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Nursing Fundamentals Final > Condensed Lectures > Flashcards

Condensed Lectures Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the 6 competencies of the QSEN Model?

A
  • Client-Centered Care
  • Teamwork & Collaboration
  • Evidence-Based Practice
  • Quality Improvement
  • Safety
  • Informatics

These competencies are essential for nursing education and practice.

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2
Q

Define Infection.

A

Entry and multiplication of organisms.

Infection indicates that pathogens are present and actively reproducing.

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3
Q

What is Colonization?

A

Presence of organisms without infection.

In colonization, organisms exist without causing disease.

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4
Q

What are Nosocomial Infections?

A

Hospital-acquired infections.

These infections are contracted during hospital stays.

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5
Q

List the components of the Chain of Infection.

A
  • Infectious/Biological Agent
  • Reservoir
  • Portal of Exit
  • Mode of Transmission
  • Portal of Entry
  • Susceptible Host

Understanding this chain helps in infection control.

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6
Q

What are the types of Infectious Agents?

A
  • Bacteria
  • Viruses
  • Fungi
  • Parasites

These agents are responsible for causing infections.

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7
Q

Define Resident Flora.

A

Natural to body.

Resident flora are microorganisms that normally inhabit the body.

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8
Q

Define Transient Flora.

A

Acquired temporarily.

Transient flora can be picked up from the environment or other individuals.

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9
Q

What are Drug-Resistant organisms mentioned?

A
  • MRSA
  • VRE

These organisms are resistant to many antibiotics, posing significant treatment challenges.

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10
Q

What are common Symptoms of Infection?

A
  • Sneezing
  • Chills
  • Aches
  • Diarrhea
  • Cough
  • Fever

Symptoms can vary depending on the type of infection.

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11
Q

What are common Reservoirs for infectious organisms?

A
  • Human
  • Shellfish
  • Animals
  • Inanimate objects
  • Food
  • Water

Reservoirs provide the necessary environment for organisms to thrive.

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12
Q

What is Medical Asepsis?

A

Clean technique (disinfection removes most pathogens).

Medical asepsis aims to reduce the number of pathogens.

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13
Q

What is Surgical Asepsis?

A

Sterile technique (destroys ALL microbes).

Surgical asepsis is crucial during invasive procedures.

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14
Q

What are the 5 Moments of Hand Hygiene?

A
  • Before touching patient
  • Before aseptic procedure
  • After bodily fluid exposure
  • After touching patient
  • After touching patient surroundings

These moments are critical to prevent infection.

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15
Q

What are the Modes of Transmission?

A
  • Contact: Direct or indirect
  • Droplet: Respiratory droplets
  • Airborne: Tiny particles suspended in air
  • Vehicle: Contaminated objects
  • Vector: Insects, animals

Understanding modes helps in implementing appropriate precautions.

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16
Q

What are Isolation Precautions for Airborne diseases?

A

N95 mask, negative pressure room.

Airborne precautions are necessary for diseases like TB.

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17
Q

What is the Portal of Entry?

A

Same as portal of exit: skin, mucous membranes, respiratory, GI, urinary, reproductive tracts, blood.

Pathogens enter the body through these portals.

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18
Q

What factors can make a person a Susceptible Host?

A
  • Immunosuppression
  • Surgery
  • Burns
  • Diabetes
  • Heart/lung diseases

These factors increase the risk of infection.

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19
Q

What is the Incubation stage of infection?

A

No symptoms yet.

This is the period after exposure before symptoms appear.

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20
Q

What is the Prodromal stage of infection?

A

Early, vague symptoms.

Symptoms are often nonspecific during this stage.

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21
Q

What is the Illness stage of infection?

A

Full symptoms.

This stage signifies the peak of the infection.

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22
Q

What is Convalescence?

A

Recovery.

This stage involves healing and return to health.

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23
Q

What are Signs of Infection?

A
  • Local: Redness, swelling, drainage, pain
  • Systemic: Fever, nausea, vomiting, swollen lymph nodes, confusion

Recognizing these signs is essential for early intervention.

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24
Q

What is the normal WBC count?

A

5,000–10,000/mm³.

An elevated WBC count may indicate infection.

