycoprotein VI (GPVI) deficiency associated with platelet collagen receptor deficiency.

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17
Q

What is the management for Hemophilia A and B?

A

Hemophilia A and B are X-linked recessive bleeding disorders caused by decreased levels of functional procoagulant factor VIII (FVIII) and factor IX (FIX), respectively.

Approximately 80% of all hemophilia patients have FVIII deficiency, which is classic hemophilia.

The remaining 20% have FIX deficiency, which is also called Christmas disease.

These are rare disorders, with a prevalence of only 13.4/100,000 males.

Until 1964, the treatment of hemophilia was limited by volume restrictions imposed by the use of whole blood or fresh frozen plasma.

At that time, the FVIII-rich fraction of fresh frozen plasma (known as cryoprecipitate) was discovered.

Specific lyophilized FVIII concentrates were developed to treat hemophilia A as were prothrombin concentrates containing factors II, VII, IX, and X used for treating hemophilia B. This was followed by the development of more highly purified plasmaderived FVIII and FIX concentrates, and then recombinant FVIII and FIX concentrates.

Concentrates containing both factor VIII and vWF for the treatment of von Willebrand disease have also been developed.

The lyophilized factor concentrates have allowed storage of the clotting factors using standard refrigeration or room temperature in recent years, and have permitted the outpatient treatment of bleeding episodes plus the development of home selfinfusion programs.

These advances, combined with the development of comprehensive hemophilia treatment centers, have produced a remarkable change in the outlook for these patients who previously developed significant joint deformities in their teens to 20s and were not expected to live past their 20s.

Home therapy has decreased the damage caused by hemarthroses, with hemophiliac children born since the mid-1970s having fewer joint deformities than do older hemophilia patients.

These factor concentrates have allowed operations to be performed with much less risk, even to the point that orthopedic procedures can be safely performed.

Moreover, the federally funded Comprehensive Hemophilia Surveillance System has shown a 40% reduction in mortality for hemophilia patients by providing expert subspecialty care for these rare disorders.

Viral infections transmitted by cryoprecipitate and factor concentrates were the major problem faced by hemophilia patients in the late 1970s to mid-1980s. Approximately 60% of all hemophilia patients became human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive in the 1980s. Hepatitis C is the other major viral infection that can be transmitted by plasma-derived factor concentrates used to treat hemophilia. Estimates from the mid-1980s are that more than 90% of multiply transfused hemophiliacs are positive for non-A, non-B hepatitis, and that more than 95% had been infected with hepatitis B.

A different study showed that 75% of HIV-negative hemophilia patients, treated with earlier plasma-derived factor concentrates, have evidence of hepatitis C infection.

No documented cases of HIV or hepatitis C transmission by clotting factor concentrates after 1987 are known.

Since 1993, recombinant-produced FVIII concentrates have been available. Currently, multiple virally inactivated plasma-derived and recombinant FVIII and FIX concentrates are used for the treatment of patients with newly diagnosed hemophilia A and B.

Also, extended half-life FVIII and FIX concentrates are being used as replacement therapy for hemophilia, significantly improving treatment options for therapeutic and prophylactic therapy for these patients.

Hemophilia patients can be classified into three categories based on their level of circulating factor.

Severe hemophiliacs (factor levels below 1%) have a high risk of bleeding and are managed with factor prophylaxis to prevent joint damage. Bleeding occurs in areas subjected to minor trauma. Hemarthroses, hematomas, and ecchymoses are common. Recurrent hemarthroses can cause pseudotumors of the bone, whereas hematomas cause ischemic compartment syndromes.

In moderate hemophiliacs (factor levels of 1–5%), spontaneous hemorrhage occurs infrequently but relatively minor trauma can cause bleeding into joints or soft tissues.

Mild hemophiliacs, with levels >5%, rarely have clinical bleeding problems with routine activities and typically have problems only with major trauma and with surgical or dental procedures.

Some mild hemophiliacs may not be diagnosed until late childhood or adulthood. Therefore, the history may not be helpful in alerting the pediatric surgeon about the risk of bleeding.

Moreover, because one-third of all cases of hemophilia are caused by new mutations, there may not be a family history to arouse suspicion of a bleeding problem.

Preoperative laboratory testing may be the only means by which mild hemophilia is diagnosed.

The need for surgical intervention in hemophilia patients most frequently center on areas of damage secondary to bleeding episodes.

In 1985, the results of a review of 350 consecutive operations performed at the Orthopedic Hospital in Los Angeles were published. Although this is a dated study, it remains one of the seminal papers describing hemophilia patients undergoing a surgical procedure, and the lessons learned are still valuable today. As the study represented patients from before the start of home therapy and comprehensive care, it was expected that this group would have significant orthopedic problems secondary to multiple hemarthroses. Of the 350 procedures reviewed, 312 were characterized as serious and 38 of lesser intensity; 318 operations were on hemophiliacs with moderate and severe hemophilia; and 30 were on patients with mild hemophilia. As expected, musculoskeletal procedures made up two-thirds of all operations on moderate and severe hemophiliacs and half of all operations on mild hemophiliacs.

