CPP Case Studies Flashcards

1
Q

What is your fluid endpoint in a patient that you suspect has internal bleeding?

A
  • Titrate to maintain radial pulse, approx. SBP 80 mmHg
  • Normal mentation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does an EEA do when the patient reaches the hospital?

A

Detains them for 6 hours to allow a medical professional to further assess and treat them and can be extended up to 12 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are some common drugs that may be administered during a hypoglycaemic emergency?

A
  • Glucose Gel
  • Glucose 10%
  • Glucagon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the appropriate management for a pulsatile cord present in the vaginal opening?

A
  • Assist the mother into the exaggerated SIMS position
  • Ask the mother to gently push the cord back into the vagina (this must be done carefully to avoid vasospasm) using a dry pad
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the expected vital signs of a 1 year old?

A

Weight: 10kg
HR: 90-150bpm
RR: 25-50rpm
SBP: 70-100mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the signs suggestive of placental separation during labour?

A
  • Uterus rises in the abdomen and becomes firmer and globular
  • Fresh show/trickle of blood
  • Lengthening of the umbilical cord
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some intrapartum (during labour) risk factors for primary PPH?

A
  • Expedited or prolonged second stage
  • Prolonged third stage greater than 30 minutes
  • Macrosomia (large baby)
  • Polyhydraminos (excess amniotic fluid)
  • Infection/Prolonged rupture of membranes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are some common causes of palpitations?

A
  • Strong emotional distress
  • depression
  • Stimulants
  • Exercise/physical exertion
  • Fever
  • Hormones changes
  • Thyroid hormones – too much or too little
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe how beta blockers might impact a patient’s presentation?

A

Beta blockers bind to B1 and B2 receptors, inhibiting the catecholamines adrenaline and noradrenaline, reducing the inotropic and chronotropic effects on the heart

unable to have a tachycardic response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are some questions to ask parents of a seizing patient with a history of seizures?

A
  • What has concerned mum the most in this seizure compared to other ones – length, different type of seizure?
  • Has she been unwell recently?
  • Do they have midazolam at home and have they given any prior to our arrival (take into drug protocol)
  • Was the Pt her normal self prior to the seizure?
  • How often does she have seizures?
  • How long do they normally last?
  • Is the buccal midazolam usually effective?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define Obtunded

A

lessened interest in the environment, has slowed responses to stimulation, and tends to sleep more than normal, with drowsiness in between sleep states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are some neonate complications associated with shoulder dystocia?

A
  • Brachial plexus injuries
  • humeral and clavicular fractures
  • hypoxic brain injury
  • stillbirth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are your actions with a newborn that doesn’t respond to stimulation?

A
  • IPPV room air for 30 secs (20-30 breaths)
  • Reassess: sats probe on right hand, HR should be >100
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe and justify your management for a pt with COPD, with low SPO2, fever and low BP

A
  • 4L oxygen via nasal prongs to increase SPO2 to between 88-92% and increase partial pressure of oxygen to aid in oxygen binding to haemoglobin
  • salbutamol
  • IV access – to administer fluids and medications
  • IV fluids – titrate to maintain radial pulse if lost - and increase blood pressure and possibly secondary effect of reducing fever and BGL
  • antipyretic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the cause of acute febrile illness headaches?

A

Pneumonia, URTI, viral infections or UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the risk factors associated with the development of pre-eclampsia?

A
  • Diabetes
  • Extremes of maternal age
  • Family history
  • Gestational hypertension
  • History pre-eclampsia
  • Multiple pregnancies
  • Obesity
  • Renal disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the definition of TIA and can it be differentiated from stroke?

A

stroke signs and symptoms caused by a temporary occlusion, that self resolve within 60 minutes to 24 hours.

It can’t be differentiated at the time of treatment by paramedics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What questions specific to females should you ask a female patient who has fainted/had a syncopal event?

A
  • Sexual activity
  • Contraceptive use
  • Chance of pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What tools can be used to identify Sepsis?

A

QAS sepsis criteria:

Temperature
AVPU
Respiration rate
Heart rate
Systolic BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Outline the NEXUS criteria.

A
  • ALOC
  • focal neurological deficit
  • midline tenderness
  • intoxication
  • distracting injury

If patient is positive for at least one of the criteria, c spine precautions need to be implemented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the cause of meningitis headaches?

A

Inflammation of the meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the signs and symptoms for peritonitis and sepsis?