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25
What does an elevated ESR indicate?
Possible infection. ## Footnote ESR is a non-specific marker of inflammation.
26
What is the role of an Infection Control Nurse?
* Bioterrorism preparedness * Mandatory reporting (e.g., HIV) * Policy development * OSHA/CDC compliance * Education ## Footnote Infection control nurses play a crucial role in healthcare settings.
27
What does the PQRST stand for in pain assessment?
* Provocation * Quality * Region * Severity * Time ## Footnote This acronym helps in a comprehensive pain evaluation.
28
What is the difference between Acute and Chronic Pain?
* Acute: Rapid onset, protective * Chronic: Lasts 3–6 months+, maladaptive ## Footnote Understanding the type of pain is vital for appropriate management.
29
What are Non-Pharmacologic pain management strategies?
* Relaxation * Guided imagery * Distraction * Heat/cold * TENS * Music * Acupuncture ## Footnote These methods can complement pharmacological treatments.
30
What is the normal adult pulse range?
60–100 BPM. ## Footnote Abnormal pulse rates can indicate various health issues.
31
What does Tachycardia indicate?
>100 BPM. ## Footnote This condition can be caused by stress, fever, or other factors.
32
What is the definition of Blood Pressure?
Force of blood against artery walls. ## Footnote Blood pressure readings are crucial for assessing cardiovascular health.
33
What is the normal blood pressure range?
<120/80 mmHg. ## Footnote Abnormal levels can indicate hypertension or hypotension.
34
What are common factors affecting blood pressure?
* Age * Sex * Weight * Food * Exercise * Race * Emotional state * Meds ## Footnote These factors can influence BP readings significantly.
35
What are common safety risks in healthcare?
* Falls * Fire safety * Concussions * Use of restraints ## Footnote Awareness of these risks is essential for patient safety.
36
What does RACE stand for in fire safety?
* Rescue anyone in danger * Activate alarm * Confine fire (close doors/windows) * Evacuate people ## Footnote This protocol is critical for fire emergencies.
37
What are common Concussion Symptoms?
* Physical: Headache, fatigue, balance issues * Cognitive: Confusion, memory issues * Emotional: Irritability * Sleep: Drowsiness, trouble sleeping ## Footnote Recognizing these symptoms is crucial for proper management.
38
What is the significance of a Sleep Diary in sleep assessment?
Record patterns to identify issues. ## Footnote This tool helps in diagnosing sleep disorders.
39
What does hygiene and grooming indicate about a patient?
Clues about self-care ability or cognitive decline
40
What speech characteristics may indicate neurological or psychological conditions?
Slurred, pressured, or absent speech
41
What could inappropriate dress for the weather suggest?
Mental health issues
42
What should always be assessed and documented regarding pain?
Location, type, intensity, and duration
43
What vital signs should be checked?
Temperature, pulse, respirations, BP, oxygen saturation, and pain
44
What do height, weight, BMI, and waist circumference indicate?
Nutritional and metabolic status
45
What is the normal oxygen saturation level?
95–100%
46
What does an oxygen saturation level below 90% indicate?
Hypoxia
47
How is BMI categorized?
* <18.5 underweight * 18.5–24.9 normal * 25–29.9 overweight * ≥30 obese
48
What does decreased turgor indicate?
Dehydration or aging
49
What does the ABCDE method assess for?
Melanoma
50
What does cyanosis indicate?
Hypoxia
51
What does jaundice indicate?
High bilirubin
52
What does pallor indicate?
Anemia or poor perfusion
53
What does erythema indicate?
Infection or trauma
54
What age do posterior fontanels close?
By 8 weeks
55
What age do anterior fontanels close?
By 18 months
56
What indicates thyroid enlargement?
Goiter
57
What does strabismus refer to?
Misalignment of eyes
58
What does ptosis refer to?
Drooping eyelid
59
What is arcus senilis?
White ring in cornea, normal in elderly
60
What is presbycusis?
Age-related hearing loss
61
What does normal capillary refill time indicate?
<3 seconds
62
What is a common sign of heart or renal failure?
Pitting edema
63
What are the 6 Ps in neurovascular checks?
* Pain * Pallor * Pulse * Paresthesia * Paralysis * Pressure
64
What is the purpose of client education in nursing?
Health promotion, prevent illness, restore health, cope with impaired functions
65
What influences client learning?
* Age/developmental level * Family support * Financial resources * Cultural influences * Literacy
66
What are the three domains of learning?