Interestingly, bleeding problems during the operation were not observed, but 23% of all serious operations were complicated by postoperative hemorrhages. Only operations on the knee had more postoperative hemorrhages (40%). Operations on other joints and soft tissue areas had similar rates of complications (15%). Most of the postoperative hemorrhages occurred with plasma factor levels greater than 30%, which is the minimum level that is considered hemostatic.

The authors also noted that the incidence of postoperative hemorrhage decreased after postoperative day 11.

Interestingly, other studies have found that vigorous physical therapy may cause postoperative hemorrhage and have therefore recommended the continuation of factor replacement throughout the period of physical therapy.

The management of the hemophilic patient requires close cooperation among surgeons, hematologists, and personnel in the hemophilia center, the coagulation laboratory, and the pharmacy or blood bank.

Careful preoperative planning is essential to the success of the intervention, and an adequate supply of clotting factor concentrate must be available before admission to cover the child’s needs.

The patient also must be screened for the presence of an inhibitor to either FVIII or FIX during the 1–2 months before the operation.

A low-titer inhibitor may be overcome with increased doses of factor, but high-titer inhibitors may require the use of activated prothrombin complex concentrate (factor eight inhibitor bypassing activity [FEIBA]) or recombinant activated factor VII (rFVII) to bypass the effect of the antibody against either FVIII or FIX.

These patients have been desensitized with daily doses of human factor concentrate over a period of months to years, restoring their response to regular infusions of FVIII or FIX.

At our institution, on the day of operation, the hemophilia patient receives a bolus dose of factor (usually 50 units/kg of FVIII in hemophilia A patients), and a continuous infusion of 4–6 units/kg/h of FVIII (for the hemophilia A patient) is started to maintain a factor level greater than 80% for the next 1–2 days.

The factor level is checked immediately before the operation and is the final screen for the presence of an inhibitor and attainment of adequate hemostasis.

The infusion is maintained throughout the procedure and is then reduced on the second or third postoperative day to allow the plasma levels to decrease to 50%.

Replacement is continued for a full 10–14 days.

Daily factor levels for the first 3–4 days are necessary to ensure appropriate levels, and intermittent levels should be checked after that for as long as the patient is on a continuous factor infusion.

For neurosurgical or orthopedic procedures, much longer periods of factor coverage—even 4–6 weeks—are utilized, especially if significant physical therapy is planned.

Many hemophilia patients perform their own factor infusions at home supported by home care pharmacies.

With the advent of home nursing services, patients are being discharged home with prolonged periods of factor coverage.

Hemophilia center personnel must be closely involved in the planning of these discharges to ensure that sufficient clotting factor is available at home and that close follow-up is maintained during periods of scheduled home therapy.

Hemophilia patients should not receive any compounds that contain aspirin or ibuprofen.

Any minor procedures that require factor correction should be combined with the major procedure, if possible, to save on the use of factor concentrate.

Previously, the hemophilia B patient undergoing an operation had specific problems because of the thrombogenic risk inherent in the use of older FIX concentrates.

Since the advent of newer, more purified plasma-derived and recombinant-produced FIX concentrates, operative interventions in hemophilia B patients have been performed without excess thrombotic problems.

Also, continuous infusions of FIX can be used, but the longer half-live of FIX means that daily dosing of factor concentrate can provide excellent hemostasis.

H&A

18
Q

What is the recommended dosing for clotting factors?

A

FVIII is dosed differently from FIX, due to their different half-lives.

FVIII has an 8- to 12-hour half-life, and the infusion of 1 unit/kg of body weight increases the plasma level by 2%.

If a severe hemophilia A patient weighs 50 kg, an infusion of 25 units/kg, or 1250 units, of FVIII will raise his factor level to 50%.

FIX has a half-life of 24 hours and must be infused in larger amounts than FVIII to raise the plasma level.

Infusion of 1 unit/kg of FIX will raise the plasma level only by 1%.

Continuous infusion of highly purified FIX, as well as FVIII, has been shown to prevent excessive peaks and troughs of factor levels, is simpler to manage, and decreases the cost by decreasing the overall amount of factor used.

It has not been shown to cause any problems with excess thrombosis.

The longest available recombinant FIX has a marked variability in dose response to infusions, and individual recovery studies may be needed before it is used for surgical hemostasis.

Often, a 20% increase in dose is needed to achieve the same factor levels as obtained by use of plasmaderived FIX.

H&A

19
Q

What are considerations regarding neonatal hemostasis?

A

The newborn’s coagulation system is not fully mature until 6 months after birth.

The lower levels of procoagulant, fibrinolytic, and anticoagulant proteins in neonatal patients complicate both operations and the care of sick and preterm infants.

Platelet counts are within the usual adult normal ranges. These platelets have a lower function than those of adults, but enough to produce a normal bleeding time.

Because circulating coagulation factors do not cross the placenta, infants with inherited deficiencies of clotting factors, fibrinolytic proteins, or natural anticoagulants can initially be seen in the neonatal period.

Levels of fibrinogen, factors V and VIII, and vWF are within the adult normal range at birth.