A
  • Fever or low body temperature/rigors
  • rash
  • ALOC
  • Lethargy/weak/fatigue
  • Thirst
  • Loss of appetite
  • Tachypnoea
  • Hypotension
  • Tachycardia
  • Abdominal pain or tenderness
  • Bloating or a feeling of fullness in the abdomen
  • Nausea/vomiting/diarrhea
  • Decreased urine output
  • Not able to pass stool or gas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are some risk factors for aortic aneurysm?

A
  • Age
  • Male gender
  • Family history
  • Hypertension
  • Hx aortic dissection
  • Preexisting cerebral aneurysm
  • Several syndromes (marfan, turner)
  • Trauma (particularly deceleration)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

+3 Sedation Assessment Tool (SAT) behaviour score description

A

combative, violent, out of control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the common signs and symptoms of mild alcohol withdrawal?
* anxiety * anorexia * insomnia * hypertension * tachycardia * nausea * coarse tremor
26
Define Delirious
disorientated; restless, hallucinating, sometimes delusional
27
What are your post ROSC cares for a paediatric drowning pt?
Continue ventilations and oxygen, maintain SPO2 >94%, ETCO2 35-45mmHg, PEEP Circulation – SBP >80 mmHg, consult for fluids if needed Consider C spine mobilisation, warming patient, rapid transport Post ROSC cares
28
What are some considerations/queries on the way to a job for third trimester pregnant patient with a headache?
Gestation Prenatal cares Complications with this pregnancy In labour
29
What is Atacand Plus presribed for?
hypertension
30
Outline the different types of hallucinations that can occur.
Visual – seeing things that aren’t there Auditory – hearing things that aren’t there Tactile – feeling things on skin that aren’t there Olfactory – smelling things that aren’t there Somatic – feeling of being touched when you aren’t Gustatory – strange or unpleasant taste in mouth with nothing in it
31
Describe the body’s normal glucose homeostasis mechanisms.
The balance and interaction of insulin and glucagon
32
What does the mental status assessment affect component assess?
Emotion as observed (Objective)
33
Westley Croup Score LOC Variables and Scores
Disorientated - 5 Normal, including sleep - 0
34
Define Faeculent vomiting
vomiting faecal material
35
What do you look for when you inspect the placenta?
Completeness, smoothness and integrity – missing parts or ragged membranes
36
What does the mental status assessment perceptions component assess?
How they perceive their world
37
Describe the methods to deliver effective chest compressions in the newborn?
* 2 fingers/or 2 thumbs * Rotate 2 minutes
38
What occurs in the second stage of labour?
full dilation of the cervix and birth of the baby
39
What is Zocor presribed for?
hypercholesterolaemia
40
What should you do if you notice ongoing bleeding post delivery and why?
Fundal massage until firm and central – increases uterine tone, expresses clots and reduces haemorrhage
41
What is Zoloft presribed for?
anxiety
42
What are the signs and symptoms of shock?
* Hypotension * Tachycardia * anuria * unconsciousness
43
What are the expected vital signs of a 9 year old?
Weight: 34kg HR: 70-120bpm RR: 15-25rpm SBP: 90-115mmHg
44
What are some high risk signs for sepsis in paediatrics?
* Capillary refill 3 seconds or longer * Hypoglycaemia * Moderate respiratory distress/tachypnoea * Moderate tachycardia * Pale or flushed/mottled/cold extremities * Reduced urine output * Unexplained pain or restlessness
45
What is the definition of sepsis?
Life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection
46
What class of drug is ventolin?
bronchodilator/short acting beta agonist
47
What is the presentation of uterine rupture?
* abnormal labour or failure to progress * severe localised abdominal pain * non-reassuring foetal heart patterns * uterine tenderness * loss of intrauterine pressure or cessation of contractions * vaginal bleeding * maternal hypovolaemic shock
48
Describe the steps of the Valsalva manoeuvre?
* Explain the procedure to the patient * Position them supinely * Take a baseline 12 lead ECG * Have them forcefully blow into a 10ml syringe for 15 seconds * Repeat 12 lead ECG
49
Describe the pathophysiology of seizures and common types of seizures.
Abnormal electrical discharges (neuronal activity) within the brain causing random, uncontrolled neuronal depolarisation to one or more regions of the brain.
50
What are the clinical features of acute febrile illness headaches?
Fever and symptoms of underlying cause eg URTI, tonsillitis
51
Outline your initial management of an unrespnsive patient, with a snore, RR 4, slow radial pulse and cold, and why?
* Reposition to supine with neutral head alignment to open airway and remove snore * IPPV 15L oxygen to supplement RR of 4 and add additional and supplementing breaths to increase resp rate to 18 p/min to improve oxygenation and reverse any hypoxia that may have already occurred * Place blanket over patient to improve body temperature