* Cognitive * Affective * Psychomotor
67
What is the definition of andragogy?
Self-directed, independent learning
68
What is the difference between chemical name, generic name, and trade name?
* Chemical: Describes atomic/molecular structure * Generic: Assigned by the first manufacturer * Trade: Brand name copyrighted by manufacturer
69
What does the term 'loading dose' refer to?
High initial dose to quickly elevate drug levels
70
What factors affect drug absorption?
* Route * Lipid solubility * pH * Blood flow * Local conditions * Dose
71
What is the therapeutic range?
The optimal concentration range for the drug's effectiveness
72
What are the types of oral medication forms?
* Caplet * Capsule * Tablet/Pill * Lollipops * Granules
73
What is an elixir in medication forms?
Liquid with alcohol
74
What is the purpose of the Nurse Practice Act?
Defines the nurse's role in medication administration
75
What is the significance of a half-life in pharmacology?
Time it takes for 50% of the drug to be eliminated from the body
76
What are signs of infection in the throat examination?
Red mucosa, discharge, lesions
77
What is the normal respiratory rate?
12–20 breaths per minute
78
What is a suspension?
Liquid that separates when standing ## Footnote Common in various formulations requiring agitation before use.
79
Define syrup in the context of medication.
Medication dissolved in sugar solution ## Footnote Often used for pediatric formulations.
80
What is a troche/lozenge?
Medication in sugar solution with flavoring, dissolves in the mouth ## Footnote Designed for localized effects in the oral cavity.
81
What is the difference between single dose and multidose medication forms?
Single Dose: Safer but more expensive, for one patient; Multidose: One vial, multiple uses ## Footnote Single doses minimize contamination risk.
82
What is a liniment?
Applied to the skin, contains alcohol, oil, or soap ## Footnote Used for muscle and joint pain relief.
83
What is the purpose of a lotion?
Protects skin ## Footnote Often used for hydration or barrier protection.
84
Define ointment.
Semisolid, applied externally ## Footnote Typically used for localized treatment of skin issues.
85
What is a tincture?
Alcohol or alcohol/water solution ## Footnote Used for extracting active ingredients from plants.
86
What is the sublingual route of medication administration?
Under tongue or inside the cheek ## Footnote Allows for rapid absorption into the bloodstream.
87
What is a suppository?
Solid medication inserted into body cavity that melts ## Footnote Commonly used for rectal or vaginal administration.
88
What is a transdermal patch?
Med in semipermeable membrane applied to skin for slow release, must be replaced regularly ## Footnote Used for sustained drug delivery.
89
What is the oral route of medication administration?
Tablets/liquids, most common, slower absorption ## Footnote Preferred for many medications due to ease of use.
90
What does the IM route stand for?
Intramuscular ## Footnote Involves injecting medication into muscle tissue.
91
What is the role of a nurse in medication administration?
Administration, teaching, evaluating responses, and documentation ## Footnote Ensures safe and effective medication use.
92
What are the '6 Rights' of medication administration?
Right med, dose, client, route, time, documentation ## Footnote Essential for preventing medication errors.
93
What is a nursing diagnosis?
Describes a patient’s response to a health issue or life process that a nurse can treat ## Footnote Must follow NANDA standards for accuracy.
94
What is the purpose of the nursing process?
To provide effective and patient-centered care ## Footnote Involves assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation.
95
What are the types of nursing assessments?
Admission/Comprehensive, Focused, Ongoing, Emergency, Time-Lapsed, 10-Minute Clinical ## Footnote Each serves a specific purpose in patient evaluation.
96
What does the acronym SOAP stand for in medical documentation?
S = Subjective data, O = Objective data, A = Assessment, P = Plan ## Footnote Used in Problem-Oriented Medical Records (POMR).
97
What is the significance of patient teaching in nursing?
Educates the patient about purpose, side effects, interactions, and proper medication use ## Footnote Enhances compliance and understanding of treatment.
98
What are the components of writing a nursing goal?
Subject, Action Verb, Particular Condition, Expected Behavior, Target Time ## Footnote Goals should be SMART (Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound).
99