All other procoagulants are normally at reduced levels, depending on gestational age. Vitamin K–dependent factors may become further depressed in infants who are breast fed and not given vitamin K at birth.

Of more concern are the low levels of anticoagulant and fibrinolytic proteins. Very low levels of protein C have been associated with purpura fulminans in newborns.

In sick infants, levels of antithrombin III and plasminogen may be inadequate to deal with increased levels of clot-promoting activity in the blood.

Sick infants with indwelling catheters are at significant risk of thrombotic complications.

H&A

20
Q

What is the pathogenesis and treatment of DIC?

A

The pathogenesis of DIC involves excessive thrombin generation with loss of localization, degradation and dysfunction of the anticoagulation pathway, impaired fibrinolysis, derangement of microvascular endothelium—all resulting in intravascular fibrin deposition.

DIC can manifest as hemorrhage due to depletion of clotting factors and/or massive thromboembolic disease and contribute to multiple organ dysfunction and death.

It may follow sepsis, hypotension, hypoxemia, trauma, malignancy, burns, and extracorporeal circulation.

Acute DIC is associated with the consumption of factors II, V, VIII, X, and XIII, as well as fibrinogen, antithrombin III, plasminogen, and platelets.

Review of the peripheral smear usually shows a microangiopathic hemolytic anemia.

The PT and aPTT may both be prolonged, and the fibrinogen level decreases as the DIC worsens.

The presence of d-dimers may indicate the presence of DIC, but they may also be elevated due to thrombus or hepatic dysfunction.

Antithrombin III levels may be low, and antithrombin III concentrates have been used as part of the treatment of DIC due to septic shock.

However, adult studies have not shown any improvement in mortality for patients with septicemia treated with antithrombin III.

At present, the major therapy for DIC is correction of the underlying disorder and replacement with fresh frozen plasma and platelet transfusions as needed to support hemostasis.

Low-dose heparin infusions have also not been shown to appreciably improve the outcome.

H&A

21
Q

How are quantitative and qualitative platelet disorders managed?

A

Thrombocytopenias are caused by either inadequate production of platelets by the bone marrow, or by increased destruction or sequestration of the platelets in the circulation.

The history and physical examination may be suggestive of a diagnosis that can be confirmed by laboratory testing.

Medication use, a family history of blood disorders, a history of recent viral infection, short stature, absent thumbs or radii, or a congenital malformation may indicate a defect in platelet production.

The destruction may be immunologic, as in immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP); mechanical, as in septicemia; or drug induced, as in patients with sensitivity to heparin or cimetidine.

Establishing the cause of the thrombocytopenia determines the therapy needed to restore the platelet count in preparing the patient for operation.

The clinical response to therapeutic modalities, such as a platelet transfusion, can be important tests and can help direct further investigations.

In patients with immune-based platelet consumptions, such as ITP, usually no response is found to platelet transfusion.

Moreover, only a very short response may be seen in patients with other causes of increased consumption.

Management of the child is then aimed at reducing the consumption and should involve consultation with a hematologist about the use of FFP, clotting factor or platelet transfusions, the discontinuation of medications, and other treatment modalities.

If the thrombocytopenia is caused by a lack of production of platelets, due to either aplastic anemia, malignancy, or chemotherapy, transfusion with platelet concentrates to increase the platelet count above a minimum of 50,000/μL will allow minor procedures to be performed safely.

Most surgeons and anesthesiologists prefer for the platelet count to be greater than 100,000/μL before major surgery.

Continued monitoring of the platelet count is vital because further transfusions may be needed to keep the platelet count above 50,000/μL for 3–5 days after operation.

Qualitative platelet defects can be caused by rare congenital defects such as Bernard–Soulier syndrome, Glanzmann thrombasthenia, or platelet storage pool disease.

Alternatively, they can be caused by drug ingestions such as an aspirin-induced cyclooxygenase deficiency. In these situations, transfusion of normal donor platelets provides adequate hemostasis for the operation.

Discontinuation of all aspirin-containing products 1 week before operation permits correction of the cyclooxygenase deficiency as new platelets are produced.

H&A

22
Q

How are disorders of thrombin generation and fibrin formation managed?

A

Patients with rare deficiencies of other clotting factors, such as factors XI, X, VII, V, prothrombin, and fibrinogen, can have clinical bleeding depending on the level of deficiency.

Most of these disorders are inherited in an autosomal recessive manner and therefore can affect both male and female patients.

Replacement therapy with FFP or, in certain situations, with prothrombin complex concentrates corrects the deficiency, and should be conducted under the direction of a hematologist.

Vitamin K deficiency, both in the neonatal period and from malabsorption, can cause deficiencies of factors II, VII, IX, and X.

Treatment with 1–2 mg of intravenous vitamin K may begin to correct the deficiencies within 4–6 hours.

However, if a procedure is contemplated, FFP (15 mL/kg) should be given with the vitamin K.

Also, the PT should be monitored for correction of the coagulopathy before the operation and repeat FFP dosing given if the PT does not fully correct.

