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-cardiopulm Npte > cp dd 1/20 (ptfe) > Flashcards

cp dd 1/20 (ptfe) Flashcards

1
Q

hypertensive BP

hypotensive BP

A

> 140

<100

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2
Q

what is hemoglobin?

norms?

A

carry O2

12-18gm/dL

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3
Q

Causes of Low Hgb or Hematocrit

A 
• Loss of blood
• Nutritional  deficiency
• Bone marrow problems 
• Chemotherapy
• Kidney failure
• Abnormal hemoglobin
anemia
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4
Q

Hbg cutoffs for ambulation

A

8
greater than 8 ambulate
less than 8 probably wait

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5
Q

what is hematocrit?

norms?

A

35-45%

%blood erythrocytes

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6
Q

increased hematocrit

A
  • Dehydration
  • Burns
  • Vomiting
  • Polycythemia
  • Extreme physical exercise.
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7
Q

hct cutoffs

- Essential activities of daily living

A

< 25%

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8
Q

hct cutoff

- Ambulation and self-care as tolerated.

A

> 35%

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9
Q

hct cutoffs

- Light aerobics and light weights of 1 to 2 lbs

A

25% - 35%

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10
Q

Hematocrit is roughly # times the amount of hemoglobin

A

3

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11
Q

what is PaO2?
norms?
cutoff?

A

• The oxygen tension or partial pressure in arterial blood.
• Increased in oxygen therapy.
normal >80mmHg
<60mmHg no PT

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12
Q

Decreased PaO2

A 
• Ventilation/perfusion mismatching,
• Air obstruction by foreign body or
• Shock.
• Alveolar hypoventilation
(kyphoscoliosis, neuromuscular
disease, head injury or stroke)
• Barbiturates and opioids
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13
Q

what is glucose?

norms?

A

sugar, metabolized in the cells to produce energy

norm 80 to 120 mg/dL

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14
Q

according to Oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve,

SaO2 stop and start pursed lip breathing

A

SaO2 92% ~ PaO2 80mmHg

unless COPD

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15
Q 
increased or decreased glucose?
• Diabetes mellitus
• Cushing syndrome (hypercortisolism)
• Chronic pancreatitis
• Sepsis
• Brain tumors
• Medications
• Eating
• IV glucose.
A

increased, hyperglycemia

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16
Q 
increaese or decreased glucose?
• Too much insulin
• Brain damage or pituitary deficiency
• Addison’s disease (hypocortisolism)
• Cancers such as adrenocortical cancer, stomach cancer or fibro sarcomas
• Ethanol
A

hypoglycemia

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17
Q

glucose cutoff for PT

A

< 70 mg/dL or > 300 mg/dL.

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18
Q

what are platelets?

norm?

A

norm 150,000 to 450,000 mcL

Platelets initiate clotting sequence and the plugging of damaged blood vessels. important for homeostasis

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19
Q

if COPD want what SaO2

A

88-92%

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20
Q

causes of increase or decrease platelets?
• Myeloproliferative disorders
• Reactive thrombocytosis secondary to inflammatory disorders
• Infections
• Tissue injury,
• Iron deficiency

A

increase

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21
Q 
causes of increase or decrease platelets?
• Leukemia or
• Lymphoma, in some other cancers
• Bone marrow suppression or replacement/infiltration
• Post bone marrow transplant
• Myelodysplasia
• Chemotherapy
• Drugs and alcohol
• HIV
A

decreased

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22
Q

next step?
platelet <10,000
with temp >100.5

A

hold PT

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23
Q

next step?

platelet 10,000 – 20,000

A

Therapeutic exercise and bike without resistance

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24
Q

next step?

platelet > 20,000

A

No restrictions

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25
Q

function of potassium?
norm?
notes on treatment?