52
What are the clinical features of encephalitis headaches?
reduced conscious level confusion fever
53
What is the pathophysiology of croup?
virus causes swelling of the larynx and trachea causing the airways to narrow and breathing to become more difficult
54
What red flags may arise in history taking, suggesting non-accidental injury?
* Poor history or account of the injury occurring * Hx of unwitnessed trauma * Hx or family violence (may or may not know this) * Mechanism non compatible with child’s age or development capabilities * Hx does not match with patient findings * Inconsistencies in hx * Delay in seeking medical attention for an injury in a non ambulatory infant * Patterns of bruising or shapes, old bruising
55
Outline reverse wood’s screw manoeuvre
apply pressure to posterior of foetus posterior shoulder and rotate in opposite direction to Wood’s Screw manoeuvre
56
What are the expected vital signs of a 10 year old?
Weight: 37kg HR: 70-120bpm RR: 15-25rpm SBP: 90-115mmHg
57
What is the pathophysiology of peritonsilar or retropharyngeal abscess?
infection from tonsilitis
58
What are the effects of a life threatening serotonin toxicity?
* Seizures * Hyperthermia * Cardiovascular dysfunction * QT prolongation * Torsades de pointes * Multiorgan failure * Rigidity
59
What are the general categories of acute behavioural disturbances?
* Substance toxicity * Medical and organic disorders * Acute mental health conditions * Situational/behavioural
60
What is the management for stroke?
* Position Pt with 45 degree head elevation * Consider: Midazolam IV Access IV fluids Oxygen Analgesia Antiemetics * Repeat stroke assessment to trend condition * Rapid transport to appropriate facility
61
What are some common causes of abdominal distension?
* Fat * Fluid (ascites) * Flatus * Faeces * Foetus * Filthy big tumour
62
What is the drug flixotide and what is it used for?
corticosteroid asthma and allergies
63
What characterises a mild airway obstruction?
* patients themselves will optimise position (e.g. siting forward) * effective cough * crying or verbal responses present * able to take breath before coughing * fully responsive
64
What are some differential diagnoses of headaches in pregnancy?
Pre-eclampsia Eclampsia Central venous thrombosis Primary headache Secondary headache
65
What is the treatment for an anaphylaxis patient and the mechanism of management?
appropriate dose adrenaline IM – sympathomimetic agent alpha and beta adrenergic receptor antagonist that makes the heart beat faster and harder due to alpha 1 causing peripheral vasoconstriction and beta 1 increasing ventricular irritability, contractile force, conductivity and AV node. Beta 2 stabilises mast cells to negate their deregulatory effect
66
What is the treatment for epiglottitis?
Reassure Consider oxygen – mask and rate dependent upon SPO2 Position of comfort Rapid transport
67
What is the pathophysiology of agitated delirium?
Hyperthermia causing rhabdomyolysis and acidosis due to antagonism of M1 and M2 muscarinic receptors
68
What class of drug is lantus?
long acting insulin
69
What organs are in the Left Iliac Region?
* parts of sigmoid colon * descending colon * small intestine
70
What gynaecological history questions should you ask a female patient who has abdomen pain?
* Are her menses regular? * Has she had any PV bleeding? * Is there a possibility that she could be pregnant? * Does she have any gynaecological Hx in general? * Does she take contraceptives?
71
What is the drug salbutamol taken for?
asthma COPD
72
What are the main principles to consider when speaking with someone who is suicidal?
* Safety for everyone * Clear communication * Tell the person you care and can help them at this time * Gather pertinent information about their situation from family, friends, carers, bystanders or other credible sources or health services * Taking time to listen to the person
73
What are some common anti-depressants and their mechanism of action?
* Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) – Serotonin (5HT) reuptake inhibitors– fluoxetine, sertraline, citalopram * Serotonin noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) –5HT & noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors– venlafaxine, desvenlafaxine, duloxetine * Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) - 5HT & noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors & receptor blockers - amitriptyline, imipramine, nortriptyline * Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) - Inhibits breakdown of 5HT, noradrenaline, & dopamine, and catecholamines - phenelzine, tranylcypromine, moclobemide
74
Outline the mechanism of serotonin toxicity.
