COPD Flashcards

1
Q

conditions that make it hard to exhale all of the air in the lungs

A

Obstructive lung disease

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2
Q

how many people does COPD affect in the US?

A

32 million

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3
Q

what # cause of death in the US?

A

4th

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4
Q

triad of COPD

A

chronic bronchitis
emphysema
asthma

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5
Q

chronic bronchitis definition

A

chronic inflammation and thickening of the walls of the bronchial tubes with excess mucus

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6
Q

emphysema definition

A

abnormal, permanent enlargement of air spaces distal to terminal bronchioles accompanied by destruction of their walls and without obvious fibrosis

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7
Q

when does COPD start?

A

later in adulthood (40s), worsens with age

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8
Q

when does asthma start?

A

childhood, does not worsen with age

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9
Q

what triggers COPD

A
smoking
inhaled fumes
pollution
dusts
chemicals
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10
Q

what triggers asthma

A

allergens
weather
heredity

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11
Q

symptom pattern of asthma

A

symptom-free between attacks

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12
Q

symptom pattern of COPD

A

chronic, occurring all of the time

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13
Q

airflow restoration in asthma

A

can be treated and quickly restored

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14
Q

airflow restoration in COPD

A

some airflow can be restored by quitting smoking and taking prescribed meds

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15
Q

three main issues of COPD

A

airway inflammation
mucociliary dysfunction
airway structural changes

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16
Q

biggest culprit of COPD

A

smoking

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17
Q

other causes of COPD

A
environmental factors
airway hyerresponsiveness
alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency
IVDA
HIV
GERD
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18
Q

environmental factors contributing to COPD

A

air pollution
chemical fumes
dust
second hand smoke

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19
Q

airway hyperresponsiveness is characterized by

A

easily triggered bronchospasm

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20
Q

how do we assess airway hyperresponsiveness

A

bronchial challenge test with methacholine or histamine

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21
Q

how does the bronchial challenge test work?

A

blow an irritant at the pt and see their response to it before treating them

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22
Q

when do we use a bronchial challenge test?

A

when spirometry test is not conclusive

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23
Q

what pathologies do we see airway hyperresponsiveness in?

A

asthma

COPD

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24
Q

what is the genetic predisposition to COPD

A

alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency (AAT)

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25
Q

how is AAT inherited

A

autosomal co-dominant

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26
Q

pathophys behind AAT deficiency

A

lack of protein released from liver that protects lung parenchyma from elastolytic breakdown

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27
Q

what other pathology do we see AAT issues with?

A

liver issues

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28
Q

what patient population do we see AAT in?

A

younger patients (around 26)

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29
Q

what should we do if we suspect AAT?

A

bloodwork!

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30
Q

how many IV drug users get emphysema?

A

2%

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31
Q

how does IVDU result in COPD?

A

pulmonary vascular damage due to insoluble fiber (such as talc, cornstarch, cotton fibers, and cellulose) in IV drugs

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32
Q

what HIV population is it common to see COPD in?

A

those with CD4 counts >500

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33
Q

how many HIV pts have COPD?

A

23%

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34
Q

what is the most common non-infectious pulmonary disease amongst HIV pts?

A

COPD

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35
Q

what GI pathology exacerbates COPD?

A

GERD

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36
Q

how many COPD patients have GERD?

A

28%

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37
Q

what is presence of COPD and GERD associated with?

A

increased risk of hospitalization

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38
Q

when does DOE occur in COPD?

A

in 6th decade

by the time FEV1 is less than 50% normal

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39
Q

most common variable to grade COPD severity

A

FEV1

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40
Q

what kind of cough do COPDers have?

A

productive cough

worse in AM

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41
Q

3 general symptoms of COPD

A

productive cough
acute chest illness
wheezing (especially with exertion)

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42
Q

best single predictor of an airflow obstruction?

A

history of >40 pack-years of smoking

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43
Q

PE findings for COPD

A
respiratory rate (increases with severity)
increased JVP
cyanosis
accessory muscle use
barrel chest
decreased breath sounds
distant heart sounds
hyperresonance
prolonged expiration
coarse crackles on inspiration
peripheral edema
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44
Q

term for accessory muscle use

A

hoover sign

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45
Q

why does a hoover sign occur?

