Consolidation lecture Flashcards by Sarena Sulaman

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of osteoarthritis?
a. symmetric joint involvement
b. morning stiffness lasting >1hr
c. Autoimmune aetiology
d. Joint space narrowing on X-Ray
e. Presence of rheumatoid arthritis

d. Joint space narrowing on X-Ray

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What is the primary function of articular cartilage in synovial joints?
a. To connect muscle to bone
b. To produce synovial fluid
c. To reduce friction and absorb shock
d. To provide blood supply to the joint
e. To initiate bone remodelling

c. To reduce friction and absorb shock

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Which type of connective tissue connects bones to other bones?
a. tendons
b. ligaments
c. cartilage
d. fascia
e. synovium

b. ligaments

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What is the main structural protein found in bones and connective tissues?
a. actin
b. myosin
c. keratin
d. collagen
e. elastin

d. collagen

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What is the function of synovial fluid in joints?
a. To break down cartilage
b. To act as a shock absorber and reduce friction
c. To provide nutrients and lubrication to the joint
d. To transport oxygen to tendons
e. To initiate inflammation

c. To provide nutrients and lubrication to the joint

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Which of the following bone cells is responsible for bone resorption?
a. osteoblasts
b. osteocytes
c. osteoclasts
d. chondrocytes
e. fibroblasts

c. osteoclasts

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The main function of the axial skeleton is to:
a. protect vital organs and provide structural support
b. Facilitate movement and store minerals
c. Store red and white blood cells
d. Connect the limbs to the body
e. Increase joint mobility

a. protect vital organs and provide structural support

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Which type of muscle is responsible for voluntary movement?
a. Cardiac muscle
b. Smooth muscle
c. Skeletal muscle
d. Elastic muscle
e. Synovial muscle

c. Skeletal muscle

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What type of joint is found in the shoulder and hip?
a. Hinge joint
b. Pivot joint
c. Saddle joint
d. Ball-and-socket joint
e. Plane joint

d. Ball-and-socket joint

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Which of the following best describes the role of tendons?
a. To connect muscle to bone and transmit force
b. To protect internal organs
c. To store calcium for muscle contraction
d. To transport oxygen in the blood
e. To act as a primary energy source for muscles

a. To connect muscle to bone and transmit force

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What is the primary pathological change in osteoarthritis (OA)?
a. Autoimmune attack on synovial tissue
b. Loss of articular cartilage and bone remodelling
c. Increased deposition of urate crystals
d. Demyelination of peripheral nerves
e. Hyperactive osteoblast activity

b. Loss of articular cartilage and bone remodelling

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Which type of exercise is most beneficial for osteoporosis prevention?
a. swimming
b. cycling
c. weight-bearing exercises
d. stretching
e. yoga

c. weight-bearing exercises

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Which of the following is NOT a major risk factor for osteoporosis risk?
a. corticosteroid use
b. advanced age
c. male gender
d. smoking
e. postmenopausal status

c. male gender

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Which medicine is the first-line treatment for acute gout?
a. Paracetamol
b. Colchicine
c. Methotrexate
d. Hydroxychloroquine
e. Leflunomide

b. Colchicine

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The most commonly affected joint in gout is the:
a. knee
b. elbow
c. first metatarsophalangeal joint
d. shoulder
e. hip

c. first metatarsophalangeal joint

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Which of the following is NOT a first-line treatment for osteoarthritis?
a. Paracetamol
b. Topical NSAIDs
c. Oral corticosteroids
d. Weight loss
e. Physical therapy

c. Oral corticosteroids

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What is the most common presenting symptom of rheumatoid arthritis?
a. Asymmetrical joint pain
b. Acute joint swelling in one joint
c. Symmetrical polyarthritis with morning stiffness
d. Muscle weakness
e. Chronic back pain

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c. Symmetrical polyarthritis with morning stiffness

Which class of medications is first-line for osteoporosis treatment?
a. DMARDs
b. NSAIDs
c. Bisphosphonates
d. Biological agents
e. Corticosteroids

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c. Bisphosphonates

Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for gout?
a. Male sex
b. Increased age
c. Family history
d. Alcohol consumption
e. Genetic predisposition

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d. Alcohol consumption

The main reason for prescribing folic acid with methotrexate in rheumatoid arthritis is to:
a. Improve efficacy of methotrexate
b. Reduce gastrointestinal side effects
c. Prevent liver toxicity
d. Reduce risk of methotrexate-induced folate deficiency
e. Enhance immune function

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d. Reduce risk of methotrexate-induced folate deficiency

Which of the following should be AVOIDED in a patient with severe renal impairment and acute gout?
a. Colchicine
b. Prednisolone
c. Naproxen
d. Allopurinol
e. Febuxostat