Increased concentrations of serotonin in the CNS interacting with G-protein-coupled receptors, inhibit auto receptors, causing increased serotonin synthesis and decreased reuptake – makes serotonin and stops the body from re-uptaking excess serotonin
75
What organs are in the Left Hypochondriac Region?
* spleen * large/small intestines * left kidney * pancreas * stomach * tip of the liver
76
Describe the pathophysiology of pulmonary embolism during pregnancy
hypercoagulable state and decreased blood flow from uterine veins can cause blood clots in the legs
77
How does the baby present in a footling breech?
One or both feet presents first, with the buttocks at a higher position. The hips and knees are flexed so that the foetus is sitting cross-legged, with feet beside the buttocks.
78
List some common psychostimulants
* Cocaine * methamphetamine * methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA)
79
What does a mental status assessment include?
* Appearance * Behaviour * Perceptions * Speech * Affect * Mood * Thought content * Thought form * Insight & Judgement
80
How may a beta blocker overdose present?
* Pulmonary oedema * Hypotension * Bradycardia * Heart block * Cardiogenic shock * Hypoglycaemia/hyperglycaemia * Seizures, coma (propranolol)
81
What is the treatment for bacterial tracheitis?
symptomatic
82
What occurs in the third stage of labour?
delivery of the placenta
83
What are the expected vital signs of a 5 year old?
Weight: 22kg HR: 80-140bpm RR: 20-30rpm SBP: 80-110mmHg
84
What type of drug is metoprolol?
beta blocker
85
What are some red flags associated with headaches?
* Thunderclap headache (intense, exploding, and hyperacute onset) * Headaches associated with fever, rash or ALOC * Meningeal signs (stiff neck, photophobia, or vomiting) * New onset headache in patients > 50 or < 10 * Persistent morning headache with nausea * New onset of headache in Pt with cancer or HIV * Progressive headache worsening over weeks * Headaches associated with postural changes * Aura (warning sensation) that lasts longer than an hour, is different from previous aura, or occurs for first time on using oral contraceptive
86
Define wheezing and its mechanism
high-pitched whistling noise – sound of air moving in constricted airways
87
What are some causes for an altered level of consciousness?
* Stroke * Inadequate cerebral perfusion * Hypoxia * Increased carbon dioxide levels * Metabolic disturbances * Drugs or toxins * Post ictal seizure * Intracranial pathology * Extracranial pathology * AEIOUTIPS
88
Outline the steps involved in the management of a breech delivery.
* Call for backup * Prepare for neonatal resuscitation * Hands off - Delivery should proceed spontaneously through gravity, maternal effort and uterine action * Assist with delivery of legs if needed * Perform manoeuvres if complications or failure to deliver * Thumbs on bum * manoeuvres if needed - Lovesets 1, Lovesets 2, Lovesets 3 * MSV maneouvre (to deliver the head)
89
What considerations should you have when getting a history from older patients?
Forgetfulness/confusion A lot of medications Sudden decline in mobility, self care, chores etc
90
What is the pathophysiology of placental abruption?
Rupture of the maternal vessels in the pregnancy modified endometrium causing the placental to separate partially or completely from the uterine wall.
91
How does excess alcohol consumption contribute to the underlying mechanism of pancreatitis?
small pancreatic ducts blocked by viscous secretions and activation of lysosomal and digestive enzymes in acinar cells and association with GI bleed and ruptured varices
92
What is the Tx for a PE Pt?
anticipate deterioration and CPR * High flow oxygen – PEs can be resistant to oxygen therapy * Pain relief – morphine – indications, contraindications, consult for more * 12 lead * No need for aspirin Consider: * differential diagnosis * IV fluids – max 1L due to failing RV and risk of increasing preload * adrenaline * CCP backup * transport * pre-notify as appropriate
93
What are the cholinergic signs and symptoms?
dumbbells D - diarrhoea U - urination M – miosis B – bronchorrhea B – bradycardia E – emesis L – lacrimation L - lethargy S – salivation/sweating
94
What is the drug effect of Span-K?
increases levels of K+ in the blood
95
What suffix do a lot of TCAs end in?
ine
96
What options do you have to get a patient off the floor?
Manual lift Raizer Camel Hover mat
97
What is the cause of encephalitis headaches?
Inflammation of active brain tissues from infection or autoimmune response
98
What assessments or clinical tests can you carry out to assist with a diagnosis of meningitis?
* Head to toe to identify and rashes – non-blanching purpuric or petechial rash or bruising * Difficulty touching chin to chest with mouth closed * Difficulty touching forehead to knee * Brusinski sign * Kernig's signs
99
What does it mean when the baby's head fails to restitute/what is this a sign of, and why does this occur?
