Common Problems in Acute Care #2

Question 1

Most overdoses are treated how?

Answer 1

With supportive care

Question 2

How does Tylenol overdose present?

Answer 2

Usually asymptomatic at first, then N/V with RUQ pain around 24-48 hours

Question 3

What medication is used for Tylenol overdose?

Answer 3

N-Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

Question 4

Tinnitus is seen in what overdose?

Answer 4

Salicylate

Question 5

What is used to treat salicylate OD?

Answer 5

Activated charcoal

Question 6

Blurred vision, miosis, and bradycardia can be signs of what overdose?

Answer 6

Organophosphate

Question 7

What drug is used in organophosphate toxicity?

Answer 7

Atropine

Question 8

How might antidepressant toxicity be tx?

Answer 8

IV benzos

Question 9

What drug is used to treat serotonin syndrome?

Answer 9

Dantrolene sodium

Question 10

What drug is used to treat benzo overdose?

Answer 10

Flumazenil

Question 11

What drug is used to treat beta blocker OD?

Answer 11

Glucagon

Question 12

Which drug is used to tx ethylene glycol (antifreeze) OD?

Answer 12

Fomepizole (Antizol)

Question 13

Second degree burn is also called what?

Answer 13

Partial thickness

Question 14

Each arm is what % in Rule of Nines?

Answer 14

9%

Question 15

Each leg is what % in Rule of Nines?

Answer 15

18%

Question 16

What electrolyte abnormality should you monitor for early in major burns (first 24-48 hours)?

Answer 16

Hyperkalemia

Question 17

What electrolyte abnormality should you monitor for later in burns (around three days after)?

Answer 17

Hypokalemia

Question 18

What should body temp be maintained at in the burn pt?

Answer 18

37-37.5

Question 19

What two pain meds are most commonly used for pain management in burn pts?

Answer 19

Fentanyl or morphine

Question 20

Partial thickness burns of greater than what % of TBSA require transfer to a burn center?

Answer 20

Greater than 10%

Question 21

T4 cells are the same as what?

Answer 21

CD4 cells

Question 22

How is AIDs diagnosed?

Answer 22

CD4 count < 200 and/or presence of an opportunistic infection

Question 23

What test is initially used to diagnose HIV?

Answer 23

HIV - 1/2 antigen/antibody combination immunoassay

Question 24

What is a normal CD4 count?

Answer 24

500-1200

Question 25

What should viral load ideally be in an HIV pt?

Answer 25

Zero/undetectable

Question 26

What can an HIV take Bactrim prophylactically for?

Answer 26

PCP PNA

Question 27

When should ART be started in an HIV pt?

Answer 27

As soon as you know pt is positive

Question 28

Truvada (emtricitabine/tenofovir disoproxil fumarate) is prescribed for what?

Answer 28

To prevent HIV in all people at risk via sex or IV drug use

Question 29

Descovy (emtricitabine/tenofovir alafenamide) is prescribed for what?

Answer 29

To prevent HIV in people at risk via sex, excluding receptive vaginal sex

Question 30

What is the advantage of emtricitabine/tenofovir alafenamide over emtricitabine/tenofovir disoproxil fumarate?

Answer 30

Improved renal and bone safety

Question 31

Which type of arthritis generally involves the weight bearing joints?

Answer 31

Osteoarthritis

Question 32

Where do Heberden's nodes appear?

Answer 32

DIPs

Question 33

Where do Bouchard's nodes develop?

Answer 33

PIPs

Question 34

When do osteoarthritis pts feel better?

Answer 34

In the AM

Question 35

Where should you use canes in osteo?

Answer 35

On the opposite side from the affected side

Question 36

Is rheumatoid arthritis symmetrical or asymmetrical?

Answer 36

Symmetrical

Question 37

Ulnar devation is seen in what?

Answer 37

Rheumatoid arthritis

Question 38

If someone is on methotrexate, what lab values should be monitored?

Answer 38

LFTs

Question 39

What type of fracture would you give abx for?

Answer 39

Open fx

Question 40

What is an avulsion fx?

Answer 40

Bone fragments are pulled off by attached ligament or tendon

Question 41

What is a subluxation?

Answer 41

Incomplete dislocation

Question 42

Paresthesias after orthopedic surgery may suggest what?

Answer 42

Compartment syndrome

Question 43

How do you diagnose compartment syndrome?

Answer 43

With a tonometer

Question 44

What are normal compartment pressures?

Answer 44

0-8 mm Hg

Question 45

A compartment pressure at or above what indicates compartment syndrome and need for fasciotomy?

Answer 45

Above 30 mm Hg

Question 46

What lab test is used to diagnose lupus?

Answer 46

ANA

Question 47

What broad class of drugs can often cause a lupus-like syndrome?

Answer 47

Cardiac meds

Question 48

How is temporal arteritis tx?

Answer 48

Prednisone

Question 49

A cup greater than 1/2 the diameter of the disc when assessing the eye can indicate what?

Answer 49

Glaucoma

Question 50

How do arteries differ from veins in the eye in appearance?

Answer 50

Arteries are brighter red and narrower than veins

Question 51

What is the earliest sign of diabetic retinopathy?

Answer 51

Microaneurysms

Question 52

What is AV nicking in the eye a sign of?

Answer 52

Chronic HTN

Question 53

What is arcus senilis and what is it a sign of?

Answer 53

Cloudy appearance of the cornea with white circle; 2/2 hyperlipidemia

Question 54

Is there usually pain in conjunctivitis?

Answer 54

No

Question 55

What kind of discharge does viral conjunctivitis have?

Answer 55

Watery

Question 56

What is the pathology of glaucoma?

Answer 56

Increased intraocular pressure

Question 57

Which type of glaucoma is acute?

Answer 57

Closed angle

Question 58

What is normal intraocular pressure?

Answer 58

10-20 mm Hg

Question 59

Is glaucoma painful?

Answer 59

Yes

Question 60

What is the first line drug class for chronic (open) angle glaucoma?

Answer 60

Prostaglandin analogs

Question 61

What do prostaglandin analogs end in?

Answer 61

-pro

Question 62

Are cataracts painful?

Answer 62

No.

Question 63

Diplopia in a single eye can be a sign of what?

Answer 63

Cataracts

Question 64

Halos around lights can be a sign of what?

Answer 64

Cataracts

Question 65

What is sarcoidosis and in what age does it occur?

Answer 65

Decreased muscle mass - in the elderly

Question 66

What is immunosenescence?

Answer 66

Immune system's diminished function with age