Prothrombin complex concentrates are also used in the rapid reversal of warfarin therapy, particularly where the patient cannot tolerate large FFP infusion volumes.

Laboratory monitoring should be maintained during the postoperative period to ensure continuation of the appropriate factor levels.

Patients with FXIII deficiency often present with delayed bleeding from the umbilical cord, rebleeding from wounds, intracranial hemorrhage, poor wound healing, and pregnancy complications that include miscarriage, antepartum hemorrhage, and postpartum hemorrhage.

These problems may be treated with relatively small amounts of FFP (5–10 mL/kg).

Because FXIII has a half-life of six days, this treatment is usually needed only once to stop bleeding or at the time of operation.

Patients with dysfibrinogenemia or afibrinogenemia may be given FFP or cryoprecipitate.

There are also fibrinogen concentrates now available for these conditions as well.

H&A

23
Q

How are fibrinolytic and thrombotic disorders managed?

A

Failure to control excess fibrinolysis can result in a bleeding problem, and deficiencies of the naturally occurring anticoagulants may result in excess clot formation.

A severe hemorrhagic disorder due to a deficiency of α-2-antiplasmin has responded to treatment with aminocaproic acid or tranexamic acid, both antifibrinolytic agents.

Tranexamic acid (TXA) has proven to be successful in reducing mortality in adult bleeding trauma patients.

The Hospital for Sick Children has developed a massive transfusion protocol for the indication and dosing of TXA in pediatric trauma.

The protocol recommends an immediate need for transfusion with signs of shock such as low systolic blood pressure (<80 mmHg <5 years and <90 mmHg more than 5 years), poor blood pressure response to crystalloid 20–40 mL/kg, or obvious significant bleeding.

The recommended dosing of TXA for pediatric trauma is as follows:

For age >12 years: 1 g IV over 10 min within the first 3 hours, followed by a subsequent dose of 1 g IV over 8 hours.

For age <12 years: 15 mg/kg IV over 10 minutes, with a maximum dose of 1 g within 3 hours, followed by a subsequent dose of 2 mg/kg/h IV over 8 hours or until bleeding stops.

Congenital antithrombin III, protein S, and protein C deficiencies are associated with recurrent thrombosis and are usually controlled with oral anticoagulants.

Factor V Leiden, prothrombin G20210A, and other activated protein C resistance gene mutations will cause or add additional risk for thrombosis in proportion to their homozygous or heterozygous states.

Discontinuation of the anticoagulation is needed before an operation.

The patients will require replacement therapy during the procedure and in the postoperative period until the anticoagulation can be restarted.

Depending on the deficiency, antithrombin III concentrates or FFP can be used for replacement therapy.

H&A

24
Q

What is the role of recombinant activated factor VII?

A

Recombinant activated factor VII (rFVIIa) was developed for the treatment of bleeding in patients with hemophilia A or B who had inhibitors, and was approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for this indication in 1999.

Good hemostasis with few side effects has been found in patients with intracranial hemorrhage, postlaparotomy and postpartum hemorrhage, hemorrhage into the gluteal muscles (as a complication after cholecystectomy), and for surgical prophylaxis for major and minor procedures.

Home treatment programs for those hemophilia patients with inhibitors now use rFVIIa as front-line therapy for bleeding.

Factor VIIa was approved by the FDA in 2006 for its use in acquired hemophilia with inhibitors to FVIII or FIX, and in 2014 for Glanzman thrombosthenemia patients with platelet refractoriness.

Children have a more rapid rate of clearance of rFVIIa (elimination mean half-life, 1.32 hours in children vs 2.74 hours in adults).

They also seem to have fewer side effects with this treatment.

Although various dosages and schedules have been studied, initial recommended therapy in hemophilia A or B with inhibitors is 90 mg/kg intravenously every 2 hours until the bleeding is controlled.

The FDA has also approved the use of rFVIIa in congenital FVII deficiency.

The recommended dose is 15–30 μg/kg every 4–6 hours until bleeding is controlled.

The off-label use of rFVIIa has been reported in therapy-resistant severe bleeding from other conditions such as active bleeding in trauma, spontaneous intracranial hemorrhage (ICH), chronic liver disease, and inherited platelet disorders.

The reported dosages have ranged from 5–300 ug/kg/dose.

Successes in patients without a known bleeding disorder who have trauma or postoperative hemorrhage have also been described.

These reports should be interpreted with caution because rFVIIa is currently not the standard of care in any of these off-label uses and exceptional circumstances impelled its use.

It is highly recommended that rFVIIa be administered under the supervision of a physician experienced in its use who can anticipate the risks and respond to the complications, particularly the risk of thrombosis, which are reported in 1–3% of patients.

rFVIIa shows great promise in the emergency treatment of uncontrolled hemorrhage for many situations, and is becoming part of the standard of care for the treatment of ICH.

H&A

25
Q

What is sickle cell disease?

A

Sickle cell disease (SCD) is really a spectrum of diseases.

It is caused by defects in the beta globin gene (HBB gene) and is the most common autosomal recessive genetic disorder in the United States.

