Cookshoot learning points Flashcards

1
Q

Cardiac chest pain + no ECG changes mgmt

A

Aspirin + 12 hour troponin

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2
Q

What ABG would you expect in acute asthma attack

A

Respiratory alkalosis

Resp failure → Type 2 = near fatal asthma

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3
Q

Classic triad of wernickes

A

ophthalmoplegia/nystagmus, ataxia and confusion if unTx → kormokoff

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4
Q

Meningitis + behavioural disturbance/altered conciousness

A

encephalitis

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5
Q

Describe phempugoid vulguis

A

Younger patients, intradermal, break down easily

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6
Q

Common causes of blisters

A

Mechanical, stings, burns, contact dermatitis

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7
Q
Upper GI bleed
• Use of glasgow blatchford score 
• When to offer endoscopy
• Who gets terlipressin + when?
• How to stop active bleeding 
• How to ↓ portal hypertension 
• All patients who have an intervention should have what IV drugs and for how long
A
  • GBS: scores of 6 or more were associated with a greater than 50% risk of needing an intervention
  • If patient is unstable → after resus immediate endoscopy otherwise within 24 hours
  • Suspected variceal bleed, give before endoscopy + continue until definite haemostasis or after 5 days.
  • If can stop bleeding Minnesota tube - max 12 hours
  • Medical + TIPPS procedure
  • IV omeprazole for 72 hours
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8
Q

Describe blatchford score

A

The need for admission and timing of endoscopic intervention may be predicted by using the Blatchford score. This considers a patients Hb, serum urea, pulse rate and blood pressure. Those patients with a score of 0 are low risk, all others are considered high risk and require admission and endoscopy.

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9
Q

Use of rockall score

A

Following endoscopy it is important to calculate the Rockall score for patients to determine their risk of rebleeding and mortality. A score of 3 or less is associated with a rebleeding rate of 4% and a very low risk of mortality and identifies a group of patients suitable for early discharge.

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10
Q

Angina Hx with +ve ECG finding on exercise tolerance test

A

1st line angina: BB + GTN spray
Prevention meds: Aspirin 75mg, atorvostatin 20mg, HTN control
• outpatient angiogram

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11
Q

When ever giving a fluid what to say in OSCE after

A

I would monitor there fluid status → by listening to HS, lung bases and monitoring UO

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12
Q

Complications of DKA - which is common in children

A

gastric stasis
thromboembolism
arrhythmias secondary to hyperkalaemia/iatrogenic hypokalaemia
iatrogenic due to incorrect fluid therapy: cerebral oedema*, hypokalaemia, hypoglycaemia
acute respiratory distress syndrome
acute kidney injury

Cerebral oedema is common in children - if suspect CT head + senior review

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13
Q

Hyperkalaemia

A

Flattened p wave, wide QRS, Tall T waves
>6 + ECG changes or >6.5

30mls - 10% calcium gluconate IV 2 mins
50ml - 50% insulin IV 10 mins
10 units of insulin IV - 10 mins 
Salbutamol 
calcium resonium - 15 g oral 6-8hrs

Review: intake, meds.

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14
Q

Name extra intestinal features of crohns and UC

A
  • Scleritis
  • Erythema nodusum
  • Pyoderma gangrenosum
  • apothous stomatitis
  • Primary sclerosis cholangitis
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15
Q

What is the child pugh scoring system used for?

What is it comprised off?

A
Bilirubin 
Albumin 
Prothrombin time 
Encephalopathy
Ascites
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16
Q

Causes of gout

Comps

A

Primary - idiopathic renal under secretion

Secondary -
Dietry excess
Under-excretion - 2 renal failure, dehydration
Overproduction - ↑nucleaic acid (malignancy + chemo)
Medications - Thiazides

Comps: chronic destructive gout, urate nephropathy

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17
Q

Unprovoked DVT

A

Malignancy or thrombophilia

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18
Q

Name the 4 types of melanoma

How to measure risk?

A

Superficial spreading melanoma
Nodular melanoma
Lentigo meligna melanoma
Acral lentinginous melanoma

Breslow thickness >0.7 = medium/high risk

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19
Q

Fundoscopy of papillodema + causes

A

The following features may be observed during fundoscopy:
venous engorgement: usually the first sign
blurring of the optic disc margin
elevation of optic disc
loss of the optic cup
Paton’s lines: concentric/radial retinal lines cascading from the optic disc

Causes of papilloedema
space-occupying lesion: neoplastic, vascular
malignant hypertension
idiopathic intracranial hypertension
hydrocephalus
hypercapnia
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20
Q

HTN retinopathy

A

Stage 1: Silver wiring
Stage 2: Narrowing + focal narrowing + AV nipping
Stage 3: Retinal haemorrhage, hard exudates, cotton-wool spots
Stage 4: Swelling of optic disc + macular star