What is the definition of evaluation in the nursing process?
Assess whether the interventions achieved the desired outcomes ## Footnote Involves ongoing assessment and adjustment of care plans.
100
What is the purpose of documentation in nursing?
Ensures compliance with standards, facilitates communication, protects legal interests, and supports reimbursement ## Footnote Critical for maintaining accurate patient records.
101
What is the difference between actual and risk nursing diagnoses?
Actual: Currently occurring health problems; Risk for: Potential issues that might occur ## Footnote Helps in identifying patient needs and planning care.
102
List the priority levels in nursing.
High: Immediate needs; Intermediate: Important but not life-threatening; Low: Less critical needs ## Footnote Prioritization is essential for effective care delivery.
103
What is the role of a pharmacist in medication management?
Prepare, distribute meds, and provide education about side effects, interactions, etc. ## Footnote Collaborates with nurses and prescribers for patient safety.
104
What are the methods of documentation in nursing?
Electronic Health Record (EHR), Source-Oriented Records, Problem-Oriented Medical Records, Focus Charting ## Footnote Different methods serve various documentation needs.
105
What is a controlled substance?
Requires double lock, count per shift, detailed documentation ## Footnote Subject to strict regulations due to potential for abuse.
106
What is the purpose of a care plan in nursing?
Develop a tailored plan based on the patient’s needs, priorities, and health goals ## Footnote Guides nursing interventions and evaluations.
107
What is the significance of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs in nursing?
Guides prioritization of patient care based on physiological and psychological needs ## Footnote Ensures that the most critical needs are addressed first.
108
What does the 'S' in SOAP stand for?
Subjective data
109
What does the 'O' in SOAP represent?
Objective data
110
What does the 'A' in SOAP signify?
Assessment
111
What does the 'P' in SOAP indicate?
Plan
112
What does 'PIE' stand for in nursing documentation?
* Problem * Intervention * Evaluation
113
What is Focus Charting based on?
Patient concerns using DAR (Data, Action, Response)
114
What is Charting by Exception?
Highlights deviations from normal and utilizes a check-mark format
115
What is the purpose of the Case Management Model?
Uses collaborative pathways to improve patient care
116
What does Occurrence Charting document?
Any unusual events or changes
117
What are the types of Nurse Notes?
* Narrative * POMR (Problem-Oriented Medical Record)
118
What does 'SOAPIE' include?
* Subjective * Objective * Assessment * Plan * Intervention * Evaluation
119
What does 'APIE' stand for?
* Assessment * Planning * Implementation * Evaluation
120
What is an Initial Nursing Assessment?
Comprehensive evaluation of patient upon admission
121
What is a Care Plan?
Detailed plan outlining the expected outcomes and interventions
122
What are Critical Collaborative Pathways?
Shared pathways for multidisciplinary care
123
What do Progress Notes provide?
Updates on the patient’s condition and care progress
124
What is documented in a Medication Record?
Prescribed medications and dosages
125
What are Acuity Records?
Document patient care needs based on acuity level
126
What should be included in a Transfer/Discharge Summary?
Summary of patient’s condition upon transfer or discharge
127
What is Home Health Care Documentation used for?
Patients in home care settings
128
What is Long-Term Care Documentation?
Includes documentation for patients in long-term care facilities
129
What does EMR stand for?
Electronic Medical Record
130
What is a guideline for computerized documentation?
Ensure passwords and computer signatures are kept secure
131
What should you never do with a terminal?
Leave it unattended
132
What is the general rule for urine output?
1 ml/kg/hr
133
What are the main components of Fluid Intake?
* Ingested liquids: 1300 ml * Ingested food: 1000 ml * Metabolic oxidation: 300 ml
134
What are the main components of Fluid Output?
* Kidneys: 1500 ml * Skin (insensible: 200-400 ml, sensible: 300-500 ml) * Lungs: 400 ml * GI tract: 100 ml
135
What is the normal range for sodium (Na+)?
125-145 mEq/L
136
What does diffusion refer to?
Movement from high to low concentration
137
What is osmosis?
Movement of water from low to high solute concentration
138
What is pitting edema characterized by?
Indentations that remain after pressure is applied
139
