true or false a failure to screen or even preform screening which results in client injury may actually increase the likelihood of legal claims and suits based upon negligence
true
what are the greatest legal concerns for personal trainers
pre-activity health screening of clients, interpreting the results, the development of physical activity recommendations and parameters for training, the instruction and supervision of physical activity, emergency preparations and timely fulfillment of such services
true or false employers may not be responsible for the actions of their employees
false
true or false it is not recommended to obtain liability insurance when working as an independent contractor
false
true or false it is recommended to utilize applicable protective documents such as waivers releases and informed consents to meet their legal duties
true
true or false professionalism has nothing to do with punctuality appearance presentation knowledge or hygiene
false
true or false the client complains about back pain you should tell them to take NSAID S and rest
false
true or false a client told you they’re thinking about refinancing their home you should tell them to rere-modify their loan
false
true or false a client tells you they are concerned about their child who is taking drugs you should return the focus back to the workout
true
true or false a client make sexual innuendo towards you you should either report them to your manager or inform them you feel uncomfortable with sexual comments
true
name the four chambers of the heart
left and right ventricles left and right atriums
name the three energy systems
ATP/creatine phosphate glycolysis aerobic oxidation
what is the prime mover antagonist and stabilizers for the bench press
Pectoralis major middle and upper fibers emphasized rhomboids trapezius posterior deltoid rotator cuff musculature supraspinatus infraspinatus teres minor subscapularis
what causes post exercise soreness and what do you do about it
Microtrauma to the muscle tissue PRICE light stretching or active rest and hydrate
describe what occurs during the systolic and diastolic phase of blood pressure what is considered a normal reading
systolic is the pressure in the arterial walls during ventricular contraction diastolic pressure is the pressure in the arterial walls during ventricular filling 120/80 is considered a normal reading
what is the difference between slow and fast twitch muscle
slow twitch muscle fibers have slow shortening velocities are red endurance and resistant to fatigue large mitochondria high myoglobin rich capillary supply primarily postural tonic fast twitch muscle fibers have high shortening velocities fatigue rapidly have large numbers of actin and myosin filaments which are larger in diameter are white prime mover/strength/power phasic musculature easily inhibited
what might be the fat burning target heart range for a 45-year-old individual with a resting heart rate 60 bpm
using the Karvonen formula and calculating the training heart rate based on zone one 40 to 65% the answer is 220-45-60x .4+60 = 106 bpm and 220-45-60×.60 5+60 = 135 beats for minute or 106–1 35 bpm
what is the all or none theory
when a myofibril is innervated by a nerve cell it contracts totally or not at all
explain the difference between concentric and eccentric in resistance training
A concentric contraction is the shortening of the muscle fibers and eccentric contraction is the lengthening of the muscle fibers
name two functions of blood
transport oxygen and nutrients to the cells and removes wastes and carbon dioxide from the cell
what is the definition of OBLA
on set of blood lactate accumulation
how could you determine maximum heart rate and training heart rate when designing a cardiovascular workout for a client
VO2 Max test
discuss the concept of periodicity
The gradual cycling of specificity intensity volume duration and frequency to achieve a specific goal
what is the Valsalva maneuver
exhaling forcibly with the glottis closed
what does the abbreviation ATP mean
adenosine triphosphate
with exercise lasting longer than 10 seconds what system kicks in to provide ATP
glycolytic System
how long does glycolysis last
from 10 seconds to three minutes
define reciprocal inhibition
when an agonist or prime mover is called upon to perform a desired motion the antagonist are neurologically inhibited
what is a co-contraction
when the agonist and antagonist contract simultaneously
what is a spurt muscle give an example
muscles that have their distal tendon close to the joint axis biceps brachii
what is a double jointed muscle
A muscle in the body that crosses two joints and is able to produce motion at more than one joint
define the term reversibility