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21
Q

What does acute anterior uveitis look like? Causes

A

Painful red eye, with decreased vision and photophobia.
Ex: red eye, irregular pupil, miosis and pain on consensual pupillary response

Causes: idiopathic, HLA-B27 conditions + seronegative = ankylosing spondylitis and reactive arthritis

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22
Q

c-ANCA - what does it stand for and what conditions

A

cytoplasmic-anti neutrophilic cytoplasmic antibodies

• granulmatosis with polyangitis (GPA) - wegeners

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23
Q

p-ANCA - what does it stand for and what conditions

A

perinuclear - -anti neutrophilic cytoplasmic antibodies

  • Churg-straus syndrome
  • inflammatory bowel disease (UC > crohns)
  • CTD (RA, SLE, sjogrens)
  • autoimmune hepatisis
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24
Q

Rheumatoid factor

A

Circulating antibody IgM which reacts with Fc portion of IgG

\+ve 
• Rheumatoid arthritis 
• Sjogren's syndrome (around 100%)
• Felty's syndrome (around 100%)
• infective endocarditis (= 50%)
• SLE (= 20-30%)
• systemic sclerosis (= 30%)
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25
anti-dsDNA Specific for a certain condition - what is it? anti-dsDNA is a type of ANA what does that stand for? What other antibodies maybe be present for the condition above?
SLE - very specific ANA - anti-nuclear antibodies - against nucleus 99% are ANA positive 20% are rheumatoid factor positive anti-dsDNA: highly specific (> 99%), but less sensitive (70%) anti-Smith: most specific (> 99%), sensitivity (30%) also: anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro) and SS-B (anti-La)
26
anti-CCP
Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody Anti CCP maybe detectable up to 10 years before the development of rheumatoid arthritis. It may therefore play a key role in the future of rheumatoid arthritis, allowing early detection of patients suitable for aggressive anti-TNF therapy. It has a sensitivity similar to rheumatoid factor (around 70%) with a much higher specificity of 90-95%.
27
anti-nuclear antibodies
ANAs are found in many disorders, as well as some healthy individuals. These disorders include: systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), rheumatoid arthritis, Sjögren's syndrome, scleroderma, polymyositis, dermatomyositis, primary biliary cirrhosis, drug induced lupus, autoimmune hepatitis, multiple sclerosis, discoid lupus, thyroid disease, antiphospholipid syndrome, juvenile idiopathic arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, juvenile dermatomyositis, idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura, infection and cancer. These antibodies can be subdivided according to their specificity, and each subset has different propensities for specific disorders.[7
28
HLA-B27
Human leukocyte antigen B27 is a class I surface antigen encoded by the B locus in the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) on chromosome 6 and presents antigenic peptides (derived from self and non-self antigens) to T cells. ``` Associated conditions: PAIR psoriasis ankylosing spondylitis inflammatory bowel disease reactive arthritis ```
29
serum ACE
Sarcoidal granulomas produce angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), and ACE levels are elevated in 60% of patients with sarcoidosis.
30
Lupus pernio is a skin manifestation of what disorder
Sarcoidosis Effects: lung, skin, eyes CXR → bilateral hilar lymphdenopathy Bloods → ↑ Ca Fundooscopy Legs → erythema nodosum
31
Fractured KOF is classified using which system
Gardners Type I: Stable fracture with impaction in valgus Type II: Complete fracture but undisplaced Type III: Displaced fracture, usually rotated and angulated, but still has boney contact Type IV: Complete boney disruption
32
Antibodies present in diffuse scleroderma
anti-scl-70
33
antibodies present in limited
anti-centromere
34
Complications of diffuse scleroderma
``` CREST + pulmonary HTN Calcinosis Raynauds Oesophageal dysmobility telangiectasia ```
35
Kayser-Fleischer rings - what condition? Complications of this condition? Medical management
Iron deposits in 1) basal ganglion → parkinsons 2) Liver → hepatitis, cirrhosis 3) Kidney → renal tubular acidosis Measure: reduced serum caeruloplasmin reduced serum copper (counter-intuitive, but 95% of plasma copper is carried by ceruloplasmin) Tx penicillamine (chelates copper)
36
Causes of sudden vision loss
Retinal vein occlusion → severe retinal haemorrhage on fundoscopy Retinal artery occlusion → cherry red spot ischaemic optic neuropathy - giant cell arteritis, atherosclerosis → altutinal defect (upper or lower vision) vitreous haemorrhage → lots of dark spots, big bleed in retina retinal detachment → 1. posterior vitreous detachment (flashing lights, floaters) then retinal (dark shadow from peripherary to central vision) + bubble on fundoscopy optic neuritis
37
features of congenital syphilus
blunted upper incisor teeth (Hutchinson's teeth) saber shins saddle nose deafness
38
LMN causes of facial nerve palsy
``` Bell's palsy Ramsay-Hunt syndrome (due to herpes zoster) acoustic neuroma parotid tumours HIV multiple sclerosis* diabetes mellitus ```