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c. Naproxen

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of bisphosphonates?
a. Stimulates bone formation by osteoblasts
b. Inhibits osteoclast activity, reducing bone resorption
c. Increases calcium absorption in the gut
d. Enhances vitamin D activation
e. Reduces renal calcium excretion

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b. Inhibits osteoclast activity, reducing bone resorption

Which of the following is a major side effect of biological DMARDs used for RA?
a. increased infection risk
b. hyperuricemia
c. hypercalcemia
d. gingival hyperplasia
e. osteonecrosis

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a. increased infection risk

Which of the following medications can increase the risk of osteoporosis when used long-term?
a. Metformin
b. Prednisolone
c. Ibuprofen
d. Methotrexate
e. Hydroxychloroquine

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b. Prednisolone

Which of the following statements about rheumatoid arthritis is TRUE? a. It primarily affects weight-bearing joints b. It is more common in men than women c. It is associated chronic synovial inflammation and pannus formation d. It is associated with HLA-B27 positivity e. NSAIDs alone are sufficient to treat RA

c. It is associated chronic synovial inflammation and pannus formation

Which test is MOST SPECIFIC for diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis? a. Rheumatoid factor (RF) b. Anti-citrullinated peptide antibody (Anti-CCP) c. ESR d. CRP e. Synovial fluid analysis

b. Anti-citrullinated peptide antibody (Anti-CCP)

What is the best step for managing a patient with osteoporosis who cannot tolerate oral bisphosphonates? a. Increase calcium intake b. Switch to intravenous zoledronic acid c. Stop osteoporosis treatment d. Use NSAIDs instead e. Prescribe hydroxychloroquine

b. Switch to intravenous zoledronic acid

Which of the following best describes the radiographic findings of osteoarthritis? a. Erosions and periarticular osteopenia b. Soft tissue swelling and joint effusions c. Joint space narrowing and osteophytes d. Symmetric joint space loss and bony erosions e. Pencil-in-cup deformity

c. Joint space narrowing and osteophytes

A patient with recurrent gout is started on allopurinol. Shortly after, they develop a rash, fever and eosinophilia. What is the most appropriate next step? a. Reduce the allopurinol dose b. Continue and monitor closely c. Discontinue allopurinol immediately d. Prescribe colchicine e. Switch to methotrexate

c. Discontinue allopurinol immediately

Which biological DMARD targets TNF-alpha in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis? a. Rituximab b. Tocilizumab c. Adalimumab d. Abatacept e. Methotrexate

c. Adalimumab

Which vitamin deficiency is most associated with rickets? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B12 c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin D e. Vitamin K

d. Vitamin D

What is the main pathological feature of osteogenesis imperfecta? a. Abnormal collagen synthesis b. Overactive osteoclasts c. Autoimmune joint destruction d. Deficient growth hormone production e. Increased bone density

a. Abnormal collagen synthesis

A 12 year old obese boy presents with hip pain and difficulty walking. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) b. Septic arthritis c. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) d. Osgood-Schlatter disease e. Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

c. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)

Which of the following is a key risk factor for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)? a. Preterm birth b. Male sex c. Breech presentation d. Twin pregnancy e. Excessive physical activity

c. Breech presentation

What is the most common site affected in Osgood-Schlatter disease? a. femoral head b. medial malleolus c. tibial tuberosity d. calcaneus e. patellar tendon

c. tibial tuberosity

What is the primary concern in untreated juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA)? a. Increased risk of scoliosis b. Growth delays and joints deformity c. Hypermobile joints d. Increased bone mineral density e. Chronic hypertension

b. Growth delays and joints deformity

What is a key diagnostic feature of clubfoot (congenital talipes equinovarus)? a. Increased hip internal rotation b. Foot deformity that is passively correctable c. Rigid plantar flexion and inward foot rotation d. Shortened Achilles tendon e. Widened foot arch

c. Rigid plantar flexion and inward foot rotation

Which of the following is the most common cause of septic arthritis in children? a, Escherichia coli b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Streptococcus pneumoniae e. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

c. Staphylococcus aureus

What is the most appropriate treatment for Osgood-Schlatter disease? a. surgical resection of the tibial tubercle b. Rest, ice, NSAIDs and activity modification c. Corticosteroid injections into the patellar tendon d. Antibiotics e. Immediate immobilization in a cast

b. Rest, ice, NSAIDs and activity modification

Which medication is most commonly used in the management of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA)? a. Paracetamol b. Methotrexate c. Ciprofloxacin d. Allopurinol e. Azathioprine

b. Methotrexate

Consolidation lecture Flashcards

(40 cards)