A major decrease in strength in aerobic capacity are apparent after two weeks without exercise and a major decrease in aerobic after three weeks without exercise
what would afferent information be
afferent information is nerve impulses from receptors or sense organs toward the center nervous system
what is a motor unit
A single alpha motor neuron and all the corresponding muscle fibers it innervates
Janda suggested there is a group postural muscles involved in static tasks such as standing or sitting that have a tendency to become over active the muscles are referred to as
tonic musculature
what body type is characterized by a muscular build
mesomorph
when a client has a decrease in appetite inability to sleep and elevated rate heart they may be
overtraining
The fascia that surrounds bundles of muscle fibers is called
fasiculi
which contraction is the strongest concentric eccentric or iso metric
eccentric
define visceral or smooth muscles
visceral or smooth muscles operate blood vessels and tubular organs such as the stomach and uterus smooth muscle gets its name because there are no striations visible in them smooth muscle is an autonomous or doesn’t require conscious thought to be stimulated
defined the origin of a muscle
is the attachment nearest the midline of the body and/or the end attached to the least movable bone
List three reasons why eating 5 to 6 meals a day is more effective
thermogenic effect of food steady supply of nutrients and smaller amounts do not encourage fat storage
what is the ACSM recommended intake of carbohydrates proteins and fats for health
58% carbohydrates 30% or less than 30% fat and 12% protein
what are vitamins
vitamins are organic food substances found only in living things such as plants and animals are required by the body in minute amounts for physiological maintenance and growth
how much water should a person drink a day
125 ounces for men 91 ounces for women
how many calories are in 1 g of fat 1 g of carbohydrate 1 g of protein 1 g of vitamins
9 fat 4 carbohydrate 4 protein 0 vitamins
The essential amino acids
Phenylalaine, Valine, threonine, methionine, tryptophan, histidine, Isoleucine, leucine, lysine
define basal metabolic rate
BMR is the amount of energy expended to support the ongoing metabolic work of the body’s cells at rest
what major role does potassium play in the body
production of energy muscle contraction beating of the heart synthesis of protein nerve tranquilization and kidney function
what is the Institute of medicine’s recommended intake of carbohydrates protein and fats
45 to 65% carbohydrates 10 to 35% protein 20 to 35% fat
what hormone does the pancreas release in response to high concentration of blood sugar
insulin
what macronutrient provides the majority of the energy used by muscles in the first three minutes of activity
carbohydrate
give an example of a saturated fat
any fat that is solid at room temperature and or palm and coconut oil
according to the food guide pyramid which category of foods offer high-quality protein
meats
which type of vitamins may have a risk for toxicities
fat soluble vitamins
according to the American dietetic Association a person should drink ______ 8 ounces glasses of water
eight
what is the acronym RDA stand for
recommended dietary allowance
give examples of a disaccharide
Maltose lactose or sucrose
name the essential fats
Linolenic and linoleic acids
List some of the benefits of vitamin C
helps maintain collagen can reduce histamines and is an antioxidant
what vitamin is most affected by the industrialization of our food supply
B vitamins
how many calories are in a food that contains 20 g of carbohydrates 42 g of protein and 12 g of fat
356 cal
The recommended intake for dietary fiber
25 to 30 grams
8 g Per kilogram of body weight is the RDA recommendation for healthy adults for which macronutrient
protein
galactose and glucose make up the disaccharide
lactose
while the body is at rest what percentage of fat is utilized for fuel
60%
glucose and fructose are examples of
monosaccharides
which vitamin helps maintain collagen
vitamin C
what is collagen
The most abundant protein in the body
defined the term golgi tendon organ
A sensory organ situated at the Musculotendinous junction
what is a dynamic stretch
The bodies own movement causes the stretch
what is ballistic stretching
uncontrolled bouncing jerking bobbing or pulsing to achieve greater range of motion
what are the dangers of hyperflexibility
May cause joint instability and precautions during pregnancy would include moderate stretching
what sensory receptor activates the stretch reflex mechanism
muscle spindle
what can you do to increase the efficiency in the process of reciprocal innervation
A good warm-up
flexibility around a joint is affected by
bone structure ligaments elasticity of skin muscles tendons and Fascia