A

Nerve impulse transmission, contractility of myocardial, skeletal and smooth muscle
Normal 3.5 – 5.0 mEq/L
- look at telemetry. Be aware that arrhythmias may occur with increased activity

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26
Q 
increased or decreased potassium?
• Hemolysis
• Severe tissue damage
• Rhabdomyolysis
• Acidosis
• Dehydration
• Acute or chronic renal failure
• Addison disease
A

Hyperkalemia

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27
Q 
increased or decreased potassium?
• Prolonged vomiting or diarrhea,
• Cushing syndrome,
• Osmotic diuresis,
• Alkalosis
• Trauma
• SAH
• Diuretics.
A

hypokalemia

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28
Q 
function sodium?
norm?
A

135 to 145 mEq/L
• Regulates body’s water balance
• Maintains acid-base balance and electrical nerve potential

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29
Q 
sodium increased or decreased?
• Excessive fluid loss 
• Dehydration
• Diarrhea
• Diuretics
A

Hyponatremia

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30
Q 
sodium increased or decreased?
• Kidney disease
• Excessive water intake
• Adrenal insufficiency
• CHF
• Salt intake
A

Hypernatremia

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31
Q

hyperglycemic triad

A

Polyphagia – frequent hunger, especially pronounced hunger.
Polydipsia – frequent thirst, especially excessive thirst.
Polyuria - frequent urination

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32
Q

when to take insulin vs exercise?

A

do not exercise during peak time (2-3 hours after dose)

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33
Q

high or low sodium?

can cause confusion and balance problems

A

low

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34
Q

what is function of troponin?

norm?

A

found in striated muscle cells only. Cell necrosis leads to the release of troponins into circulation.
<0.03 mcg/L
lab orders - troponin test 3x with a series of 8 hours between them.

35
Q

troponin level

Negative for MI

A

< 0.03 ng/mL

36
Q

troponin level

Intermediate for myocardial damage

A

0.03 – 0.09 ng/mL

37
Q

troponin level

Positive for myocardial damage

A

> 0.10 ng/mL

38
Q

Important Troponin Times

  • 4-6 hours
  • 12-16 hours
  • 3 – 10 days
A
  • 4-6 hours - Time of Initial Elevation
  • 12-16 hours - Time of Peak Elevation
  • 3 – 10 days - Time to Return to Normal
39
Q 
function of Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT)?
norm?
therapeutic range?
A

22 to 36 seconds

  • intrinsic clotting factor that is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin level.
  • therapeutic range would be 2 - 3 times the normal range. 60 to 109 seconds
40
Q 
function of Prothrombin Time (PT)?
norm?
therapeutic range?
A

9.5 to 13 seconds
effectiveness of Coumadin or Warfarin therapy. This is what the patients are bridged to after heparin if they need long-term anticoagulation.
- 2- 3 times the normal, around 18 to 30 seconds
> 25 guarded therapy high risk of bleeding

41
Q

who is on Coumadin or warfarin at home?

A

afib

42
Q

INR higher or lower = blood thinner

A

higher

43
Q 
function of INR?
norm?
therapeutic range?
A

International Normalized Ratio (INR)
patients on oral anticoagulation therapy, if they have been on it for two weeks, how thin blood is (more likely bruise)
-norm 0.8 to 1.2
- therapeutic range’ on a standard dose of oral anticoagulation is 2 to 3x (2.5 to 3.5.)

44
Q

If INR >4 what?

A

use caution, risk vs benefit may need approval from physician

45
Q

If INR >5 what?

A

serious risk of bleeding

46
Q

medication Calcium Channel Blockers
what does it do?
pathologies?
names?

A

Relax and widen blood vessels, decreased HR and BP

  • indication: HTN and CHF
  • names: - pines Amlodipine, Felodipine, Isradipine.
47
Q

what kind of medication?
Amlodipine, Felodipine, Isradipine.
side effects?

A

Calcium Channel Blockers

RPE, OH, Peripheral edema, dyspnea

48
Q

ACE (Angiotensin Converting Enzyme) Inhibitors
what does it do?
pathologies?
names?

A
  • Results in decreased BP
  • Relaxes blood vessels, decreases BP, decreases oxygen demand
  • Decreased BP and afterload by suppressing the enzyme that converts
    Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II (which vasoconstricts)
  • indication: HTN and CHF
  • drug: Benazepril, Lisinopril, Perindopril.
49
Q

what kind of medication?
Benazepril, Lisinopril, Perindopril.
side effects?

A

ACE (Angiotensin Converting Enzyme) Inhibitors

side effects- OH, dizziness, hyperkalemia (changes in electrical activity of heart)

50
Q

Positive Inotropic Agents
what does it do?
pathologies?
names?

A
  • Increases force of muscular contraction
  • Increases force myocardial contraction,
    slows HR, decreases conduction through AV node (increases BP) - slow heart to get better beat
  • Improves cardiac pumping, better CO
  • indication: CHF, A-fib (quivering)
  • Digitalis/Digoxin
51
Q

what kind of medication?
Digitalis/Digoxin
side effects?

