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DOG, Derm > Controlled and uncontrolled DOG > Flashcards

Controlled and uncontrolled DOG Flashcards

1
Q

'’Controlled’’ disorders of growth can be divided into:

A
  1. Congenital (agenesis, aplasia and hypoplasia)

2. Acquired (atrophy, hypertrophy, hyperplasia, metaplasia, dysplasia)

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2
Q

Disorders of growth fall into 2 major groups:

A
  1. Controlled (non-neoplastic) = process lies under normal controls (does not mean it is beneficial to the animal)
  2. Uncontrolled (neoplastic) = cells proliferate without the constraint of normal cellular controls and usually fail to reach full differentiation. Result in tumours, neoplasma and are irreversible.
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3
Q

What is a tumour?

A

An abnormal mass.

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4
Q

What is a neoplasm?

A

'’New growth’’. Any new and abnormal growth in which cell multiplication is uncontrolled and progressive.

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5
Q

What are the main types of controlled alterations in cell growth?

A
  1. Hypertrophy (increase in cell size)
  2. Atrophy (decrease in cell size, often also involves a decrease in cell number)
  3. Hyperplasia (increase in cell number, implies cells involved are capable of mitotic division)
  4. Metaplasia (replacement of one cell type to another
  5. Dysplasia (epithelial tissue - proliferation of cells, disorderly arrangement rather than an orderly progression from immature basal cells through intermediate cell types to the mature fully differentiated cells near the surface-> pre-neoplastic)
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6
Q

What is anaplasia?

A

Loss of differentiation of adult cells i.e. an irreversible alteration toward a more primitive (embryonic) morphology. Reversion to a lower level of differentiation. (Anaplastic)

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7
Q

Benign =

A

not malignant, favourable for recovery

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8
Q

Malignant =

A

tending to become progressively worse, leading to death.

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9
Q

What does the term metastasis mean?

A

The transfer of disease from one site in the body to another not directly connected to it. Most commonly either haematogenously or via the lymphatics. Often used in the setting of neoplasia, however, can also describe the spread of infectious diseases.

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10
Q

What does the term pleiomorphism mean?

A

Variation in size and shape. e.g. some cells may be extremely large with large nuclei while others of the same cell type may be small with small hyperchromatic nuclei. There may be a change in nuclear shape and there may be prominent and multiple nucleioli present. . Nuclear: cytoplasm may approach 1:1 (normal 1:4)

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11
Q

How are neoplasms classified?

A
  1. Cell of origin

2. Behaviour

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12
Q

What is the name ‘stroma’ given to?

A

Supporting CT and blood vessels (neoplastic cells often stimulate stroma)

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13
Q

What is the most important feature of a neoplasm?

A

its BEHAVIOUR.

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14
Q

List some gross features of Benign Neoplasms:

A
  • well circumscribed borders
  • dont metastasize
  • may have ulceration due to trauma e.g. knocking a lump
  • growth is slow
  • Maybe within a capsule
  • Compression of surrounding tissue
  • NOT fixed to surrounding tissue
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15
Q

List some gross features of Malignant Neoplasms:

A
  • invasive borders
  • may metastasize
  • more often you see ulceration due to trauma or invasion
  • Common to have haemorrhage or necrosis
  • No capsule
  • Grow fast
  • Compress surrounding tissue
    and often fixed to/invasion of surrounding tissue
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16
Q

What are the common routes of metastases?

A
  1. Exfoliation & Implantation
  2. Haematogenous Spread
  3. Lymphatic Spread
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17
Q

What is meant by the term ‘grading’?

A

Looking at cell features/mitotic rate, how much they look like normal tissue cells (use microscopic pathology table to gauge) - uses case series

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18
Q

What is meant by the term ‘staging’

A

(Extent of disease). How much has it spread to different tissue? BM, lymphatics, other organs? (disadvantage is that it has already happened - metastasis)

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19
Q

What is the name of a tumour with cells of lymphoid origin?

A

Lymphosarcoma (when a solid neoplasm); Leukaemia (when in blood)

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20
Q

What is the name of a malignant tumour of melanocytes?