39
Herpes zoster ophthalmicus
Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) describes the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It accounts for around 10% of case of shingles.
40
What patients are effected in infective endocarditis
* normal valves (50%) * rheumatic disease (30%) * prosthetic valves * Congenital heart defects * IVDU
41
Most common bacteria to cause endocarditis 1) overal 2) post-prosthetic valve surgery
1) Staphylococcus aureus | 2) Staphylococcus epidermidis
42
what criteria is used to diagnose infective endocarditis
Modified Duke's Criteria • positive blood cultures (may be to be 12 hours apart if less specific bacteria) • ECHO evidence • New murmur
43
Signs of endocarditis
Hands: osler nodes (tender), janeaway lesions Eyes: Roth spots Heart murmur Nephiritis (segmental
44
Bifasicular block 1) ECG appearance 2) causes
RBBB + Left axis deviation | IHD, HTN
45
Trifasicular block
features of bifascicular block as above + 1st degree heart block
46
What are they two types of ventricular tachycardia?
monomorphic VT: most commonly caused by myocardial infarction polymorphic VT: A subtype of polymorphic VT is torsades de pointes which is precipitated by prolongation of the QT interval. ``` Causes: Congenital: Drugs: amiodarone, TCAs Electrolytes: ↓Ca, ↓Mg, ↓K Cardiac: ACS, myocarditis Other: hypothermia, SAH ```
47
Mgmt of VT
Adverse signs (MI, shock, LOC HF) Yes → DC shock No → Amiodarone 300mg IV 20-60 mins (via central line then 900mg over 24 hours
48
Causes of gynaecomastia
``` physiological: normal in puberty syndromes with androgen deficiency: Kallman's, Klinefelter's testicular failure: e.g. mumps liver disease testicular cancer e.g. seminoma secreting hCG ectopic tumour secretion hyperthyroidism haemodialysis ``` Drugs: finasteride, spironolactone (most common cause), anabolic steroids
49
Risk factors for oesophageal cancer
``` Risk factors smoking alcohol GORD Barrett's oesophagus achalasia Plummer-Vinson syndrome ```
50
features of oesophageal cancer
dysphagia: the most common presenting symptom anorexia and weight loss vomiting other possible features include: odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, cough
51
Ankylosing spondylitis - background
Ankylosing spondylitis is a HLA-B27 associated spondyloarthropathy. It typically presents in males (sex ratio 3:1) aged 20-30 years old.
52
Ankylosing spondylitis- symptoms
Features typically a young man who presents with lower back pain and stiffness of insidious onset stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise the patient may experience pain at night which improves on getting up
53
What is schobers test?
reduced forward flexion - Schober's test - a line is drawn 10 cm above and 5 cm below the back dimples (dimples of Venus). The distance between the two lines should increase by more than 5 cm when the patient bends as far forward as possible
54
Other signs + what are the 6 A's
↓ lateral flexion ↓ chest expansion ``` Other features - the 'A's Apical fibrosis Anterior uveitis Aortic regurgitation Achilles tendonitis AV node block Amyloidosis and cauda equina syndrome peripheral arthritis (25%, more common if female) ```
55
Investigation of ankylosing spondylitis
↑ESR, CRP Xray sacroiliac joints • sacroilitis: subchondral erosions, sclerosis • squaring of lumbar vertebrae • 'bamboo spine' (late & uncommon) • syndesmophytes: due to ossification of outer fibers of • annulus fibrosus chest x-ray: apical fibrosis
56
Mgmt of ankylosing spondylitis
encourage regular exercise such as swimming physiotherapy NSAIDs are the first-line treatment Unsure evidence on anti-TNF
57
What are gottron's patches and what condition are they associated to?
roughened red papules over extensor surfaces of fingers Dermatomyositis
58
Other features of dermatomyositis
Inflammatory disorder causing symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness and characteristic skin lesions • cab be idiopathic, associated to other CTD or underlying malignancy proximal muscle weakness respiratory muscle weakness skin lesions: • photosensitive macular rash over back and shoulder • heliotrope rash in the periorbital region • Gottron's papules • nail fold capillary dilatation
59
Osteoarthritis on hand
swollen bouchards and heberdens node, Z thumb
60
What factors of raynauds would suggest an underlying CTD?
``` onset after 40 years unilateral symptoms rashes presence of autoantibodies features which may suggest rheumatoid arthritis or SLE, for example arthritis or recurrent miscarriages digital ulcers, calcinosis ```
61
Most common cause of secondary raynauds
Scleroderma | others SLE + rheumatoid arthritis
62
Mgmt of raynauds
Keep hands warm, nifedipine (CCB)
63
Causes of bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
Sarcoid TB Lymphoma + other malignancy Fungi
64
Main cause of acromegaly
pituitary adenoma (95%)
65
CF of acromegaly
overbite (prognathism), ↑hand or feet size, | features of pit tumour: headache, bitemporal hemianopia
66
Test for acromegaly
oral glucose tolerance test and measure CG (should by suppressed by ↑glucose)
67
complications of acromegaly
HTN, cardiomyopathy, DM, colorectal cancer
68
Features and complications of Ehler-danlos