Shoulder dystocia as the baby’s shoulders are too wide for the pelvic inlet and the anterior shoulder impacts on the symphysis pubis
100
How is stimulant toxicity graded?
Mild, moderate, severe
101
What are some considerations you would have enroute to a chest pain call?
* Previous heart Hx/medical Hx * ACS protocols – early 12-lead with serial printouts, aspirin, GTN * Nearest cath lab * Knowing what hospitals have different capabilities * Differentials
102
What is the definition of secondary postpartum haemorrhage?
Abnormal or excessive bleeding from the birth canal between 24 hours and 12 weeks following birth, usually defined as more than one heavily soaked pad per hour
103
What are the clinical features of raised ICP headaches?
Worse on waking/sneezing Raised BP Reduced pulse rate
104
Define septic abortion
serious uterine infection before, during or shortly after a spontaneous or induced abortion
105
How can you differentiate between croup and epiglottitis?
Croup - gradual onset with hx of runny nose or illness that gets worse at night Epiglottitis - acute fast onset
106
What is ALOC?
reduced alertness or inability to arouse
107
What type of drug is rosuvastatin?
statin
108
What is the pathophysiology of a focal seizure?
abnormal neuronal activity originates and is limited to one hemisphere of the cerebral cortex
109
What type of drug is rivaroxaban?
anticoagulant
110
Define induced abortion
intentional termination of a pregnancy by a procedure or medication
111
Compare and contrast the Valsalva and the modified Valsalva manoeuvre
The Valsalva manoeuvre requires the patient to be sitting in the one semi-recumbent position, however the modified Valsalva manoeuvre requires to patient to be initially semi recumbent, then supine with legs elevated and then back into a semi recumbent position
112
What are some risk factors for complications during pregnancy and possible consequences that can be associated?
* Alcohol or drug abuse – cause miscarriage, defects, early labour * Eclampsia * Extremes of maternal age – very young or older – increased risk of complications * Foetal growth restriction * Gestational or preexisting diabetes – macrosomic babies, foetal death, foetal malformations and growth restriction and increased need for interventiosn during labour * Hypertensive disorders – chronic hypertenstion, preeclampseia, help * Older women – increased risk of complications * Preterm – baby at risk due underdeveloped * Previous c sections/shoulder dystocia – increased risk of shoulder dystocia * Prior preterm delivery, prior stillbirth – increased risk in subsequent pregnancies
113
Describe your ABD sedation brief to the team and what equipment you will have available.
* Allocation of sedation supervisor, sedation assistant and other required personnel * Advising QPS of requirements for positioning of patient – avoiding pressure on the head, neck and chest/back * Restraint of the patient to occur as late as possible * Equipment on hand is resuscitation kit and defibrillator
114
What could be an additional differential in a pregnant patient presenting with chest pain and SOB?
Peripartum cardiomyopathy Aortic dissection Pulmonary embolism
115
What type of drug is Frusemide?
loop diuretic
116
Where do you clamp and cut the cord?
10cm, 15cm and 20cm Cut between 15cm and 20cm
117
What is the definition of primary postpartum haemorrhage?
Blood loss of greater than 500 mls from birth canal within the first 24 hours following birth
118
What are some red flags for sepsis? Why may these factors be considered red flags?
* Re-presentation to a health care professional within 48 hours – treatment not working * Age less than 3 months OR greater than 65 years – reduced immune system * Recent trauma or surgery/invasive procedure/wound within last 6 weeks – possible cause of infection * Indwelling medical devices (e.g. IDC) – possible cause of infection *Immunocompromised/unimmunised – reduced immune system * Parental/family/health care professional concern for the patient – medical knowledge of health concern * Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander/Pacific Islander/Maori cultural backgrounds – reduced access to health care
119
Outline the important elements of the “golden hour” and the benefits that it may have.
* general management * skin to skin contact * delay non urgent parts of assessment * early initiation of breast feeding * keep bub warm It promotes bonding and milk supply as well as the release of oxytocin in mum and bub
120
What is a thunderclap headache?
sudden onset of severe thunderclap type head pain
121
Define spontaneous abortion
natural loss of pregnancy prior to 20 weeks gestation
122
Provide some common calcium channel blocker drug names
* Verapamil * Diltiazem * Amlodipine * Nifedipine * Felodipine * Lercanidipine
123
What are some differential diagnoses for a Pt who is: tripoding - significant SOB increased WOB pale, clammy sudden onset of sharp right-sided chest pain whilst mobilising and is worsened on inspiration?