A

Malignant melanoma (or melanosarcoma)

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21
Q

List 3 direct effects that a tumour may have on surrounding tissue?

A
  • distortion
  • blockage of secretions/ excretions
  • scarring
  • atrophy
  • pain
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22
Q

List 3 systemic effects that a tumour may have on a host?

A
  • Metastasis
  • Cachexia
  • Anaemia
  • Infarction
  • Paraneoplastic syndromes (hormones)
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23
Q

Describe the tools (and how they are used) that you would use to diagnose neoplasia?

A

Everything!
- Signalment: Physical exam (palpation, observation); Imaging (radiography, ultrasonography)
- Biopsy:
Cytology (fna, impression smears, scrapings)
Histopath (grading & staging, margins)

24
Q

What are proto-oncogenes?

A

Positive regulators of the cell cycle (for tissue repair/remodelling need cells to be able to divide. If they become active without a stimulus -> oncogenes)

25
Q

What are tumour suppressor genes?

A

Negative regulators of the cell cycle. Code proteins to stop cell cycle to check for mutation, start signalling pathways of cell death if repair is not possible).

26
Q

What are cell alterations in normal control?

A
  • Cell proliferation

- Apoptosis

27
Q

What suffix is used to describe benign tumours?

A

‘-oma’

28
Q

What suffix is used to describe malignant neoplasms?

A 
'-carcinoma' = arising from epithelial tissues
'-sarcoma' = arising from mesenchymal tissues (CT, skeletal, muscle etc.)
29
Q

T/F: Atrophy is a normal process in the development of many organs

A

True

E.g. thymus

30
Q

What are benign neoplasms of glandular origin called?

A

adenoma eg. perianal, pituitary

31
Q

What are malignant neoplasms of glandular origin called?

A

Adenocarcinoma e.g. pancreatic

32
Q

What are benign neoplasms of squamous epithelium called?

A

Papilloma (wart)

33
Q

What are malignant neoplasms of squamous epithelium called?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

34
Q

What are benign tumours of basal cells (epithelial) called?

A

Basal cell epithelioma

35
Q

What are malignant tumours of basal cell origin called?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

36
Q

What are malignant neoplasms of striated muscle called?

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

37
Q

What are malignant neoplasms of smooth muscle called?

A

Leiomyosarcoma

38
Q

What are the systemic effects of neoplasia on the host?

A
  1. Metastasis
  2. Cachexia
  3. Blood loss
  4. Infarction
  5. Paraneoplastic syndrome
39
Q

What breeds are predisposed to Osteosarcoma?

A

large or giant breeds of dogs.

40
Q

Lymphosarcoma is common to which companion species?

A

cats

41
Q

What Dx would you use to diagnose neoplasia?

A

cytology (FNA, impression smear - less invasive, cheap and quick)
histology - biopsy (invasive, allows for margina to be examined, method preserves tissue structure)

42
Q

What do proto-oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes specifically influence?

A
  1. Production of growth factors
  2. Expression of receptors for growth factors & other stimulators of cell growth such as hormones and adhesion molecules
  3. Signal transduction
  4. DNA replication
  5. Apoptosis
43
Q

What are the 3 ways (agents) of inducing mutation (& hence neoplastic transformation)? - also known as ‘carcinogens’

A
  1. Chemical e.g. cytotoxic drugs, fungal toxins, polycyclic hydrocarbons and nitrosamines found in tar, tobacco and some foods.
  2. Physical e.g. radiation
  3. Biological e.g. oncogenic viruses (onogenic RNA viruses = retroviruses such as feline leukaemia virus; oncogenic DNA viruses = papilloma viruses which cause warts and contribute to the development of some carcinomas.)
44
Q

What is the term given to a tumour creating its own vessels for adequate blood supply?

A

tumour angiogenesis (some anti-cancer therapies work on targeting the blood supply)

45
Q

Congenital disorders can be either 1 of 2 malformations/defects, what are they?