tendons are resistant to what kind of force
tensile forces
define the term elastic
The ability to return back to their original
The ability to return to its original shape is the definition of
elastic
The sensory receptor involved in the stretch reflex mechanism is called
muscle spindle
what percent of body fat for men and women is considered obese
men 25% and women 32%
what is a form of treatment for osteoarthritis
A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory or some form of analgesic
what is rheumatoid arthritis
and autoimmune process resulting in inflammation of the synovial fluid contained in the burs sacks of the joint surfaces
what is hypertension
high blood pressure
name two things a trainer should pay attention to if working with someone with hypertension
The client should never do exercises with their head below the level of their heart and they should avoid lifting heavy weights over their heads
what should a trainer pay attention to when working with a pregnant client in the first trimester
heart rate core temperature and making sure the client is not exercised to exhaustion
how many tender points must a person have to be diagnosed with fibromyalgia
11 out of the 18 tender points for three months or longer
how often should a pregnant woman consume water when exercising how much water should be consumed in an hour long training session
at least every 10 minutes 16 to 32 ounces during an hour long session
what is the primary symptom of fibromyalgia
muscle soreness
what problems can multiple sclerosis
muscle control strength vision balance sensation and mental functions
what causes multiple sclerosis
multiple sclerosis is the process of demyelination and subsequence disruption of the nerve impulse flow
what should be avoided in an exercise program for someone with multiple sclerosis
exercise programs should be designed to avoid overheating
what response during exercise can you suspect from a client who is taking a beta blocker
A client taking beta blockers can have a decreased exercise heart rate
what response during submaximal testing can you suspect from a client who is taking a calcium channel blocker
A client taking a calcium channel blocker can have a lower blood pressure when performing a submaximal exercise test
what considerations should you take one training someone with cancer
avoid high impact aerobic activity due to risk of bone fractures and avoid pressure or friction on the skin during exercise because bruising could easily occur
what are some recommendation you might make to a client with osteoporosis
avoid high impact aerobics uncontrolled spinal flexion decreased caffeine intake increase weight-bearing activities and ensure an adequate intake of calcium and vitamin D
When training a client with AIDS/HIV and why is it important to wash your hands
to protect them from being exposed to other infections
are sit ups a recommended exercise for pregnant woman in her second trimester
no
what can cause exercise-induced asthma
Cold air and specific intensities and durations going too hard too fast
define diastasis
Diastasis is the separation of the rectus abdominis muscle
what are some of the considerations when training someone with cancer
General weakness nausea risk of bone fractures and bruising from pressure or friction on the skin
when training a client with osteoporosis is it better to perform weight bearing or non-weight-bearing exercise
weight bearing exercise
considerations when training someone with AIDS/HIV include
washing your hands to protect the client from exposure to other infections
What is an anatomical position
in this position the body is in an erect stance facing forward arms at the side of the trunk with palms facing forward and the legs together with the feet pointing forward all joints are in anatomical neutral with the exception of full supination at the radio-ulnar joint
define the term supination
movement in which the palms face forward in anatomical position
define the term external
refers to a segment rotating around a vertical axis so that the anterior surface of the segment moves away from the midline of the body
what is circumduction
an imaginary O actually a combination of four movements flexion adduction extension and abduction
define the term cephalic
pertaining towards the head
what is Caudal
pertaining to the tail end
true or false the term bilateral refers to both sides
true
true or false the term posterior/dorsal both refer to the back of the body
true
what means do the anatomical planes provide
they are means of communication or describing motion
define the term flexion give one example
flexion occurs when the joint motion is moving away from neutral in the sagittal plane or if past neutral in a position of extension is moving back to neutral elbow flexion curl