elastic, fragile skin joint hypermobility: recurrent joint dislocation easy bruising aortic regurgitation, mitral valve prolapse and aortic dissection subarachnoid haemorrhage angioid retinal streaks
69
Features of marfans
tall stature with arm span to height ratio > 1.05 high-arched palate arachnodactyly pectus excavatum pes planus scoliosis of > 20 degrees heart: dilation of the aortic sinuses (seen in 90%) which may lead to aortic aneurysm, aortic dissection, aortic regurgitation, mitral valve prolapse (75%), lungs: repeated pneumothoraces eyes: upwards lens dislocation (superotemporal ectopia lentis), blue sclera, myopia dural ectasia (ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level)
70
what arthritis causes severe deformity fingers/hand, 'telescoping fingers' that is not RA
arthritis mutilans - psoriatic arthritis
71
Types of psoriatic arthritis
rheumatoid-like polyarthritis: (30-40%, most common type) asymmetrical oligoarthritis: typically affects hands and feet (20-30%) sacroilitis DIP joint disease (10%) arthritis mutilans (severe deformity fingers/hand, 'telescoping fingers')
72
What is the most common cause of purpura in adults? What is important to exclude (adult + children)?
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura Meningococcal septicaemia
73
For investigations for lung cancer - would should you offer a 2 week chest XR?
* Age > 40 + never smoked + 2 of following symptoms: * Age > 40 + ever smoked + 1 symptom: ``` cough fatigue shortness of breath chest pain weight loss appetite loss ```
74
Who should you consider for a chest XR in 2 weeks?
``` persistent or recurrent chest infection finger clubbing supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy chest signs consistent with lung cancer thrombocytosis ```
75
Refer people using a suspected cancer pathway referral (for an appointment within 2 weeks) for lung cancer if they - what?
have chest x-ray findings that suggest lung cancer | are aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis
76
Differentials for caveatting lung lesion on CXR
``` CAVIT Cancer - squamous cell lung cancer Autoimmune - SLE/RA Vascular - PE, Wegener's granulomatosis Infection - (TB, Staph aureus, Klebsiella and Pseudomonas) Trauma ```
77
Where can rheumatoid nodules occur?
Elbow, hands, lung + other internal organs (gut, brain)
78
Causes for raised akaline phosphatase
liver: cholestasis, hepatitis, fatty liver, neoplasia Paget's osteomalacia bone metastases hyperparathyroidism renal failure physiological: pregnancy, growing children, healing fractures
79
Isolated raised alkaline phosphatase
Pagets? Primary biliary sclerosis
80
↑ alkaline phosphatase + ↑ Ca
Hyperparathyroid | Bone mets
81
↑ alkaline phosphatase + ↓ Ca
Osteomalacia | Renal failure
82
Who gets pagets, and how does it present
Common disease (5%) but few have symptoms (1 in 20). More common with >age, M>F and northern hemisphere Symptoms: bone pain, bowing of tibia, bossing of skull
83
Tx of pagets
Bisphophantes
84
Complications of pagets
deafness osteosarcoma fractures high-output cardiac failure
85
Name a few causes of bradycardia
``` < 60 beats per min Athlete BB Hypothyroid ↑ ICP Heart block Drugs ```
86
If adverse features in bradycardia - what do you do?
Atropine 500mcg IV
87
What if that doesn't give a satisfactory response?
``` Atropine 500mcg IV repeat to maximum of 3g or Trancutanous pacing or Other drugs such as adrenaline ```
88
If there were no adverse features, who would you be concerned are at high risk of asystole?
recent asystole Mobitz II Complete heart block with prolonged QRS Ventricular pause > 3 seconds
89
What cancers commonly cause virchows node? Where is this node? What sign is it if you can see it.
The L sided supraventriculae node takes it supply from lymph vessels supplying the intra-abdominal cavity → gastric, ovarian, testicular and kidney cancer Sign: Troisiers sign
90
Causes of unilateral pleural effusion
Malignancy Cancer Trauma
91
Investigate unilateral pleural effision
High resolution CT | Pleural tap - cytology, microbiology, protein, sugar, LDH, TB
92
How much protein in transudate and what causes
< 30,
93
Causes of exudate
infection (pneumonia or TB) malignancy CTD PE
94
Risk factors for pneumothorax
Spontaneous: tall + thin, male Iatrogenic - needles Lung: COPD, asthma, cancer, brochiectasis CTD (marfans, ED)
95
Often 1st presenting compliant of pneumothorax
shoulder tip pain
96
How to categorise lung fibrosis in terms of pathophysiology
Fibrosis predominately affecting the upper or lower zones
97
Which zone does idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis effect what other disorders affect this zone
Lower zone idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis most connective tissue disorders (except ankylosing spondylitis) drug-induced: amiodarone, bleomycin, methotrexate asbestosis
98
hypersensitivity pneumonitis (also known as extrinsic allergic alveolitis) affect which zone
upper
99
young person with clubbing and generalised bronchiectasis? + 1 differential
CF | Kartagener's syndrome (also known as primary ciliary dyskinesia)
100
Signs of mitral stenosis What is seen on CXR
``` Features mid-late diastolic murmur (best heard in expiration) loud S1, opening snap low volume pulse malar flush atrial fibrillation ``` enlarged atria often causes by rheumatic heart disease