A

flattened diaphragm

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46
Q

describe a “blue bloater

A
obese
frequent cough/expectoration
accessory muscle use
coarse rhonchi
wheezing
right sided heart failure symtoms (edema, cyanosis)
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47
Q

how advanced are blue bloater’s COPD

A

end stage

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48
Q

describe a pink puffer

A
thin
barrel chest
little-no cough/expectoration
pursed lips
accessory muscle use
tripod
hyperresonant
wheezing
distant heart sounds
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49
Q

what is the FEV1/FVC level for COPD?

A

<70%

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50
Q

what determines how effectively gases are exchanged between the blood and airways in the lungs?

A

diffusion lung capacity with CO (DLCO)

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51
Q

how do they test DLCO?

A

put pt in a glass box and blow CO at them to assess diffusion
pt inhales CO, helium, and O2 and holds breath for 10 seconds
gas levels analyzed from exhaled breath

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52
Q

pCO2, pH, and HCT relative levels with COPD DLCO

A

increased CO2
decreased pH
increased HCT

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53
Q

why is HCT increased in COPD?

A

body’s response to not having enough oxygen

overcompensates by creating more RBC

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54
Q

Xray findings in COPD

A

low flattened diaphragm
hyperinflation
increased AP retrosternal airspace
narrow cardiac silhouette

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55
Q

what happens in small airway disease in COPD?

A

airway inflammation and remodeling

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56
Q

what happens in parenchymal destruction in COPD?

A

loss of alveolar attachments

decrease of elastic recoil

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57
Q

what causes small airway disease and parenchymal destruction?

A

inflammation

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58
Q

what does small airway disease and parenchymal destruction cause?

A

airflow limitation

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59
Q

what does the GOLD criteria stand for?

A

global initiative for chronic obstructive lung disease

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60
Q

who contributes to the GOLD criteria?

A

NIH and WHO

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61
Q

3 criteria areas for GOLD

A

symptoms (based on modifed medical research council (mMRC) or COPD assessment test (CAT)
airflow obstruction (FEV1)
exacerbation hx

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62
Q

relative difficulty and scale for mMRC questionaire?

A

easy (1 question)

grade 0-4

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63
Q

COPD assessment test format

A

rate a few questions 0-5

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64
Q

how do we ultimately want to classify COPD patients based on their severity?

A

category A-D

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65
Q

MOA of SABA

A

beta2 agonist
relaxes bronchial smooth muscle
inhibits release of immediate hypersensitivity mediators from mast cells

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66
Q

indications for SABAs

A

adults and kinds
COPD
Acute asthma exacerbations
exercise-induced asthma prophylaxis

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67
Q

drug interactions of SABAs

A

beta blockers

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68
Q

adverse effects of SABAs

A
tachycardia
URI
Nausea
Pharyngitis
**a-fib
**hypokalemia
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69
Q

generic for SABA

A

albuterol

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70
Q

brand names for SABA

A

ventolin, proventil

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71
Q

pregnancy category of SABAs

A

C

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72
Q

clinical teaching of SABA

A
warn of side effects
proper inhalation
rinse
wash mouthpiece
if used > 2x/week consider controller therapy
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73
Q

SAMA MOA

A

anti-cholinergic effects
suppresses tightening of bronchial smooth muscle
anti-secretory properties

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74
Q

indications of SAMAs

A

adults and kids
COPD
asthma exacerbation
allergic rhinitis

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75
Q

adverse effects of SAMAs

A
headache
URI
bronchitis
xerostomia
dry nasal mucosa
**bronchospasm
**anaphylaxis
**glaucoma
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76
Q

what med is often mixed with albuterol (to make duoneb)

A

SAMAs

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77
Q

generic SAMA

A

ipratropium

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78
Q

brand SAMA

A

atrovent HFA (MDI)

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79
Q

pregnancy category of SAMA

A

B

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80
Q

clinical teaching for SAMAs

A

avoid activities requireing mental alertness or coordination –> dizziness
improvements from nasal spray may be delayed
proper inhalation technique

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81
Q

SABA + SAMA MOA

A

beta2 agonist and anti-cholinergic effects
suppresses tightening of bronchial smooth muscle
anti-secretory properties

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82
Q

indications for SABA+SAMA

A

adults and kids
COPD
asthma exacerbation

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83
Q

adverse effects of SABAs+SAMAs

A
headache
URI
**bronchospasm
**anaphylaxis
**hypokalemia
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84
Q

generic of SABA + SAMA

A

albuterol/ipratroprium

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85
Q

brands of SABA+SAMA

A

combivent (MDI)

DuoNeb (neb)

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86
Q

pregnancy category of SABA+SAMA

A

B

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87
Q

clinical teaching for SABA+SAMA

A

avoid activities requiring mental alertness/coordination
improvments from nasal spray possibly delayed
proper inhalation technique