What are cations in electrolyte composition?
* Sodium * Potassium * Calcium * Magnesium
140
What are anions in electrolyte composition?
* Bicarbonate * Chloride * Phosphate * Sulfate
141
What is a key feature of hypovolemia?
Loss of water and solutes in equal amounts
142
What does ESRD stand for?
End-Stage Renal Disease
143
What are the main functions of the skin?
* Protection * Temperature regulation * Sensation * Vitamin D production * Immunologic functions * Absorption * Elimination
144
What are the layers of the skin?
* Epidermis * Dermis * Subcutaneous tissue
145
What are the types of wounds?
* Surgical * Traumatic * Neuropathic/Vascular * Pressure-related
146
What is an open wound?
Skin is broken, risk of infection
147
What is a closed wound?
Skin remains intact, but soft tissue damage
148
What is the difference between acute and chronic wounds?
Acute wounds heal in days to weeks; chronic wounds have prolonged healing
149
What are the stages of pressure injuries?
* Stage 1: Non-blanchable erythema * Stage 2: Partial-thickness loss * Stage 3: Full-thickness loss * Stage 4: Full-thickness, exposed muscle/bone * Unstageable * Deep Tissue Injury (DTI)
150
What does NERDS stand for in wound infection signs?
* Non-healing * Exudate * Red/bleeding * Debris * Smell
151
What does STONEES represent in wound infection signs?
* Size increase * Temperature rise * Exposed bone * New breakdown areas * Exudate * Erythema/Edema * Smell
152
What is the first phase of wound healing?
Hemostasis
153
What occurs during the inflammatory phase of wound healing?
White blood cells move into the wound area to combat bacteria
154
What happens during the proliferation/repair phase of wound healing?
New tissue fills the wound space through granulation tissue formation
155
What is the final stage of wound healing?
Maturation/Remodeling
156
What are local factors affecting wound healing?
* Pressure * Desiccation * Maceration * Trauma * Edema * Infection * Excessive bleeding * Necrosis * Biofilm
157
What are systemic factors affecting wound healing?
* Age * Circulation and oxygenation * Nutritional status * General health and disease states * Immunosuppression * Medications * Adherence to treatment plan
158
What is slough in wound care?
Moist, yellowish tissue that is a sign of necrosis
159
What is eschar?
Dry, black, leathery tissue that results from necrosis
160
What is the definition of biofilm in wound care?
A slimy layer formed by bacteria in the wound, protecting them and impeding healing efforts
161
What forms during the proliferation/repair phase of healing?
Granulation tissue forms, fibroblasts create collagen ## Footnote This phase is crucial for wound healing and involves the formation of new tissue.
162
What occurs during the maturation/remodeling phase of healing?
Scar formation, tissue strength increases ## Footnote This phase can last for months to years and is important for restoring tissue integrity.
163
What are local factors affecting healing?
* Pressure * Desiccation * Infection * Necrosis * Trauma * Biofilm ## Footnote Local factors can significantly impede the healing process.
164
What are systemic factors affecting healing?
* Age * Circulation * Oxygenation * Nutrition * Disease state * Immunosuppression * Medication ## Footnote These factors can influence the overall healing capacity of an individual.
165
What should be documented regarding wound location?
Document wound position ## Footnote Accurate documentation helps in tracking healing progress.
166
What is the significance of wound color?
Red = protect, Yellow = cleanse, Black = debride ## Footnote The color of a wound can indicate its healing stage and required treatment.
167
What does the Braden Scale assess?
Focus on mental status, continence, mobility, nutrition, and activity levels ## Footnote The Braden Scale is used to assess pressure injury risk.
168
What types of wound drainage are there?
* Serous: Clear and watery * Serosanguineous: Pink, mixture of serum and RBC * Sanguineous: Red, blood * Purulent: Thick, foul odor, color changes (yellow/green) ## Footnote Understanding the type of drainage can help identify potential complications.
169
What are the purposes of dressings?
* Comfort * Infection control * Absorb drainage * Maintain moisture * Protect wound and skin * Debridement * Optimize healing ## Footnote Each dressing type serves specific functions in wound management.
170
What is the process for cleaning non-approximate wound edges?
Clean in circles, from center out, extending 1 inch beyond the wound ## Footnote This technique helps prevent infection.
171