101
How can pericarditis appear on ECG
QRS alterans
102
A pericardial effusion with enough pressure to adversely affect heart function is called?
Cardiac tamponade
103
Signs of cardiac tamponade
dyspnea (kausmals sign), low blood pressure, and distant heart sounds. → get US
104
Tx of cardiac tamponade
pericardiocentesis
105
Causes of acute pericarditis
viral infections (Coxsackie) tuberculosis uraemia (causes 'fibrinous' pericarditis) trauma post-myocardial infarction, Dressler's syndrome connective tissue disease hypothyroidism
106
Signs of pancoast tumour
* Horners syndrome: miosis, anhidrosis, ptosis * Thoracic outlet syndrome: pain + weakness of arm + hand * Hoarse voice/ bovine cough - recurrent laryngeal nerve
107
Location of pancoast tumour
Lung apices - either side DON'T MISS THIS ON A XRAY
108
Severe vomiting → retrosternal chest and upper abdominal pain - what condition are you worried about
oesophageal rupture - Boerhaave syndrome
109
In Boerhaave syndrome - what might be visible on CXR
pneumomediastinum + widened medistinaum
110
Causes of widened mediastinum on CXR
Most commonly patient is rotated Causes of actual mediastinal widening include: vascular problems: thoracic aortic aneurysm lymphoma retrosternal goitre teratoma tumours of the thymus → CT to diagnose
111
What condition is associated with Thymoma
MG - check antibodies to acetylcholine receptors - 15% get thymomas
112
What is the cause of charcot's foot? What is seen on XR foot?
Autonomic neuropathy - commonly secondary to poorly controlled DM (used to be due to tabes dorsalis syphilis). Extensive bone remodeling / fragmentation involving the midfoot
113
Causes of acanthosis nigrans
``` gastrointestinal cancer diabetes mellitus obesity polycystic ovarian syndrome acromegaly Cushing's disease hypothyroidism familial Prader-Willi syndrome drugs: oral contraceptive pill, nicotinic acid ```
114
Where can acanthosis nigrans be found?
neck, axilla and groin
115
Features of neurofibromatosis
``` AD condition Café-au-lait spots (>= 6, 15 mm in diameter) Axillary/groin freckles Peripheral neurofibromas Scoliosis Pheochromocytomas neurocutanous disorder ```
116
Causes of gum hypertrophy
Drugs: anticonvulsants e.g phenytoin Inflammation Systemic: Vit C def, leukemia, pregnancy
117
Causes of massive splenomegaly
myelofibrosis chronic myeloid leukaemia malaria
118
Causes of splenomegaly
portal hypertension e.g. secondary to cirrhosis lymphoproliferative disease e.g. CLL, Hodgkin's haemolytic anaemia infection: hepatitis, glandular fever infective endocarditis sickle-cell*, thalassaemia rheumatoid arthritis (Felty's syndrome)
119
Presentation of diverticular disease - where in the colon are they most commonly found
painful diverticular disease: altered bowel habit, colicky left sided abdominal pain. A high fibre diet is usually recommended to minimise symptoms Diverticulitis: left iliac fossa pain and tenderness anorexia, nausea and vomiting diarrhoea features of infection (pyrexia, raised WBC and CRP) sigmoid colon
120
what rash is associated with coeliac disease - how to TX
dermatitis hepatoformis - itchy rash on wrist | Dapsone
121
complications of coeliacs
anaemia: iron, folate and vitamin B12 deficiency (folate deficiency is more common than vitamin B12 deficiency in coeliac disease) hyposplenism osteoporosis, osteomalacia lactose intolerance enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of small intestine subfertility, unfavourable pregnancy outcomes
122
Causes of hepatomegaly + what it would feel like on palpation
* Early stages of cirrhosis. Later → shrinks - non-tender firm liver * Malignancy - primary or met → hard + irregular * RHF → firm, smooth, tender, may pulsate ``` others: viral hepatitis glandular fever malaria abscess: pyogenic, amoebic hydatid disease haematological malignancies haemochromatosis primary biliary cirrhosis sarcoidosis, amyloidosis ```
123
what examinations to do on ascites
shifting dullness, fluid thrill
124
Causes of ascites
``` Liver cirrhosis Malignancy HF Nephrotic syndrome pancreatitis TB ```
125
What complication are you worried about
spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
126
Main causes of pre-hepatic jaundice + how to inv
Excessive breakdown of Hb
127
Main causes of hepatic jaundice
- Hepatitis (alcohol, viral, autoimmune, drugs) cirrhosis (any), malignancy (primary or secondary) Gilbert’s Sydrome: abnormality in bilirubin handling in liver Crigler-Najjar Syndrome: liver cells have defect in enzyme that conjugates bilirubin.
128
Causes of post hepatic
Post-Hepatic (obstructive): - Primary biliary sclerosis - Gallstones - Pancreatic - Cholangicarcinoma
129
Hx for jaundice
History ``` • Duration • Speed of onset (acute/chronic), intermittent/persistent o Progressive: malignancy/CLD o Short hx: gallstones/ hepatitis o Fluctuating: bile duct stones ``` • stools/urine colour o Pale stools/dark urine: obstructive • Pain o Colicky: gallstone • Weight loss o Caricoma/CLD • Skin itchy o Cholestasis disease • Vomit • Bruise easily o Obstructive jaundice, decreased bile salts (emulsify fat), reduced absorbtion of Vit K (fat soluable vit), decreased CF II, VII. IX, X. • Fever ``` PMH • Gallstones • Operations • Long term conditions (autoimmune) • Blood transfusions ``` ``` DH • Paracetmol OD • Drugs affecting liver SH • Alcohol: CAGE • Smoking • Foreign Travel where o Hep B/C: Africa/asia • IV drugs, tattoos, injections o Hep B/C • Unprotected sex (homosexual/prostitution) • Occupation ```