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88
Q

LABA MOA

A

beta2 agonist

relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and inhibits release of immediate hypersitivity mediators from mast cells

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89
Q

indications for LABAs

A

COPD
asthma
exercise-induced asthma prophylaxis

90
Q

what class drug reduces need for rescue medications by 21%

A

LABAs

91
Q

what class drug has the black box warning of increased risk for asthma related death, intubation, or hospitalization in ages 4-11 but not when combnined with an inhaled steroid

A

LABA

92
Q

adverse effects of LABAs

A
HA
musculoskeletal pain
**death
**prolonged QT
**asthma exacerbations
93
Q

generics of LABAs

A

salmeterol

formoterol

94
Q

salmeterol brand

A

serevent (LABA)

95
Q

formoterol brand

A

foradil (LABA)

96
Q

pregnancy category of LABA

A

C

97
Q

clinical teaching of LABAs

A

not for acute exacerbation
adverse effects
inhalation technique

98
Q

LAMA MOA

A

anti-cholinergic effects
suppresses tightening of bronchial smooth muscle
anti-secretory properties

99
Q

indications of LAMAs

A

COPD

100
Q

adverse effects of LAMAs

A
URI
xerostomia
bronchitis
constibation
**bowel obstruction
**bronchospasm
**glaucoma
101
Q

generic of LAMA

A

tiotropium

102
Q

brand of tiotropium

A

Spiriva (LAMA)

103
Q

pregnancy category of LAMAs

A

C

104
Q

clinical teaching of LAMAs

A

avoid activities requiring mental alertness or coordination
improvements may be delayed
proper inhalation technique

105
Q

LAMA + LABA MOA

A

anti-cholinergic and LABA

106
Q

indications of LAMA+LABA

A

COPD

107
Q

adverse effects of LAMA+LABA

A
pharyngitis
diarrhea
extremity pain
**asthma related death
**anaphylaxis
**HTN
**hypokalemia
**prolonged QT
108
Q

generic of LAMA + LABA

A

umeclidium/vilanterol

109
Q

umeclidium/vilanterol brand

A

anoro ellipta

110
Q

pregnancy category of LAMA+LABA

A

C

111
Q

clinical teaching of LAMA+LABA

A

if using other inhalers, use at least another minute before using another

112
Q

ICS+LABA MOA

A

beta2 agonist relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and inhibits release of immediate hypersensitivity mediatorys from mast cells
mimics cortisol with salt-retaining properties

113
Q

indications for ICS+LABA

A

adults and kids
COPD
asthma

114
Q

adverse effects of ICS+LABA

A
oral candidiasis
GI upset
HA
nasopharyngitis
URI
**hypokalemia
**glaucoma
**cataracts
**asthma related death
115
Q

generic of ICS + LABA

A

formoterol/budesonide
salmeterol/fluticasone
formoterol/mometasone

116
Q

brand of formoterol/budesonide

A

symbicort (ICS+LABA)

117
Q

`brand of salmeterol/fluticasone

A

advair (ICS+LABA)

118
Q

brand of formoterol/mometasone

A

dulera (ICS+LABA)

119
Q

pregnancy category of ICS+LABA

A

C

120
Q

clinical teaching of ICS+LABA

A
not indicated for acute
reduced growth rate in kids
adrenal supression
rinse mouth
oral infections
121
Q

MOA of PED4i

A

reduces neutrophil and eosinophil counds in lungs

122
Q

PDE4i stands for

A

phosphodiesterase-4 inhibitor

123
Q

indications for PDE4i

A

COPD (chronic, exacerbation, prophylaxis)

124
Q

adverse effects of PDE4i

A
weight loss
GI upset
influenza
back ache
dizziness
HA
insomnia
**suicidal thoughts
125
Q

generic of PED4 i

A

roflumilast

126
Q

roflumilast brand

A

daliresp (PDE4i)

127
Q

pregnancy category of PDE4i

A

C

128
Q

clincial teaching for PDE4i

A

not for acute bronchospasm
warn SE
report weight loss
report depression, anxiety, suicidal ideation, unusual changes in behavior

129
Q

theophylline MOA

A

bronchodilation through smooth muscle relaxation

suppression of airway stimuli

130
Q

class of theophylline

A

methylxanthene

131
Q

indications of theophylline

A

COPD
asthma exacerbation
asthma
newborn apnea

132
Q

adverse effects of theophylline

A
nausea
vomiting
HA
insomnia
restlessness
irritability
**a-fib
**stevens-johnson
**seizures
133
Q

brand of theophylline

A

theo-dur

134
Q

pregnancy category of theophylline

A

C

135
Q

clinical teaching of theophylline

A

not for acute exacerbations

theophylline toxicity

136
Q

symptoms of theophylline toxicity

A

vomitting
arrhythmia
seizures

137
Q

COPD complications

A
respiratory infections
pulmonary HTN
increased risk of heart disease
GERD
lung CA
depression
138
Q

what happens to FEV1 with smoking cessation

A

rate of decline is slowed

139
Q

what reduces the frequency of the common cold which triggers COPD exacerbations?