* Pulmonary embolism – especially if tachycardic * Spontaneous pneumothorax (tall skinny fellow) – diminished chest sounds * Myocardial infarction * Congestive Heart Failure * Pericardial tamponade * Pericarditis * Infection
124
What is the management for a DKA patient and why?
* Oxygen – increase SPO2 >94% and reduce amount of CO2 * IV access - for drug administration * IV fluids – to increase vascular volume to improve BP and maintain radial pulse and to dilute blood concentration of glucose * Consult for salbutamol to shift K back to cells * Rewarming - reversible cause of cardiac arrest * Pads on - as can deteriorate * CCP backup - to provide additional knowledge and assistance in treating
125
What is the management for a patient in cardiac arrest refractory to 3 stacked shocks?
* Amiodarone – (unless contra for TCA) 300mg IV slow push over 1-2 minutes * after 5th DCCS 150mg IV slow push over 1-2 minutes * after 6th DCCS adrenaline – 1mg IV every 3-5 minutes
126
What are the indications for an acute stroke referral?
Mandatory for all Pts with symptoms suggestive of stroke who meet the following: * Onset of stroke symptoms less than 24 hours; AND * The patient is able to be transported to an acute stroke centre (ASC) within 60 minutes (from stroke assessment)
127
Define inevitable abortion
uterine contractions causing cervix dilation leading to a complete or incomplete abortion
128
What other steps can be taken to assist with uterine contractions/haemorrhage control post delivery?
* Stimulate endrogenous oxytocin release by the commencement of breastfeeding * Have mum urinate
129
What are the clinical features of tension type headaches?
Band around the head Stress Low mood
130
0 Sedation Assessment Tool (SAT) behaviour score description
Awake/calm and cooperative
131
What are the clinical features of migraine headaches?
Aura visual disturbance unilateral headache nausea/vomiting trigger
132
What is the pathophysiology of bacterial tracheitis?
bacteraemia and/or pathogenic invasion of the epithelial layer
133
What is Ezetrol presribed for?
hypercholesterolaemia
134
What does the mental status assessment judgement component assess?
ability to evaluate choices and make appropriate choices
135
What is your initial management for an unconscious hypoglycaemic patient and justify why?
* IV access to administer glucose 10% as glucose is the preferred fuel source over glucagon. This is with the aim of returning his BGL back to within normal limits. * If can’t get IV access, go glucagon however if don’t have appropriate store of glycogen in liver, glucagon won’t work
136
Describe the general pharmacology of steroids.
Inhibit the inflammatory action of the phospholipase A2 enzyme and used for multiple reasons for infections in a variety of setting for long term disease processes
137
What is the pharmacology of a calcium channel blocker?
Restrict calcium ingress, slowing cardiac conduction and contractility and decreasing the oxygen demand of the heart Verapamil and diltiazem also cause peripheral vasodilation, lowering arterial blood pressure and reducing ventricular afterload
138
What is the pathophysiology of a cardiac arrest with an underlying asthmatic disease process?
Air trapping causing obstructive shock which increases intrathoracic pressure and compressing inferior vena cava, stopping blood flow to right side of heart. Right ventricle depends on preload forcing contraction.
139
Define “coffee ground”
vomit that looks like it has coffee grounds in it due to coagulated blood
140
What is the underlying pathophysiology that contributes to the development of pre-eclampsia?
Unclear, however is thought to be from an abnormal placentation, endothelial dysfunction, inflammation, immune system activation, oxidised stress, renal involvement due to impaired kidney function, hormone imbalance or other genetic factors Affects some pregnant women typically after 20 weeks and characterised by hypertension and protein in urine
141
Outline rubins II manoeuvre
insert gloved hand and apply posterior pressure to anterior shoulder of the foetus to rotate shoulders to oblique diameter
142
What are the three main priorities after administering an initial adrenaline dose in anaphylaxis?
High flow oxygen Further appropriate doses adrenaline – appropriate time frame Throughough head to toe – to identify any external cause
143
Under which act does an EEA operate?
Public Health Act 2005
144
How does paracetamol produce analgesia?
works through cox inhibition and production of prostaglandins
145
What risks are associated with cord prolapse?
* Foetal blood supply occluded, leading to hypoxia and death * Vasospasm when manoeuvring the umbilical cord
146
Define the pattern of pain for Pancreatic pain