It is more common among those with ancestors from sub-Saharan Africa; Spanish-speaking regions in the Western Hemisphere (South American, the Caribbean, and Central America); Saudi Arabia; India; and Mediterranean countries such as Turkey, Greece, and Italy.

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) estimates that SCD affects about 100,000 Americans. One in every 365 black births and about 1 in 16,300 Hispanic births in the United States are affected with SCD.

The defect in the HBB gene leads to the production of abnormal hemoglobin and most commonly results in hemoglobin S (HbS).

The percentage of HbS is what determines the severity of the disease and the resulting complications.

Other variants of HBB gene defects result in HbC and HbE.

A quantitative defect of beta globin production can lead to β-thalassemia.

The homozygous form leads to HbSS and HbCC disease.

A heterozygous defect for the HBB gene can cause either sickle cell trait, combined hemoglobin S and C disease (HbSC disease), combined sickle cell and β-thalassemia with some normal hemoglobin production (HbSβ+), sickle cell and beta zero thalassemia (HbSβ0) with no normal hemoglobin production, or HbS with fetal hemoglobin (HbS/HPFH).

It is important to appreciate that HbSβ+ and HbS/HPFH are usually benign compared with HbSS and HbSβ0 thalassemia, both of which are considered to be sickle cell anemia.

About 70–90% of the hemoglobin in patients with sickle cell anemia is abnormal, whereas only 35–45% of the hemoglobin is abnormal in sickle cell trait (HbS) patients.

The life span of the red blood cell (RBC) in the sickle cell anemia patient is reduced due to sickling, which leads to anemia.

HbSS and HbSβ0 patients have low total hemoglobin, which contributes to the severity of these diseases.

Also, hemoglobin S polymerizes during hypoxia, dehydration, metabolic acidosis, infection, hematologic instability, hypovolemia, etc., which also leads to sickling and occluded blood vessels, leading to tissue ischemia and organ damage.

Thus, patients with HbSS and HbSβ0 who require anesthesia and surgery are at a high risk of serious complications.

These patients can also present with acute or chronic vasoocclusive disease and chronic hemolytic anemia.

The spleen is subjected to frequent autoinfarction in these patients, and they usually have functional asplenia in childhood.

The rate of complications is higher in HbSS and HbSβ0 disease compared with patients with HbSC disease.

Patients with HbS (sickle cell trait) and HPFH have near normal hemoglobin, and their life span is relatively normal.

Due to complications from SCD, these patients often need operative management.

Commonly needed operations include cholecystectomy, tonsillectomy/adenoidectomy, splenectomy, umbilical hernia repair, appendectomy, and orthopedic procedures.

An elective operation decreases the risk of morbidity when compared with emergency procedures.

Major postoperative complications include atelectasis, pneumonitis, pulmonary infarction, and infection.

In one recent series, the incidence of acute chest syndrome was highest among related morbidities at 3% of patients undergoing elective surgery. A stroke developed in 0.2% of the patients.

Perioperative and postoperative evaluation to optimize normal physiology, adequate hydration, acid–base balance, tissue perfusion, normothermia, oxygenation, pain management, transfusion, and less invasive procedures is important in these patients.

Children with SCD often require surgical evaluation and treatment either because of complications of their SCD or from unrelated processes.

Moreover, symptoms associated with vaso-occlusive episodes, such as abdominal pain and bone pain with fever, may be difficult to distinguish from other pathologic processes, such as cholecystitis and osteomyelitis.

The differential diagnosis for acute abdominal pain in a patient with SCD includes an uncomplicated sickle cell acute pain episode (“crisis”), cholelithiasis, appendicitis, pancreatitis, ulcer, constipation, pneumonia, pericarditis, and splenic sequestration. Complications such as splenic or hepatic sequestration are unique problems in patients with this disease.

Whereas 50% of painful episodes include abdominal pain, they are usually associated with pain in the chest, back, and joints.

However, although previous episodes of pain that are similar in character suggest a sickle cell painful episode the incidence of gallstones, peptic ulcer disease, and pyelonephritis is increased in these patients.

Abdominal pain as a solitary symptom, especially when accompanied by fever, leukocytosis, and localized abdominal tenderness, is suggestive of pathology other than that which occurs with a sickle cell painful episode.

A study that reviewed the presentation and management of acute abdominal conditions in adults with SCD suggested that a surgical condition is more likely if the pain does not resemble previous painful episodes and if no precipitating event is found.

Acute painful crises were relieved within 48 hours with hydration and oxygen in 97% of patients, whereas no patient with a surgical disease achieved pain relief over the same period with this treatment.

In this study, the leukocyte count and serum bilirubin were not helpful in establishing the correct diagnosis.

Vaso-occlusive episodes can also produce bone pain and fever, symptoms that are difficult to differentiate from those of osteomyelitis.

The majority of bone pain in SCD is due to vaso-occlusion, but osteomyelitis secondary to Salmonella species or Staphylococcus aureus is not infrequent.

The presence of an immature leukocyte count or elevation of the sedimentation rate, C-reactive protein, or leukocyte alkaline phosphatase is suggestive of a bone infection and may be an indication for aspiration of the bone lesion.