A

Positive Inotropic Agents
side effects: feeling confused, dizzy or generally unwell.
feeling or being sick (nausea or vomiting) and loss of appetite.
diarrhoea.
changes in your vision (including blurred vision and not being able to look at bright light)
skin rashes.

52
Q

Beta Blockers
what does it do?
pathologies?
names?

A
  • decreasing HR and contractility
  • Block the action of beta receptors of the sympathetic nervous system
  • Results in decreased HR and BP
    indication: cardiac arrhythmias, sometimes angina
    name: Atenolol, Bisoprolol, Metoprolol, Propranolol
53
Q

what kind of medication?
Atenolol, Bisoprolol, Metoprolol, Propranolol
side effects?

A

beta blocker

RPE, orthostatic hypotension

54
Q

postural drainage: what segment?

SEATED

A

R & L Apical (upper lobe)

55
Q

postural drainage: what segment?

SIDE LYING

A

R & L Lateral Basal (lower lobe)

56
Q

postural drainage: what segment?

SUPINE flat

A

R & L Anterior (upper lobe)

57
Q

postural drainage: what segment?

SUPINE, FOB ⬆ 18”

A

R & L Anterior Basal (lower)

58
Q

postural drainage: what segment?

SUPINE, 1⁄4 from supine, FOB ⬆ 12”

A

Right Middle

59
Q

postural drainage: what segment?

SUPINE, , 1⁄4 from supine, FOB ⬆ 12”

A

Left Lingula (upper)

60
Q

postural drainage: what segment?

PRONE

A

R & L Superior (lower lobe)

61
Q

postural drainage: what segment?

PRONE, FOB ⬆ 18”

A

R & L Posterior Basal (lower)

62
Q

postural drainage: what segment?

PRONE, 1⁄4 from prone

A

Right Posterior

63
Q

postural drainage: what segment?

PRONE, 1⁄4 from prone, HOB ⬆ 45*

A

Left Posterior (upper)

64
Q

obstructive or restrictive lung disease?

SOB, difficulty exhaling because of damage to lungs,increased/elongated exhalations

A

obstructive

65
Q

obstructive or restrictive lung disease?

COPD, emphysema, chronic bronchitis, asthma, cystic fibrosis, bronchiectasis

A

obstructive

66
Q

obstructive or restrictive lung disease?
Cannot fully fill lungs with air, restricted from full expansion, Interstitial lung disease, decreased/shortened exhalations

A

restrictive

67
Q

obstructive or restrictive lung disease?

sarcoidosis, obesity, scoliosis, DMD, ALS

A

restrictive

68
Q

obstructive or restrictive lung disease?
ABCDE
Asthma, Bronchitis, COPD/CF, Dry cough, Emphysema

A

obstructive

69
Q

normal tidal volume

what %TLC?

A

0.5L

10%

70
Q

normal IRV

A

2.5L inspiratory residual volume

71
Q

normal ERV

A

1.5L expiratory residual volume

72
Q

normal RV

A

1.5L residual volume

73
Q

normal IC

A

3L inspiratory capacity

tidal (0.5) + IRV (2.5)

74
Q

normal TLC?

A

5L total lung capacity

IRV(2.5) + TV (0.5) + ERV(1.5) + residual (1.5)

75
Q

normal FRV

A

3L functional residual volume

ERV(1.5) + RV(1.5)

76
Q

normal VC

A

4.5L vital capacity

tidal (0.5) + IRV (2.5) + ERC (1.5)

77
Q

obstructive or restrictive?

decrease VC, IRV, ERV

A

obstructive

lung is larger but increased residual volume, cannot get out air so cannot get in more

78
Q

obstructive or restrictive?

increase TLC, RV, FRC

A

obstructive

lung is larger, cannot get air out so larger RV

79
Q

obstructive or restrictive?

decrease TLC, RV, VC, FRC

A

restrictive

lung cannot take in air

80
Q

obstructive or restrictive?

FEV1/FVC ratio higher

A

restrictive

easier to breathe out fast bc high elastic recoil of the stiff lungs.

81
Q

obstructive or restrictive?

FEV1/FVC ratio much lower

A

obstructive, FEV1 much lower bc cannot get air out

82
Q

normal

FEV1/FVC ratio

A

75%

83
Q

normal FEV1

A

80% and 120%

84
Q

FEV1 for COPD

A

<=80%

-cardiopulm Npte (17 decks)

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