Communications Gouge Flashcards

(47 cards)

1
Q

What are the four sections of Communications?

A

CC01 RADIO (JMC & Tech Control), CC02 ADP, CC03 IA (Cyber Awareness)

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2
Q

What are the responsibilities of the Joint Message Center (JMC)?

A

Receive, process and transmit message traffic.

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3
Q

What is ROUTINE message precedence?

A

Used for all types of message traffic justifying transmission by rapid means, but not of sufficient urgency to require higher precedence. Delivered in the order received after all higher precedence messages.

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4
Q

What is PRIORITY message precedence?

A

Reserved for traffic requiring expeditious action by the addressee or for conducting operations in progress when ROUTINE precedence will not suffice.

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5
Q

What is IMMEDIATE message precedence?

A

Reserved for messages relating to situations gravely affecting the security of the nation. Requires immediate delivery. In-station handling time not to exceed 30 minutes.

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6
Q

What is FLASH message precedence?

A

Reserved for initial enemy contact reports or operational combat messages of extreme urgency. Message brevity is mandatory.

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7
Q

What is YANKEE message precedence?

A

Used for designated emergency action command and control messages within the AUTODIN system, such as submarine EAMs.

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8
Q

What is WHISKEY message precedence?

A

Goes through SSES and has a time limitation of 3 minutes to ensure messages arrive on the President’s desk by the 10 minute mark.

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9
Q

What are the classifications of messages?

A

Top Secret (Orange), Secret (Red), Confidential (Blue), Unclassified (Green)

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10
Q

What is OIX?

A

Official Information Exchange System, the primary means of receiving, transmitting and processing messages electronically.

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11
Q

What is NAVMACS?

A

Naval Modular Automated Communication Subsystem, used by JMC as a secondary means of receiving, transmitting and processing fleet messages.

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12
Q

What are the responsibilities of Technical Control?

A

Manage, monitor, and troubleshoot radios and COMSEC material; ensure proper bandwidth for local area networks.

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13
Q

What are the 5 frequencies used onboard the USS ESSEX?

A

HF 3-30 MHz, VHF 30-300 MHz, UHF 300 MHz-3 GHz, SHF 3-30 GHz, EHF 30-300 GHz.

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14
Q

What are the types of Duplex communication?

A

Full Duplex, Half Duplex, Simplex.

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15
Q

What is the name of the HF transmitter used onboard?

A

AN/URC-109(V)

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16
Q

What are the HF transmit antennas used onboard?

A

AS-3871/SRC, AS-3773, AS-2537.

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17
Q

What are the VHF transceivers used onboard?

A

AN/SRC-54 (SINCGARS), AN/GRC-211.

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18
Q

What are the UHF communication forms?

A

Line-of-Sight (LOS) and SATCOM.

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19
Q

What is the primary ship-ship radio for UHF?

A

AN/WSC-3(V)14.

20
Q

What is the NMT?

A

Navy Multiband Terminal, capable of doing EHF as well as SHF.

21
Q

What is the routine destruction process for COMSEC material?

A

Carried out by two people (TPI) on a day-to-day basis, documented, logged, and reported to the EKMS Manager.

22
Q

What are the types of COMSEC incidents?

A

Cryptographic, Personnel, Physical.

23
Q

What is the responsibility of ADP?

A

Respond to user errors, receive user job requests, maintain trouble call log, troubleshoot and repair workstation issues.

24
Q

What do routers connect?

A

Wide Area Networks (WANs) using logical IP addresses.

25
What do switches connect?
Local Area Networks (LANs) using physical Media Access Control addresses.
26
What is the name of the shipboard network?
Consolidated Afloat Network Enterprise System (CANES).
27
What is the purpose of Active Directory?
Provides directory and authentication services through the Domain Controller.
28
What is the function of the Threat Management Gateway (TMG)?
Serves as the firewall, web caching, and policy management server.
29
What is River City?
An OPSEC tool that controls outgoing communication paths for OPSEC and Force Protection.
30
What is the purpose of Web User Groups (WUG)?
To better utilize limited bandwidth and increase upload/download speeds for users requiring off-ship connectivity.
31
What are the responsibilities of the Information Systems Security Officer (IAO/ISSO)?
Assist the IAM in enforcing all IA policies and procedures.
32
What is an IAVT?
Information Assurance Vulnerability Technical Advisory, technical notes on vulnerabilities without remediation urgency.
33
What is electronic spillage?
A security incident that results in the transfer of classified information onto an unaccredited information system.
34
Define a Zombie in cybersecurity.
A computer compromised by a hacker or virus that can perform malicious tasks under remote direction.
35
What is a Bot?
A computer used to spread email spam and launch denial-of-service attacks.
36
What is a Zero Day Exploit?
Software that uses a security hole to carry out an attack before the developer knows about the vulnerability.
37
What is Spyware?
Software that sends information about a user's activities to its creators.
38
What is a Worm?
A virus that replicates itself on its own.
39
What is a Trojan Horse?
A package a virus travels in that appears normal but contains malicious code.
40
What is Denial of Service?
An attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users.
41
What is Phishing?
A method used to gain sensitive information by pretending to be a trustworthy entity.
42
What is spyware?
Spyware is software which sends information to its creators about a user's activities; typically passwords, credit card numbers, and other information that can be sold on the black market.
43
What is a worm in cybersecurity?
A worm is a virus that makes copies of itself and replicates itself on its own.
44
What is a Trojan Horse?
A Trojan Horse is a package a virus travels in that appears normal but has malicious code inside.
45
What is a Denial of Service attack?
A Denial of Service attack is an attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users.
46
What is phishing?
Phishing is a method where a person tries to gain access to something by having someone with access give them information.
47
What is a logic bomb?
A logic bomb is a piece of code intentionally inserted into a software system that will set off a malicious function when specified conditions are met.