define the term extension give one example
extension occurs when the joint motion is moving from a position of flexion back to work past anatomical neutral in the sagittal plane elbow extension/triceps push down
name the three planes of motion
sagittal or median frontal or coronal horizontal or transverse planes of motion
Which muscles flex the elbow joint
biceps brachii brachialis and brachioradialis
the pes anserinus consists of
Latin for gooses foot the insertion of the Gracilis semitendinous and the sartorius
an example of a closed kinematic exercise chain exercise would be
The bench press
Name the four muscles of the rotator cuff
S I T S
SUPRaspinatus INFRASPINATUS Teres minor and subscapularis
what are the five Main spinal regions
cervical thoracic lumbar sacral coccyx
name the origin and insertion of the rectus abdominis muscle what action does it accomplish
origin pubic crest or pubic synthesis insertion xiphoid process and the costal cartilages of the fifth through seventh ribs compresses the abdominopelvic pelvic cavity and flexes the vertebral column
what muscle plantar flexes the foot
Gastrocnemius
what muscles dorsi flexes the ankle
tibialis anterior
what type of joint allows flexion and extension
A ball and socket or a hinge joint
give an example of a fusiform muscle
biceps brachii sartorious brachialis rectus femoris rectus abdominis
what makes up the shoulder girdle
The clavicle and the scapula
what does the tricep surac consist of
The two heads of the gastrocnemius and the soleus
name the muscles of the quadriceps
vastus lateralis vastus medialis vastus inermedius and rectus femoris
what is the longest muscle in the body
Sartorius
what is the longest bone in your body
femur
define a sesamoid bone
A short bone embedded within a tendon or joint capsule an example would be the bones found in the base of the first meta-tarsal in the foot or of course the largest example would be the Patella
what are the three basic body types in somatotyping
ectomorph mesomorph and endomorph
what types of muscles maintain a joint in a static position
stabilizers
name the three heads of the tricep brachii
Long lateral and medial
how many vertebrae are found in the cervical region of the spine
seven
what is the origin and insertion of the pectoralis major
origin medial half of the clavicle the sternum and the costal cartilage is of the upper six ribs in the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle insertion greater tubercle of the humorous
The deltoids and the glutes maximus are examples of
penniform muscles
give an example of a class two lever system
The wheel barrow can opener or the MTP joint in plantar flexion
what motions are performed by the iliopsoas
hip flexion and external rotation concentrically hip extension and internal rotation eccentrically
which muscle dorsi flexes the ankle
tiabialis anterior
what are the names of the three heads of the tricep brachii
Long lateral and medial
what are the six questions you should address to determine the effectiveness of any exercise
determine the motion determine the direction of resistance determine the starting position monitor joint position stabilization continually monitor the path of motion continually determine and monitor the range of motion
what do the trunk muscles consist if
back extensors that bend the trunk backward lateral flexors at bend it sideways and anterior abdominals that bended forward
movement from the extremities originate and emanate from
The core
how should a client position themselves for the supine pelvic hold level one
lying with back arched naturally feet portioned as close to
buttocks as possible
what percentage of the adult population will experience low back pain
80%
what is the starting position for the back extension machine
seated in ideal alignment with arms crossed line up hip joint with axis of machine
what are the mechanical points for the reverse crunch
do not throw the legs placing arms above head will help with balance do not move legs past the point of full abdominal contraction as this strains the neck
what is considered to be normal range of motion in a horizontal abduction
30 to 45°
what is the motion in a seated cable row direction of resistance
shoulder extension concentrically outward
how can you make the dumbbell pullover a safer exercise
decline bench makes a better shoulder position alter speed bend elbows or apply resistance via a cable crossover
what is the risk/benefit of the butt blaster machine
risk bodyweight plus resistance is resting on one knee really tough to stabilize spine room and hip extension beyond neutral equals 10 to 30° limit range to work glutes benefit minimal gluteus stimulation
what is a Q angle
is formed by the longitudinal axis of the femur in the line of pull of the patellar ligament