What are the phases of surgery?
* Preoperative: Decision for surgery made * Intraoperative (OR): Surgery on the table * Postoperative: From PACU to final follow-up ## Footnote Each phase has distinct procedures and focuses.
172
What are the types of surgeries?
* Major: Life-preserving * Minor: Less serious * Elective: Scheduled in advance * Urgent: Required within 24-48 hours * Emergency: Immediate life-saving need * Diagnostic: Confirm/make diagnosis * Ablative: Removing diseased tissue/organ * Palliative: Relief of symptoms * Reconstructive: Restore function * Transplant: Organ replacement * Constructive: Due to congenital anomalies * Cosmetic: Aesthetic procedures * Ambulatory: Same-day, outpatient surgery ## Footnote Understanding the type of surgery helps in planning and preparation.
173
What is included in the assessment of a preoperative client?
* Review medical history * Allergies * Smoking * Medications * Occupation * Emotional and cultural factors ## Footnote A thorough assessment is crucial for patient safety.
174
What are the stages of general anesthesia?
* Induction: Introduction of anesthesia * Excitement: Patient might react or struggle * Maintenance: Sustaining anesthesia during surgery * Emergence: Gradual wake-up ## Footnote Understanding these stages is vital for anesthesia management.
175
What should be monitored in the PACU?
* Airway management * Respiration checks * Circulatory status * Pain * Wound status * Neuro checks * Fluid/electrolytes * Temperature management ## Footnote Monitoring in PACU is essential for patient recovery.
176
What are common symptoms of urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
* Dysuria * Frequency * Urgency * Cloudy urine ## Footnote Early recognition of these symptoms can lead to timely treatment.
177
What are the types of urinary incontinence?
* Transient: Temporary, often due to illness * Stress: Caused by weak pelvic floor or urethral sphincter * Urge: Urgency followed by urine loss * Mixed: Combination of stress and urge incontinence * Overflow: Chronic retention leading to overdistention and overflow ## Footnote Understanding the types helps in management and treatment.
178
What is the normal frequency of urination in adults?
Normal urination frequency varies, but infrequent urination increases the risk of UTIs and kidney issues ## Footnote Maintaining regular urination is important for urinary health.
179
What is the anatomical structure of the bladder?
Three layers of muscle, including the detrusor muscle ## Footnote The bladder's structure is key to its function of storing urine.
180
What is the function of the urethra?
Transports urine from the bladder to the outside ## Footnote The urethra plays a crucial role in the urinary system.
181
What is dysuria?
Painful or difficult urination ## Footnote Dysuria can be a symptom of various urinary conditions.
182
What is urine assessment used for?
Assess for color, odor, clarity, sediment ## Footnote Regular urine assessment can provide insights into a patient's health status.
183
What is the common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
E. coli ## Footnote E. coli is a common bacterium responsible for most UTIs.
184
List five risk factors for urinary tract infections.
* Sexually active females * Catheters * Diabetes Mellitus (DM) * Postmenopausal women * Older adults
185
What are four common symptoms of urinary tract infections?
* Dysuria * Frequency * Urgency * Cloudy urine
186
What is the primary treatment for urinary tract infections?
Antibiotics
187
What are the types of urinary incontinence?
* Transient * Stress * Urge * Mixed * Overflow * Functional * Total
188
What characterizes transient urinary incontinence?
Temporary, often due to illness
189
What causes stress urinary incontinence?
Weak pelvic floor or urethral sphincter
190
What is post void residual (PVR)?
The amount of urine left in the bladder after voiding
191
What does an ultrasound measure in terms of post void residual?
< 50 mL indicates adequate emptying; > 150 mL indicates retention, increasing UTI risk
192
List three ways to promote urinary elimination.
* Strengthening muscle tone with pelvic floor muscle training * Promoting fluid intake of 6-8 oz glasses daily * Assisting with toileting through regular schedules and hygiene
193
What is one reason for catheterization?
Urinary retention
194
What type of catheter is non-invasive and used for men?
Condom (Texas) catheter
195
What are the potential harms from catheters?
* UTI * Injury to the urethra * Pain and bladder spasm * Sepsis
196
What is the most common incontinent urinary diversion?