Radiographic studies including plain films, bone scan, or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are generally less helpful but may be useful in arriving at the proper diagnosis when positive, and when combined with the appropriate clinical findings.

H&A

26
Q

What comprises the preoperative assessment and management of sickle cell disease in pediatric patients?

A

An optimal outcome requires careful preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative management by a team consisting of the surgeon, anesthesiologist, and hematologist.

Potential sickle cell-related complications include acute chest syndrome, pain episodes, hyperhemolytic crisis, aplastic crisis, alloimmunization with delayed transfusion reactions, and infections.

The outcome of children with SCD requiring a procedure is improved by careful attention to the cardiorespiratory, hemodynamic, hydration, infectious, neurologic, and nutritional status of the child.

If possible, procedures should be performed when the child is in his or her usual state of health with regard to their SCD.

Attention should be directed toward chronic manifestations of disease because predictors of a poor postoperative outcome include increased age, recent exacerbations of the disease, and preexisting infection and pregnancy.

Particular attention should be directed toward any recent history of acute chest syndrome, pneumonia, wheezing, and
alloimmumization.

Special efforts must be made to avoid perioperative hypoxia, hypothermia, acidosis, and dehydration because any of these events can result in serious morbidity.

Many centers perform preoperative transfusions with the aim of reducing the complications of surgery and anesthesia.

Although dated, the largest study that examined the role of transfusion in the preoperative management of sickle cell anemia was a randomized study that compared exchange transfusion (with a goal of achieving an Hb value of >10 g/dL and HbS [sickle hemoglobin] value of <30%) versus simple transfusion (to achieve an Hb value of >10 g/ dL). This study concluded that not only was simple transfusion as effective as exchange transfusion in preventing perioperative complications, but it also provided a significantly lower rate of transfusion-related complications. The findings and recommendations from this study are still currently relevant.

The question about which procedures are safe to perform in children with SCD without preoperative transfusion remains controversial because there is a lack of randomized controlled trials to answer this question.

However, transfusion only to increase the Hb level to 10 g/dL for major procedures and blood replacement for both profound anemia of less than 5 g/dL and intraoperative hemorrhage appear appropriate.

Several studies suggest that minor procedures can be safely undertaken without transfusion.

Alloimmunization is minimized by using antigen-matched blood (matched for K, C, E, S, Fy, and Jk antigens).

Regardless of transfusion status, strong multidisciplinary collaboration is vital throughout the perioperative period.

H&A

27
Q

How is sickle cell disease managed intraoperatively?

A

Anesthetic considerations are based more on the type of operation than on the presence of SCD because no single anesthetic technique has been shown to be the gold standard.

However, regional anesthetic techniques may allow for opioid sparing postoperatively.

The goals of anesthetic management are to avoid factors that predispose the patient to sickling (e.g., hypoxemia, hypothermia, dehydration, and acidosis).

Careful monitoring for hypoxia, hypothermia, acidosis, and dehydration is essential.

Monitoring should include arterial blood gases, digital oxygen saturation, end-tidal carbon dioxide, temperature, electrocardiogram, blood pressure, and urine output.

H&A

28
Q

How is sickle cell disease managed postoperatively?

A

As with the preoperative and intraoperative time periods, it is important to prevent hypothermia, hypoxia, and hypotension throughout the postoperative period.

Before extubation, the patient should be awake and well oxygenated.

Once extubated, the patient should be carefully monitored with a digital oxygen saturation monitor and the pulmonary status critically assessed on a continuing basis.

Continuous pulse oximetry is important in the early postoperative period.

Assessment of the child’s fluid status should continue until he/she has resumed adequate oral intake and is able to maintain hydration without intravenous supplementation.

All patients should receive incentive spirometry as well as adequate hydration and oxygenation.

Appropriate levels of analgesia (preferably by a continuous intravenous line and patient-controlled analgesia, if appropriate) should be provided so the child is comfortable for ambulation and for vigorous pulmonary toilet.

The patient must be monitored closely for the occurrence of pulmonary edema or atelectasis that can progress to acute chest syndrome.

H&A

29
Q

What is the role of adenotonsillectomy in sickle cell disease patients?

A

Children with SCD are at an increased risk of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) compared with children without SCD.

The two contributory factors are adenotonsillar hypertrophy caused by compensatory lymphoid tissue hyperplasia (from functional asplenia and chronic infection), and changes in facial bone structure due to chronic hemolysis.

Children with OSA can have nocturnal hypoxemia that is a risk factor for vaso-occlusive painful episodes, pulmonary hypertension, and ischemic cerebrovascular accidents.

SCD children with adenoid hypertrophy need evaluation by an otolaryngologist prior to an adenotonsillectomy procedure.

This operation is classified as a moderate risk surgery, and the evidence supports preoperative transfusion.

Clinicians should be aware that postoperative complications are higher in younger SCD patients with OSA.

Abdominal operations such as cholecystectomy and splenectomy are the most frequent abdominal procedures in patients with SCD.

The reported prevalence of cholelithiasis varies from 4–55%.