and individuals mechanical ability to perform multiple joint movements simultaneously underload is primarily based upon what
The length of the levers or segments connecting these joints
when performing a prone leg curl the pivot point of the machine should be lined up with the
axis of rotation of the knee
List two machines that train latissimus dorsi
pull-up bar lat pulldown machine or a row machine
what is a carrying angle
The angle formed between the humerus and the forearm
what are the prime movers in a squat
quadriceps at the knee and gluteus maximus at the hip
what muscles are antagonists at the hip in the hip extension
hip flexors
what are the agonists in a preacher curl
biceps Brachii Brachioradialis Brachialis
how much does the intradiscal pressure increase when we are in the seated flexed position
30 to 40%
What is the normal range of motion in shoulder flexion
160 to 180°
in a seated position intradiscal pressure increases
30 to 40%
what are some of the risks when performing an upright row
excessive internal rotation during abduction
when the multi joint compound exercise is executed immediately after a single joint exercise what type of training is this an example of
pre exhaustion
what muscles must be stretched when a client has a protracted shoulder girdle
Pectoralis major pectoralis minor subscapularis and anterior deltoid
squat bench press Barbell curl and a leg press are examples of
A closed kinetic chain exercises
what are the prime movers in a leg press
vastus lateralis Vastus medialis Vastus intermedius and rectus femoris
what is the difference between muscular strength and muscular endurance
muscular strength is the ability of a muscle to exert a force muscular endurance is the ability of a muscle to exert a force over a period of time
if you train the benchpress and the triceps push down which would usually be trained first
The benchpress
define the term volume
volume can be measured by the total amount of work performed in a training session this can be measured by the amount of repetitions completed or the total amount of weight lifted this can be measured by each set workout day week month etc.
define the term intensity
intensity is the measure of one’s applied strength relative to their current level of maximum strength intensity is most easily represented as a percentage of one’s repetition maximum
when do type 2a muscle fibers fatigue
begin at six seconds and fully fatigue at 30 to 120 seconds
how much time under tension is needed to receive an aerobic muscular endurance training effect
greater than 70 seconds
what is absolute strength
The maximum amount of force an individual can produce respective of body weight and time of force development this type of strength is important for shot-putters and football lineman wear body weight has a correlation to an increase in performance
when working with loads under 60% of maximum how long should the rest periods be
approximately 45 seconds to two minutes
what is the double double training technique
in this technique the user performs two different double jointed exercises for the same muscle group back to back
what are the four components of a fitness routine
flexibility stabilization balance strength hypertrophy cardiovascular
define unilateral training
training one side of the body at a time
for a hypertrophic effect to occur the repetition range should be
6 to 12 repetitions per set
using the Karvonen formula calculate the training heart rate of 70% for a 40-year-old male with a resting heart rate of 30 bpm do it again for a 40-year-old male with the same percentage but a resting heart rate of 72
for the 40-year-old with a resting heart rate 30 bpm a training heart rate of 70% equals 135 bpm for the 40 year old with a resting heart rate of 72 bpm a target heart rate of 70% equals 148 bpm
normal resting heart rates are
60 to 100 bpm
A normal blood pressure reading is
120/80 mm/HG
dividing the body weight in kilograms by the height in meters squared equals
BMI
force times distance divided by time equals
Power
The stretch shortening cycle is the sequence of
eccentric action followed by a concentric action
for how long should you take someone’s pulse after the step test
one minute
what are two purposes of fitness testing
to provide information that is helpful in prescribing and exercise program educating participants about physical fitness and individual fitness status list any from page 102
what are two reasons an accurate resting heart rate measurement is important
it is used for the calculation of exercise target heart rate exercise test and exercise prescription it provides baseline information for comparison as cardiovascular fitness levels improve list any of the four found on page 103
what is considered to be an optimal blood pressure reading