* left hypochondriac or epigastric region pain, worsened within minutes after eating or drinking, especially high fat foods, can become constant and more severe and can last several days * Worsened when lying on back and can radiate to the back or below left scapula
147
What are the expected vital signs of a 11 year old?
Weight: 40kg HR: 70-120bpm RR: 15-25rpm SBP: 90-115mmHg
148
What is the drug class and use of panadol-osteo?
analgesic osteoarthritis
149
What are the clinical features of subarachnoid haemorrhage headaches?
‘Thunder-clap’ or very sudden onset headache +/- stiff neck
150
What is your management if the newborn’s pulse drops below 60?
* Place on flat surface * CPR: 3:1 (Compressions:breath) * Paeds pads on * If shockable rhythm, shock at 4joules/kg – manual defib setting * IV access * 50 mics (0.5ml) adrenaline every 3-5 mins (using 1:10,000 (100mic/1ml) ampoule)
151
What does GTN do?
reduces preload and afterload, allowing blood flow through cardiac arteries and veins and peripheral blood pooling to reduce workload of the heart
152
Using the above graphic, estimate the blood loss in each picture
* 30ml * 100ml * 500ml * 60ml * 350 ml * 250ml * 1000ml * 2000ml * 1500 ml
153
What is your management for an unresponsive patient presenting with: Respiratory Status Assessment * Rate – the intrinsic rate is 4 * Rhythm – regular * Effort – decreased and shallow * Sats – 85% * Skin – pale * Speech – none * Sounds – normal * Speech – none * Sounds – normal Cardiovascular Assessment * HR – 50 * BP – 90/45 * BGL – 2.0 * Temp – 33.2°C Neurological Assessment * GCS – eyes do not open, no verbal response, nil motor response * Pupils – size 2 and non-reactive * Motor – nil H-T * Urinary incontinence
* Call for CCP backup and additional bravo crew – CCP can administer adrenaline * Continue IPPV/NPA/OPA – to increase oxygen saturations * Blanket on patient and open warming blanket and allow to warm up – takes 30 mins to warm up * IV access to administer drugs * IV glucose 10% - 15g (150 ml), repeated at 10g (100ml) every 5 minutes until BGL >4 mmol * IV sodium chloride 0.9% - titrate to increase SBO >100 mmHg * 12 lead ECG – to ascertain any ECG changes such as terminal R wave and QRS widening * Place onto stretcher – once backup arrives to get off cold ground and to commence transport
154
Outline the McRoberts manoeuvre
mum laying supine with knees to nipples - to increase anteroposterior diameter of the pelvic inlet
155
-1 Sedation Assessment Tool (SAT) verbal score description
slurring or prominent slowing
156
What are the ECG features of AF?
* Absent P waves * Chaotic irregularly baseline/fibrillatory waves * Irregularly irregular * Wide QRS * Fibrillation waves may mimic p waves
157
What are the clinical features of meningitis headaches?
fever photophobia stiff neck rash limb pain cold peripheries mottled skin bulging fontanelle (babies)
158
What is your management for a patient with a mild airway obstruction where back blows and chest thrusts have failed?
Removing the obstruction via direct laryngoscopy and magill forceps
159
Discuss the risks associated with the reversal agent.
Can cause APO due to catecholamne surge creating and adrenergic crisis causing volume to shift to pulmonary vasculature
160
-3 Sedation Assessment Tool (SAT) behaviour score description
no response to stimulation
161
What are the risks associated with the administration of droperidol in a patient presenting with sepsis?
Can cause profound hypotension – especially in urosepsis
162
Outline the different methods of arrhythmia termination that may be used within the emergency department
* Cardioversion * Adenosine – stopping heart from beating for a short period of time
163
What are your first three priorities of management for a seizing patient?
1. Checking the airway for vomitus and suctioning if required or postural drainage 2. Oxygen administration – 15L/min via non- rebreather mask 3. IM midazolam
164
How do benzodiazepines cause CNS depression?
strengthens the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA within the CNS, which inhibits nerve transmission and reduces neuronal excitability
165
What is the cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage headaches?
leak of blood of rupture from intracranial vessel
166
What are the ventilation rates?
20 per minute = 1/3 18 per minute = 1/3 16 per minute = 1/4 14 per minute = 1/4 12 per minute = 1/5
167
What are some risks associated with CNS depression?
* loss of airway reflexes * aspiration * positional asphyxia * hypotension * bradycardia * hypothermia
168
What is the appropriate management for a pregnant female in third trimester with a severe headache?
IV access for drug administration CCP backup for IV magnesium sulphate Paracetamol 1g – analgesia Morphine 2.5mg – analgesia
169
What are the expected vital signs of a 6 year old?
Weight: 25kg HR: 70-120bpm RR: 15-25rpm SBP: 90-115mmHg
170
Describe your immediate actions with a newborn that requires assistance.