This wide variation is dependent on the ages of the study population and the diagnostic modalities used.

We routinely screen symptomatic children with ultrasonography and serum studies (e.g., total and direct bilirubin, serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase, serum glutamate-pyruvate transaminase, alkaline phosphatase, and γ-glutamyl-transpeptidase).

It is our practice to screen all SCD children for gallstones no later than age 12 years.

A child with SCD and symptomatic cholelithiasis should undergo laparoscopic cholecystectomy after appropriate preoperative preparation to avoid the increased morbidity of an emergency operation on an unprepared patient.

The utility of laparoscopic cholecystectomy in SCD was first reported in 1990. Since that time, laparoscopic cholecystectomy has been performed with increasing frequency in children with SCD.

The advantages of laparoscopic cholecystectomy over open cholecystectomy are decreased pain, earlier feeding, earlier discharge, earlier return to school, and improved cosmesis.

A 2014 report by the expert panel of the National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute recommends treating acute cholecystitis in SCD patients with antibiotics and surgical consultation. The report also recommends treating asymptomatic gallstones with watchful waiting and also recommends laparoscopic cholecystectomy for symptoms specific to gallstones.

H&A

30
Q

How is sickle cell disease with splenic sequestration managed?

A

Splenic sequestration is defined as a decrease in hemoglobin by 2 g/dL below the baseline along with splenic enlargement.

Splenic sequestration can occur as early as several months of age, but is generally more common during ages 1–4 years in HbSS disease.

In HgbSC disease and HbSβ+ thalassemia, splenic sequestration usually occurs later in childhood or adult life.

Splenic sequestration is the second most common cause of mortality in children younger than 5 years of age.

Patients usually present with the acute onset of pain, enlargement of mass in left upper quadrant, pallor, listlessness, a decrease in hemoglobin and platelet counts, and an increase in nucleated red blood cells.

It now appears that parental education along with earlier recognition and immediate treatment with volume support (including RBC transfusions) has resulted in significantly decreased mortality for this condition.

It is rare for an otherwise uncomplicated patient with HbSS disease who is older than 6 years of age to develop acute splenic sequestration syndrome.

However, as mentioned previously, patients with HbSC and HbSβ+ thalassemia disease usually experience splenic sequestration at an older age.

The management of the SCD child with splenic sequestration can be difficult.

The rate of recurrent splenic sequestration is high and greatly influences subsequent management, which can be divided into observation only, chronic transfusion, and splenectomy.

Indications for each approach are not clearly defined.

The benefit of splenectomy must be balanced with the increased risk of overwhelming bacterial sepsis in the younger asplenic SCD patient.

Partial splenectomy and, especially, laparoscopic splenectomy are being performed more commonly.

H&A

31
Q

How is retinopathy in sickle cell disease managed?

A

Ophthalmic complications including proliferative sickle cell retinopathy (PSCR) are more common in HbSC disease due to increased viscosity.

Approximately 15% of HbSS and 11% of HbSβ0 patients and 8–20% pediatric patients with HbSC disease develop sickle cell retinopathy.

Risk factor analysis based on retrospective studies has shown that male gender, a history of recurrent painful episode and splenic sequestration correspond to a higher risk for PSCR.

Hemoglobin higher than 12.5 g/dL and low fetal hemoglobin levels were found to be independent risk factors.

PSCR is staged I to IV according to the Goldberg Classification.

Treatment is stage dependent.

Photocoagulation is the treatment of choice at stages III and IV.

Approximately 5–10% of patients have vision loss without treatment.

At our institution, we recommend an annual ophthalmology evaluation for SCD patients starting at 7 years of age.

H&A

32
Q

How is avascular necrosis in sickle cell disease patients managed?

A

Avascular necrosis (AVN) is a common complication in SCD patients leading to joint pain and immobility.

The most common joints affected are the hip and shoulder.

MRI remains the gold standard modality for imaging.

Treatment modalities include rest, pain management with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication, physical therapy, surgical interventions such as core decompression, and total hip replacement.

There is no clear consensus for the best treatment options for patients with AVN.

H&A

33
Q

What is the role of hydroxyurea for sickle cell disease patients?

A

Hydroxyurea (HU) is currently used in sickle cell children, and its effects have been well established in painful episodes and acute chest syndrome.

HU has been shown to improve the quality of life and decrease morbidities in these patients.

HU induces the production of hemoglobin F and increases the total hemoglobin level and mean corpuscular volume.

It also increases the deformability of RBCs, which makes the RBC less prone to sickle and occlude small vascular channels.

In addition, HU promotes the release of nitric oxide, which causes a direct effect on the endothelium resulting in vasodilation, and also decreases the occurrence of vaso-occlusive processes.

HU decreases leukocyte count, platelets, reticulocytes, and red cell adhesion to the endothelium by decreasing soluble vascular cell adhesion molecule levels, thereby increasing RBC hydration and red cell rheology.

However, the role of HU in preventing end-organ damage has not yet been determined.