120 systolic and 80 diastolic
how long does the push up test
until the client can no longer complete another repetition or correct alignment can no longer be maintained
what are the standard sites for women from the three site skinfold formula
triceps brachii suprailliac and thigh
what does the acronym BMI stand for
body mass index
A BMI measurement of 32 maybe considered
class one obesity
what is the metronome setting for the three minute step test
96 bpm
what fitness assessment measures the endurance capabilities of the rectus Abdominis internal and external obliques
The sit up test
what is Uppercross syndrome
forward head posture or muscles short and facilitated Neck extensors upper trapezius sternocleidomastoid and Pectoralis major and minor muscles elongated and inhibited deep neck flexor’s lower middle trapezius rhomboid Serratus anterior and rectus abdominal
normal range of motion for hip extension is
15 to 30°
Uppercross syndrome is characterized by
short cervical extensors and pectoralis major long rhomboids mid trapezius and cervical flexors
which method of assessing body fat has a lower estimated accuracy range Hydro static waiting or bio impotence analysis
hydrostatic weighing is plus or minus 2.5% and BIA is plus or minus 4%
how many beats per minute should you set the metronome at for the YMCA three-minute step test
96 bpm
normal range of motion for shoulder flexion is
160 to 180°
subcutaneous fat levels in individuals are affected by
gender body type and activity levels
in the treatment for common injuries what does the acronym PRICE mean
protect rest ice compression elevation
List two reasons why you should call 911
if the victim is unconscious is bleeding severely any from the list on page 112
how do you treat heat cramps
rest gentle stretches ice rehydrate
what are the symptoms of a sprain
swelling limitations of range of motion discoloration soreness
how do you treat a contusion
apply ice
how do you treat a blister
if punctured cleanse blister protect with pad and dressing
what are the symptoms of cardiac arrest
heart stops beating no pulse no breathing ischemia(lack of oxygen to the heart)
what are the symptoms of fainting
light headedness dizziness paleness light sweating
what is the treatment for heat stroke
call 911 and try to cool the person down
what is the treatment for an epileptic seizure
remove objects that might injure them protect their head do not place your finger and or hard object between their teeth don’t restrain slap or douse them with water once the seizure has ended move them to a comfortable place
what are signs of heat exhaustion
pale clammy skin rapid weak pulse weakness headache or nausea
true or false when someone suffers from an epileptic seizure you should place a hard object between the persons teeth
false
what are some signs of hypoglycemia
excessive hunger dizziness or weakness
explain the difference between using free weights and selectorized equipment
free weights are functional real life easy to transport and require technique Machines require less technique and less stabilize Asian from the user because of the guided path of motion and the outside support mechanisms or the machine more weight may be lifted however machines might not fit everyone
what are the concerns to be aware of when using free weights
awkwardness potential danger to the body from lack of control skill needed momentum
how much does a Cybex hack squat carriage weigh
65 pounds
what is the weight of a 7 foot Olympic bar
45 pounds
what is the weight of an easy curl bar
25 pounds
true or false lack of physical activity is a risk factor for heart disease
true
how many deaths in the US per year are attributed to lack of physical fitness
250,000
of people age 55 and older what percentage report essentially sedentary lifestyle
38%
how many minutes should you arrive before your training appointment
10 to 15 minutes
what are the five most important points to look for on a client profile
goals experience medical history career or job and signature
what are the four key points of a sale
acknowledge isolate overcome close
after performing an intro what should you do with the clients workout card and their client profile
keep the signed client profile sheet and give them their workout card
how often should you call back your intros
at Least one
what are the three means of communication
Visual auditory and kinesthetic
true or false it is important for clients to use the mirrors to monitor technique
true
what two subjects should you refrain from speaking with your clients
religion and politics
A claims made policy is an example of what kind of insurance
liability insurance
what is the most important aspect to focus on when trying to sell services to a potential client
their goals