Ileal conduit
197
Describe the function of the upper airways.
Warm, filter, and humidify air
198
What is the process of inspiration?
Active process
199
What is the role of the medulla in respiration?
Regulates breathing
200
List three factors that affect oxygenation.
* O2 carrying capacity * Metabolic rate * Blood volume
201
What are the breath sound characteristics in infants?
Crackles at the end of deep breaths
202
What is the respiratory rate for older adults?
16-18 bpm
203
What does a pulmonary function test measure?
Lung capacity
204
What is the purpose of pursed-lip breathing?
Inhale deeply, exhale slowly and extended
205
What does a simple face mask deliver in terms of flow rate?
6-10 L/min = 35-60% oxygen concentration
206
What are the characteristics of laxative foods?
* Fruits * Vegetables * Bran * Chocolate * Alcohol * Coffee
207
What are the main components of bowel elimination?
* Digestion * Absorption * Excretion
208
What are common causes of constipation?
* Poor habits * Low fiber * Decreased exercise * Laxative use * Aging
209
What is the recommended fluid intake for bowel health?
6-8 glasses (1400-2000 mL) of water daily
210
What are the signs of fecal impaction?
Liquid stool without solid feces, enema failure
211
What is the purpose of digital removal in fecal impaction?
To remove fecal matter manually under order and procedure
212
What is the flow rate and oxygen concentration for a nasal cannula at 6L/min?
44% ## Footnote Flow rates for nasal cannulas typically range from 1-6 L/min.
213
What is the minimum flow rate setting for a nasal cannula?
5 L/min
214
What is the maximum flow rate recommended for chronic lung disease patients?
2-3 L/min
215
What is the flow rate range and oxygen concentration for simple face masks?
6-10 L/min = 35-60%
216
What precautions should be taken when using a simple face mask?
Secure the mask, check placement, be mindful of claustrophobia, replace with nasal cannula during mealtime
217
What is the flow rate and oxygen concentration for a partial rebreather mask?
6-15 L/min = 70-90%
218
What should be ensured regarding the reservoir bag of a partial rebreather mask?
Mask should remain two-thirds full during inspiration, ensure reservoir bag isn’t kinked
219
What is the flow rate and oxygen concentration for a Venturi mask?
4-10 L/min = 24%-55%
220
What is the primary advantage of using a Venturi mask?
Delivers the most precise concentration of oxygen
221
What should be clear to ensure proper function of a Venturi mask?
Air intake valves
222
What are the two sources of oxygen mentioned?
* Wall * Cylinder
223
What is essential for high flow rates in oxygen therapy?
Humidification
224
What is a critical safety precaution regarding oxygen?
Oxygen is combustible—keep away from heat sources
225
What methods are used to monitor oxygenation levels?
* Pulse oximetry * ABGs
226
What is the purpose of oral airways?
Prevent airway obstruction
227
What is the function of an endotracheal tube (ETT)?
Tube inserted into the trachea for ventilation support
228
What is a tracheotomy tube used for?
Long-term airway support through an incision in the trachea
229
What are bronchodilators used for?
Medications that open narrowed airways
230
What is the therapeutic level range for xanthine derivatives like Theophylline?
10-20 ug/mL
231
What are common side effects of xanthine derivatives?
* Restlessness * Tremors * Palpitations * Tachycardia
232
What substances can interact with xanthine derivatives, increasing toxicity risk?
Caffeine
233
List some side effects of beta-agonists.
* Nervousness * Tremors * Palpitations * Arrhythmias * Paradoxical bronchospasm
234
What are examples of leukotriene modifiers?
* Montelukast (Singulair) * Zafirlukast (Accolate)
235
What is the function of Cromolyn (Nasacort)?
Anti-inflammatory
236
Name two corticosteroids mentioned.
* Pulmicort (Budesonide) * Flovent (Flunisolide)
237
What is the purpose of codeine in respiratory medications?
Used to suppress cough
238
What is the function of Guaifenesin (Robitussin)?
Helps thin mucus
239
What do nebulizers do?
Convert liquid medication into a mist for deeper penetration into the respiratory tract
240
What is the function of Meter-Dose Inhalers (MDIs)?
Deliver controlled doses of medication with each compression of the canister
241
How are Dry Powder Inhalers (DPIs) activated?
Activated by the patient’s breath
242
What is a key post-use tip for inhalers?
Always rinse the mouth after use to prevent irritation

Nursing Fundamentals Final (3 decks)

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