A

PPIs

140
Q

when do we give O2 therapy to COPDers?

A

when chonically hypoxic

resting O2 <90%

141
Q

which vaccination should all COPD pts have?

A

influenza

142
Q

which vaccination should COPDers >65 have?

A

pneumococcal

143
Q

how good is AAT treatment?

A

questional benefit

144
Q

what can reduce dyspnea in selected pts?

A

bullectomy

145
Q

what surgeries can be done for COPD?

A

lung volume reduction surgery

lung transplant

146
Q

is surgery common for COPD?

A

no

147
Q

chronic infections in COPD

A

S. pneumonia
M. catarrhalis
H. influenza

148
Q

severe infections in COPD

A

p. aeruginosa

149
Q

what should we consider with COPD pts and infections?

A

have a low threshold for treating them because they are more prone

150
Q

what does airtrapping look like on CXR

A

hyperlucency (black)

151
Q

reliever meds for COPD

A

SABAs

152
Q

controller meds for COPD

A

LABAs

153
Q

preventer meds for COPD

A

inhaled corticosteroids

154
Q

definition of bronchiectasis

A

abnormal, permanent dilation/destruction of bronchi walls where mucous pools

155
Q

who is bronchiectasis more common in?

A

slender white women >60

156
Q

what is lady windermere’s syndrome?

A

bronchiectasis

157
Q

what infection did lady windermere die from?

A

M. avium (MAC)

158
Q

what is an important cause of lung disease in developing countries?

A

bronchiectasis

159
Q

what deficiency is common in bronchiectasis

A

vitamin D

160
Q

what is vitamin D deficiency a marker of

A

disease severity

161
Q

what are vitamin D deficient bronchiectasis patients more commonly colonized with?

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

162
Q

what bronchi are most affected by bronchiectasis

A

proximal and medium sized

163
Q

is dilation of the bronchi focal or diffuse in bronchiectasis

A

either

164
Q

how does one get bronchiectasis?

A

acquired (more common)

congenital

165
Q

causes of bronchiectasis

A
congenital
infection
airway obstruction
impaired drainage
toxic gas exposure
CF
166
Q

what do affected bronchi show in bronchiectasis?

A

transmural inflammation
mucosal edema
craters
ulcers

167
Q

causes of infection in bronchiectasis

A
S. pneumonia (most common)
S. aureus
H. influenza
M. tuberculosis
P. aeruginosa
M. avium
M.catarrhalis
RSV
168
Q

what causes airway obstruction in bronchiectasis?

A

foreign body aspiration due to altered mental status or GERD

stroke patients because they cannot protect their airway

169
Q

impaired drainage with bronchiectasis caused by

A

CF
primary ciliary dyskinesia
allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)-fungal infection

170
Q

toxic gas exposure in bronchiectasis caused by

A

chlorine (water disinfectant)

ammonia (used in fertilizer, refrigerants, cleaning solutions)

171
Q

what caused 1/3 of bronchiectasis

A

CF

172
Q

clinical manifestations of bronchiectasis

A
cough
mucopurulent sputum production
lasts months-years
blood-streaked sputum or hemoptysis
little or no sputum can be a sequela of TB
173
Q

what is bronchiectasis hard to differentiate from?