130
Investigation for jaundice
Urine • Bilirubin? Absent in pre-hepatic • Urobilinogen? Absent in obstuctice (bilirubin reduction) ``` Haem • FBC • Clotting (raised PT) • Blood Film • Coomb’s Test (autoimmune haemolytic anaemia) • Viral markers o HbeAg o Anti-HCV ``` ``` Biochem • U&E’s • LFT o Bilirubin: conjugated/unconjugated o ALT&AST: Indicate hepatocellular damage o ALP, gamma-GT: bilinary tract damage ``` ALP raised in bile duct blockage with normal aminotransferases, but also indicates osteoblast activity in paget’s disease. ``` US • Bile duct dilation (<6cm obstruction) • Gallstones • Hepatic masses • Pancreatic mets ``` ERCP/MRCP: relieve common bile duct stones Liver Biopsy
131
Mgmt of benign oesophageal stricter
Bougie to dilate + PPI and stop anything causing oesophagitis
132
Complications of strep throat
Local: tonsilar abscess Systemic: sepsis, glomerulneprhtisi, rheumatic fever
133
Mgmt of strep throat
phenoxymethylpenicillin 10 days + fluids + paracetamol
134
Complications of UC
Primary sclerosing colangitis Colon cancer - annual surveillance Anterior uveitis Arthritis → can be before UC
135
what is courvoisir's sign
Jaundice + palpable gallbladder → sign of carcinoma as if obstructed due to gallstones you would not feel the gallbladder. Head of pancreas
136
Causes of ulcer on genitalia
HSV, syphilus, Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) (chlamydia), cancer - ask if painful
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Complications of symphilis (tertiary)
``` gummas (granulomatous lesions of the skin and bones) ascending aortic aneurysms general paralysis of the insane tabes dorsalis Argyll-Robertson pupil ```
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How to diagnose amyloidosis
Congo red staining: apple-green birefringence serum amyloid precursor (SAP) scan biopsy of rectal tissue
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What causes J waves after QRS complex on ECG
Hypothermia, ↑ Ca reward slowly as risk of ventricular arrhythmia
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Circinate balanitis
painless, shallow lesion associated with reiters syndrome
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Where do atrial myxoma occur and risks?
75% occur in left atrium Risk of emboli and AF Good prognosis with exercise programme
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Signs of aortic regurgitation
Collapsing pulse Corrigans sign - bounding 'watterhammer' carotid pulse deMusset's sign: head pop with pulse
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Causes of aortic regur
HTN!! ``` Causes (due to valve disease) rheumatic fever infective endocarditis connective tissue diseases e.g. RA/SLE bicuspid aortic valve ``` ``` Causes (due to aortic root disease) aortic dissection spondylarthropathies (e.g. ankylosing spondylitis) hypertension syphilis Marfan's, Ehler-Danlos syndrome ```
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LV hypertrophy on ECG
S wave in V1 + tallest R wave height in either V5 or V6 = > 35mm - ST ischaemic changes
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non-pulsatile JVP
superior vena cava obstruction
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Kussmaul's sign in JVP
paradoxical rise in JVP during inspiration seen in constrictive pericarditis
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'a' wave on JVP
large if atrial pressure e.g. tricuspid stenosis or pulmonary stenosis
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Cannon 'a' waves on JVP
caused by atrial contractions against a closed tricuspid valve are seen in complete heart block.
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giant V waves
tricuspid regurgitation
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What does supraventricular tachycardia look like on ECG? How treated?
Narrow complex regular tachycardia | Vagal manoeuvres, adenosine 6mg → 12mg → 12mg (not in asthma use CCB)
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When the rate is slowed the rhythm shoes the AVRT wolfparkison white. What does this look like on ECG?
* Shorted PR * Delta wave * QRS prolongation * ST segment and T wave discordant changes
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What is the difference between cushing disease and cushing syndrome
Cushing disease - cause by pituitary tumour producing ACTH Cushing syndrome from other causes: tumour of adrenal gland - excreting cortisol + suppressed ACTH (other adrenal shrinks), ectopic ACTH lung cancer, exogenous steroids
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Investigation for diagnosis of cushings?
24 urinary cortisol | overnight oral dexamethasone suppression test - should cause cortisol to ↓
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How to localise cushings?