A
  1. Anatomical malformations

2. Biochemical defects

46
Q

Anatomical malformations (Congenital disorders) may be:

A
  1. fusion/fission defects
  2. Cysts
  3. Failure of a structure to develop
  4. Abnormal development of a structure
  5. Ectopic development
47
Q

Biochemical congenital disorders may be classified as:

A
  1. Haemophilia
  2. Lysosomal storage diseases
  3. Dermatosporaxis
  4. Albinism
48
Q

Describe 3 key factors critical in the development of congenital defects giving specific examples to illustrate their effect..

A
  1. Stage of pregnancy affected > Sequences of organogenesis; differentiation (histogenesis) & maturation are related to the trimesters of pregnancy. e.g. Generally, the earlier the defect occurs in pregnancy, the more spectacular the anatomical abnormality at birth. Outcomes vary with embryonic death -> resorption; foetal death -> mummification, abortion, still birth (if taken to term).
  2. Genotype of developing embryo > Breed disposition to inherited disorders (e.g. persian cats & english bulldogs); single (e.g. albinism) or multiple gene disorders; inherited susceptibility to teratogens.
  3. The teratogens involved > infectious agents (Viral =most significant); chemical agents (nutritional deficiency/excess & environmental poisons/toxins) and physical insults (e.g. heat, trauma to embryo, blockage of vessels within foetus)
49
Q

What is Schistosoma?

A
  1. Anatomic congenital disorder
    - Failure to close/fuse
    - Abdominal midline cleft (extreme example of an umbilical hernia; viscera hang out)
    - Can also have Schistosoma reflexus where thoracic and abdominal cavities fail to close; vertebral column reflects backwards on itself; Occipital refion of the skull apposes sacrum; most frequently seen in cattle, sheep, pigs & dogs. (If calf already dead, need to use embryonic wire to cut foetus up for safe delivery for mum)
50
Q

Give at least 3 examples of congenital disorders that are due to failure to close/fuse:

A
  • Schistosoma
  • Spina bifida
  • Palatoschisis (cleft palate (hard palate)))
  • Cheiloschisis (cleft lip)
  • Hypospadia (penile cleft exposing the urethra)
  • Coloboma (cleft in the iris of the eye)
  • Interventricular cardiac septal defect (hole btw the ventricles)
  • Exencephaly/ Meningoencephaly (exposure of brain/meninges)

Failure to canalise:
- Atresia: failure of a structure to open e.g. atresia ani

Failure to separate:
- Cyclopia

51
Q

Give an example of a congenital disorder due to vestigial remnants.

A
  • Persistance of embryonic structures
    e. g. Patent ductus arteriosus
  • Ventricular Septal defect
52
Q

Give an example of common ectopic anatomical congenital malformations.

A
  1. Tissue is located in the wrong place e.g. Ectopic thyroid tissue in the cranial mediastinum in dogs
  2. The whole organ fails to migrate to the appropriate location e.g. Cryptorchidism
53
Q

Glycogenesis or Pompes disease is due to what?

A

Alpha glucosidase deficiency in beef cattle –> Lysosomal Storage disease

  • Despite extensive storage in the CNS, animals present clinically with storage disease involving the cardiac (sudden death) or skeletal muscles (paresis)
54
Q

Outline the basic mechanisms by which viruses may alter cellular proliferation using your knowledge of normal cellular proliferation mechanisms/

A

Normal regulation, genetic damage is usually due to 1 of 4 types of normal genes that regulate cell growth:

1) Proto-oncogenes
2) Tumour-suppressor genes (p53, Rb)
3) Genes that regulate apoptosis
4) Genes that mediate RNA and DNA repair

55
Q

Give an example of a DNA virus and discuss its key characteristic features and oncogenic mechanisms.

A

DNA non-enveloped virus -> papillomaviridae

Papilloma viruses encode proteins that bind and inactivate cell-growth regulatory proteins.

contagious in the animal in which they occur but do not cross animal species, however, bovine papilloma virus 1 & 2 exhibit a broader host range and tissue tropism, causing fibropapillomasin cattle and sarcoids in horses

DOG, Derm (6 decks)

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