A

COPD

174
Q

non-specific bronchiectasis symptoms

A

dyspnea
pleuritic chest pain
wheezing
fever

175
Q

specific symptoms to bronchiectasis

A

weakness

weight loss

176
Q

non specific physican exam findings for bronchiectasis

A
crackles
rhonchi
wheezing
inspiratory squeaks
cyanosis
177
Q

specific bronchiectasis physical exam findings

A

digital clubbing
wasting
weight loss

178
Q

what do you make the bronchiectasis diagnosis based off of

A

clinical presentation
sputum analysis
high-resolution CT (confirmatory)

179
Q

how do we often control infections in bronchiectasis

A

fluoroquinolones

180
Q

how do we reduce inflammation in bronchiectasis

A

beta agonists
anti-cholinergics
ICS

181
Q

how do we improve bronchial hygiene

A

airway mucous clearance-

chest percussion and postural drainage

182
Q

CF definition

A

disease of exocrine gland causing production of abnormally thick mucus, leading to blockage of bronchi, pancreatic ducts, and intestines

183
Q

how is CF inherited

A

autosomal recessive

chromosome 7

184
Q

what is the most common lethal hereditary disease in the white population

A

CF

185
Q

median age of CF dx

A

6-8 months

186
Q

median survival age for CF

A

41

187
Q

how many live births are affected with CF

A

1/3000

188
Q

what is the genetic defect of CF

A

defect in CF gene (protein transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR)

189
Q

how many mutations are possible in CF

A

> 1500

190
Q

what is missing in CF

A

missing the gene so it doesn’t move the chloride ions out and mucous becomes sticky

191
Q

what ions are increased/decreased in CF

A

decreased secretion of chloride

increased reasborption of sodium and water

192
Q

what other secretions are affected in CF

A

respiratory tract
pancreas
GI tract
sweat glands have increased viscosity

193
Q

clinical manifestations of CF

A
severe lung disease
pancreatic insufficiency
nasal polyposis
sinus disease
meconium ileus
rectal prolapse
chronic diarrhea
pancreatitis
cholelithiasis
cirrhosis
194
Q

CF PE findings

A
rhinitis
nasal polyps
cough
tachypnea
respiratory distress with retractions
wheezes, crackles
increased AP chest diameter
clubbing
cyanosis
hyperresonace
195
Q

what kind of cough to CF pts have?

A

worse at night and upon awakening

viscous, purulent, green sputum

196
Q

GI PE findings for CF

A
abd distention
hepatosplenomegaly (portal HTN)
rectal prolapse
dry skin (vit A deficiency)
cheilosis (vit B deficiency)
swelling of submandibular or parotid gland
aquagenic wrinkling of palms
197
Q

male urogenital PE for CF

A

undescended testicles
hydrocele
absence of vas deferens

198
Q

what percent of CF men are sterile

A

> 95%

199
Q

female urogenital PE findings for CF

A

severe nutritional deficiency –> amenorrhea

200
Q

what percent of CF female are sterile?

A

20%

201
Q

what too abnormalities does vitamin D deficiency cause in CF?

A

scoliosis and kyphosis

202
Q

how does CF affect the nose?

A

sinusitis due to obstruction of sinus ostia

203
Q

what occurs from inflammation of pulmonary vessels in CF

A

hemoptysis

204
Q

what occurs from rutpured alveoli in CF

A

pneumothorax

205
Q

what effects does CF have on the GI tract?

A

pancreatic insufficiency
diabetes (decreased flow from pancreatic duct)
cholithiasis (decreased bile flow = sludge)

206
Q

other effects on the body from CF

A

weak muscles due to malabsorption

stress incontinence due to decreased strength of pelvic floor muscles)

207
Q

diagnosis of CF

A
postive sweat chloride test or positive genetic test
AND one of the following
COPD
documented pancreatic insufficiency
positive family history
208
Q

what imaging should we do for CF

A

initially CXR then consider CT

209
Q

primary goals of treatment for CF

A

maintain lung function
administer nutritional therapy to maintain adequate growth
manage complications with supplements and vaccines

210
Q

how do we clear the airways of mucus for CF patients?

A

bronchodilator before chest physiotherapy

mucolytic- dornase alpha (pulmozyme) + hypertonic saline solution aerosols

211
Q

what vitamins/ supplements do CF patients need?

A

vitamins (ADEK)-fat soluble
pancreatic enzymes
high energy, high fat diet

212
Q

how may we manage diabetes CF complications?

A

insulin

213
Q

how may we manage pneumothorax CF complications?

A

chest tube

214
Q

will CF patients get nasal polys?

A

yes –> polypectomy

215
Q

what GI complications may we have to treat for CF?

A

ileus
prolapse
gastrotomy tube for supplemental feeding

216
Q

other treatment for CF

A

CFTR potentiators

217
Q

MOA of CFTR potentiators

A

target defective CFTR protein

218
Q

indication for CFTR potentiators

A

patients with IG551D mutation

219
Q

generic of CFTR potentiator

A

ivacaftor

220
Q

brand for ivacaftor

A

Kalydeco (CFTR potentiator)