The first-line localisation is 9am and midnight plasma ACTH (and cortisol) levels. If ACTH is suppressed then a non-ACTH dependent cause is likely such as an adrenal adenoma. High-dose dexamethasone suppression test if pituitary source then cortisol suppressed if ectopic/adrenal then no change in cortisol
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What condition do you see pretibial myxoedema?
Hypothyroidism
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Features of thyroid eye disease. How many of those with graves disease are affect with this?
the patient may be eu-, hypo- or hyperthyroid at the time of presentation exophthalmos conjunctival oedema optic disc swelling ophthalmoplegia inability to close the eye lids may lead to sore, dry eyes. If severe and untreated patients can be at risk of exposure keratopathy 25-50%
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Mgmt thyroid eye disease
``` Rule out sight-threatening eye complications Stop smoking Achieve euthyroid state Ocular lubricants Oral steroids Orbital radiotherapy ```
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Tx of thyrotoxicosis
propranolol: this is often used at the time of diagnosis to control thyrotoxic symptoms such as tremor carbimazole: blocks thyroid peroxidase from coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin → reducing thyroid hormone production. Agranulocytosis is an important adverse effect to be aware of radioiodine treatment
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Causes of hypothyroidism
Hashimotos thyroiditis Subacute thyroiditis (De quervain's) - associated with painful swelling of thyroid and ↑ ESR - NB maybe hyperthyroid at first. Reidel's Thyroiditis → fibrous tissue that replaces the thyroid parenchyma, painless postpartum thyroiditis → occurs within 6 months and returns to normal within 12 Drugs: lithium + amiodarone Iodine deficiency
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Causes of hyperthyroidism
Graves Toxinodular goitre Drugs amiodarone - the initial presentation of some of the thrypoditis that then cause hypothyroidism e.g. subacute thyroiditis
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What antibody is common in graves
TSH receptor antibodies
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Hashimoto's thyroiditis
anti-TPO antibodies
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Complications of thyroid removal
Early • Bleeding • Thyroid crisis (hyperthermia, fast AF, pulmonary oedema) Damage to surround structures Voice change hypocalcaemia - hypoparathryroid Late Late hypothyroid Recurrent hyperthyroid
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ECG changes in PE
Sinus tachycardia RBB S1Q3T3
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Erythema Nodsum
infection: streptococci, TB, brucellosis systemic disease: sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, malignancy/lymphoma drugs: penicillins, combined oral contraceptive pill pregnancy → do CXR to look for sarcoid
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Describe the tremor in parksinsons disease
unilateral, pill rolling, resting - worse when distracted
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What is levodopa normally given with? Describe its effectiveness Side effects of the medication
usually combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor (e.g. carbidopa or benserazide) to prevent peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine reduced effectiveness with time (usually by 2 years) unwanted effects: dyskinesia (involuntary writhing movements), 'on-off' effect, dry mouth, anorexia, palpitations, postural hypotension, psychosis, drowsiness
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Name Dopamine receptor agonists
Bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, apomorphine
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Side effects of Dopamine receptor agonists
atients should be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence hallucinations
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Which neurocutanous disorder is associated with epilepsy and ash leaf spots
Tuberous sclerosis
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What does DANISH stand for
D - Dysdiadochokinesia, Dysmetria (past-pointing) A - Ataxia (limb, truncal) N - Nystamus (horizontal = ipsilateral hemisphere) I - Intention tremour S - Slurred staccato speech, Scanning dysarthria H - Hypotonia
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Causes of cerebellar syndrome
``` Friedreich's ataxia, ataxic telangiectasia neoplastic: cerebellar haemangioma stroke alcohol multiple sclerosis hypothyroidism drugs: phenytoin, lead poisoning paraneoplastic e.g. secondary to lung cancer ```
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CF of myasthenia gravis
Proximal muscle weakness - worse with repeated movement ptosis extraocualar muscle weakness → double vision dysphagia
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What is MG crisis
Affects breathing → requires mechanical ventilation
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Investigations for MG
single fibre electromyography (EMG) Autoantiaboedies (antibodies acetylcholine receptors) CT chest - thymus Tension test
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Assessment acute stroke