HU is widely used as an oral formulation with a starting dose of 20 mg/kg/day, and the dose is increased until the maximum tolerated dose (MTD) is achieved.

Patients are followed as an outpatient with laboratory tests every 4 weeks initially.

The dose is escalated once every 8 weeks until MTD is achieved. It usually takes 4–8 months to achieve MTD.

Most pediatric patients tolerate 20–30 mg/kg/day, and the dose should not exceed 35 mg/kg/day or 2000 mg/day.

L-Glutamine was the most recent medication that was approved by FDA in sickle cell disease patient. Randomized control trial of L-glutamine has shown a marked reduction in frequency of pain episodes, hospitalizations, fewer acute chest syndrome and days without crisis for treatment of pain episodes.

H&A

34
Q

In the absence of injury, activation of the coagulation pathway is inhibited by:

A circulating plasminogen
B oxygen saturation of blood
C prostacyclin produced by endothelial cells
D circulating heparin
E none of the above.

A

C prostacyclin produced by endothelial cells

Prostacyclin is a vasodilator and it also inhibits platelet adhesion and aggregation. It thus provides active thromboresistance in the absence of injury.

Endothelial cells have proteoglycans such as heparin sulphate that produce passive thromboresistance.

SPSE 1

35
Q

Following a vascular injury the initial haemostatic response consists of:

A vasoconstriction and platelet adhesion
B platelet adhesion followed by aggregation
C vasoconstriction and activation of the extrinsic pathway
D platelet adhesion and activation of intrinsic pathway
E activation of the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways.

A

A vasoconstriction and platelet adhesion

Vasoconstriction leads to reduced blood flow and is due to the contraction of smooth muscle in the vessel wall.

Platelet adhesion followed by aggregation are essential components of the haemostatic response.

This leads to degranulation of platelets and release of important factors necessary for continuation of the haemostatic response.

SPSE 1

36
Q

Platelets are able to release the following agents except:

A serotonin
B von Willebrand’s factor
C calcium
D factor V
E factor VII.

A

E factor VII

Platelets contract on adhesion to extrude storage granule contents.

Dense granules release serotonin and calcium while alpha granules produce factor V and von Willebrand’s factor.

Factor VII is present in a circulating state and is activated by tissue factor to kick-start the extrinsic pathway.

SPSE 1

37
Q

In the intrinsic pathway of coagulation, activation of clotting factors follows what order?

A XII, XI, X, IX
B XI, XII, IX, X
C VII, XII, XI, IX
D XII, XI, IX, X
E VII, IX, V, X

A

D XII, XI, IX, X

SPSE 1

38
Q

In relation to clotting tests, which of the following statements is false?

A Prothrombin time is used to screen the function of the extrinsic pathway.

B Activated partial thromboplastin time is used to screen the function of the intrinsic pathway.

C Specific factor assays are available for all known coagulation factors.

D Normal range for platelet count in neonates is lower than adult count.

E Von Willebrand’s disease patients may have a normal activated partial thromboplastin time.

A

D Normal range for platelet count in neonates is lower than adult count.

Platelet counts are actually within normal adult range in healthy term and premature neonates.

Circulating clotting factors do not cross the placenta.

It is common for premature infants to have lower levels of procoagulants.

Neonatal liver has very low levels of vitamin K.

The main vitamin K–dependent coagulation factors are II, VII, IX and X.

It is common practice to give vitamin K at birth to boost levels of vitamin K–dependent factors.

SPSE 1

39
Q

For a patient with haemophilia, which of the following statements is true?

A A mild haemophiliac can get spontaneous gum and mucosal bleeding.

B A moderate haemophiliac has procoagulant factor levels between 5% and 10%.

C Analgesics containing aspirin can be prescribed.

D There is an increased risk of viral infections due to frequent transfusions.

E None of the above.

A

D There is an increased risk of viral infections due to frequent transfusions.

Mild haemophiliacs have procoagulant factor levels >5%. They will have bleeding problems with major trauma and surgery but not otherwise.

Moderate haemophiliacs with levels between 1% and 5% can bleed with minor trauma.

Viral infections related to blood transfusion remain a serious risk for these patients.

SPSE 1

40
Q

A pre-term neonate undergoing emergency surgery generally:

A requires platelet transfusion

B has normal levels of coagulation factors due to placental transfer

C requires intramuscular injection of vitamin K if not given at birth

D has normal levels of natural anticoagulants

E has increased fibrinolytic activity.

A

C requires intramuscular injection of vitamin K if not given at birth

While neonates have low levels of some coagulation proteins, this is normally balanced by the parallel decrease in fibrinolytic activity.

SPSE 1

41
Q

A patient with sickle-cell disease is likely to undergo:

A splenectomy
B cholecystectomy
C orthopaedic procedures
D multiple blood transfusions
E all of the above.

A

E

Children with sickle-cell disease can develop acute splenic sequestration resulting in hypersplenism and splenomegaly.

Splenectomy is often required with repeated attacks.

Because of the haemolytic nature of the disease, gallstones are common, requiring cholecystectomy.

Sickle-cell crisis can result in bone infarcts and osteomyelitis.

SPSE 1