NMB CT head Bloods: FBC, U&E, coagulation, HbA1c + cholesterol
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Options for management of ischaemic stroke
Thrombolysis <4.5 hours Mechanical thrombectomy Aspirin 300mg for 2 weeks Emboli - warfarin (don't start for 2 weeks) Thrombootic: Clopidogrel - after 2 weeks Statin after 48 hours SALT assessment Tell DVLA In next 24 hours do: ECHO, Cartoid doppler
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Whats the 10% rule for phaechromocytoma
bilateral in 10% malignant in 10% extra-adrenal in 10% (most common site = organ of Zuckerkandl, adjacent to the bifurcation of the aorta)
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CF phaechromocytoma
``` Palpitation Sweating Headache Sweating HTN in young ``` 24hr metaneprhines
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Causes of hyperaldosteronism
Primary Idiopathic hyperaldosteronism (70%) Conns syndrome ``` Secondary Low BP (CHF, cirrhosis) ```
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CF of hyperaldosteronism
↓K - constipation, weakness, arrhythmia ↑BP nocturia, polyrina
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What conditions are associated to berry aneurysms?
adult polycystic kidney disease, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome and coarctation of the aorta
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Investigation for myeloma
Serum/urine electrophoresis - bence jones protein FBC - anaemia U+E - renal fialaure Calcium ↑ → bone marrow aspiration, skeletal surgery
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What is syrinomyelia - what motor/sensory disturbance does it cause - associated condition
development of cavity (syrinx) within the spinal cord motor: wasting and weakness of arms sensory: spinothalamic sensory loss (pain and temperature) loss of reflexes, bilateral upgoing plantars Arnold-Chiari malformation
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Ring enhancing lesion on CT
Abscess - toxoplasmosis
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Hydrocephalus causes
Brain trama (bleed) Brain tumour blocking ventricles Normal pressure hydrocephalus - incontinence, dementia, gait abnormality → shunt
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What is the most common type of motor neurone disease?
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (50% of patients)
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What are the clinical features of this?
typically LMN signs in arms and UMN signs in legs | No ataxia, no sensory signs, age > 40
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What define a prolonged QT
>440ms in men | >460ms in women
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What are prolonged QT at risk of
Torsades de points | → IV magnesium
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Causes of prolonged QT
Congenital Electrolytes: ↓Ca, ↓K, ↓Mg Drugs: Antiarrythmics, TCA, antipsychotics
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Causes of shorted QT and how to measure
QTc - on ECG ↑Ca, congenital risk of sudden cardiac death
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causes of ↑ lactate on ECG
Anaerobic respiration Sepsis mesenteric ischaemia seizures - really high
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Very severe metabolic acidosis on ABG
DKA
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Causes of resp alkalosis
panic attacks | aspirin overdose
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In COPD if you see HCO3 what are u worried about?
That they are a retained (↑CO2) - caution giving oxygen.
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Mixed metabolic and resp acidosis
COPD + Sepsis
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Complications of uraemia
uraemia encephalopthy Pericarditis Bleeding impairment
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What are the acute phase proteins +ve -ve
+ve: CRP, ferritin, WCC, ESR, platelets | -ve: albumin
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``` Summaise - stomach cancer Hx Examine Inv Tx ```
epigastric fullness/pain anorexia wt loss vomiting anaemia Cachexia, virchows node (troisier's sign) masses Endoscopy + biopsy, Ba Meal, CT Surgery - partial gastretomy
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``` Summaise - pancreatic Hx Examine Inv Tx ```
Abdo pain - deep or to back, Wt loss, steatorrhoea, DM, vomiting EX: Wt loss, big liver, ascites, obstructive jaundice + palpable gall bladder (couvoisieris law) Inv: LFT (jaudoce), US, CT, ERCP Tx Usually palliative - analgesia + antiemetic Stent for jaundice
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``` Summaise - colon and rectal cancer Hx Examine Inv Tx ```
Colon F>M Rectal M>F RF: Fhx, familial polyposis (AD), UC (with pseudo polyps), benign polyps, low fibre ``` Iron def anaemia + wt losss (caecal) Large bowel obstruction Perforation/peritonitis Fistula Change in bowel habit Tenesmus Rectal bleeding ``` TMN or Dukes Tx resection +_ adjuvant chemo (chemo? benefit)
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Hep B, livedo reticularish rah sh + multifocal neuropathy mix of symptoms
Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) - biopsy