* Initiate tactile stimulations * Skin to skin contact * Warm bub with skin to skin contact with mum and blanket over the top * Suction mouth before nose * Clamp and cut cord * Consider: IPPV room air
171
What features are present for a diagnosis of pre-eclampsia?
* systolic blood pressure (SBP) ≥ 140 mmHg and/or * diastolic blood pressure (DBP) ≥ 90 mmHg plus one or more of: o neurological problems o proteinuria o renal insufficiency o liver disease o haematological disturbances o foetal growth restriction
172
Define confused
disorientated; bewildered, and having difficulty following commands, not knowing date/month/year/location etc
173
What are some complications associated with breech delivery?
Footling and kneeling breech – prolapsed cord
174
What time is placed on the EEA?
Triage
175
What does the mental status assessment mood component assess?
Emotion as described (Subjective)
176
Outline the pathophysiology and management of febrile convulsions
Self-limiting muscle originating process - can’t regulate temperature and convulsing to create movement to decrease body temp through fanning type mechanism. Active cooling of patient
177
What is a primary headache?
A headache caused by the issue itself does not have an underlying cause
178
What is the drug class and use of Crestor?
statin hyperholesterolaemia
179
What are some causes of APH after 20 weeks?
* Placental abruption * Placenta praevia * Uterine rupture * Loss of pregnancy
180
Describe your managment of a paediatric drowning pt with PEA?
* CPR: 15-2, good quality compressions, rotate officers * suctioning/OPA/ETCO2 * Maintain normothermia
181
Define Rhonchi and its mechanism
low pitched wheezing/snoring – sound of air moving through mucous in bronchial tubes
182
What are some common opioid medications and their trade names?
* Heroin * Morphine * Fentanyl * Oxycodone * Codeine * Buprenorphine * Hydromorphone * Methadone * Tramadol * Tapentadol
183
Westley Croup Score Chest Wall Retractions Variables and Scores
Severe - 3 Moderate - 2 Mild - 1 None - 0
184
What is the purpose of the shoulder dystocia interventions?
To increase the functional size of the bony pelvis and change the relationship between the size of the bony pelvis and the foetus and to reduce biacromial diameter of the foetus or to rotate foetus into oblique diameter
185
Westley Croup Score Air Entry Variables and Scores
Markedly decreased - 2 Decreased - 1 Normal - 0
186
What are the types of antidepressant drugs?
SSRIs SNRIs TCAs MAOIs
187
What are some risks associated with new onset AF?
* Thromboembolism in lung vasculature
188
What is your definition of asthma?
Reversible obstructive lower respiratory disease characterised by chronic airway inflammation, bronchial hyperresponsiveness and intermittent airway narrowing, +/- excess mucous production and mucous plugging
189
Describe common seizure presentations in paediatric patients.
* Vacant stares * Lack of gross muscle tonicity * Fixed gaze * Facial muscle twitching
190
What is the drug class and use of Ramipril?
ACE inhibitor hypertension
191
What are the four classes of cardiovascular drugs?
I - sodium blockers II - beta blockers III - potassium blockers IV - calcium blockers
192
What are the signs and symptoms for Uncontrolled gastrointestinal tract (GIT) haemorrhage?
* fatigue * shortness of breath * vomit that looks like coffee grounds or has bright red blood * abdominal cramps * black or tarry stool * haematochezia - dark or bright red blood mixed with stool * Shock
193
What are you looking for in a H2T of a Pt who you suspect has a pulmonary embolism?
swelling to legs to identify presence of thrombus with pain on palpation – especially calf redness or swelling around incision sites to identify presence of infection sensations
194
Can asthmatic pts tolerate 6-8 breaths per minute adult and 8-15 breaths per minute paeds?
yes
195
What are the signs and symptoms of acute pancreatitis?
* Fever * Tachypnoea * Hypotension * Tachycardia * Epigastric pain radiating to the back * Nausea and vomiting * Jaundice * Ecchymosis
196
Outline some of the services that an elderly patient could be referred to for help at home
Home care Community transport Social worker Services Australia website – nationwide number for state service Dedicated dementia lines Geri referral team
197
What is the mechanism of dexamethasone?
anti-inflammatory that reduces inflammation
198
Outline the pathophysiology of anaphylaxis
Exposure to allergens where IgE sensitisation occurs – additional exposures causes crosslinking of IgE causing mast cell deregulation and release of mediators that can cause symptoms or recruit inflammatory cells continuing a chain reaction resulting in a myriad of symptoms
199
What are some antenatal risk factors for primary PPH?
* Previous history of post-partum haemorrhage * Anaemia * Age greater 35 years * Multiparity * Prior uterine surgery, including caesarean section * Pre-eclampsia and HELLP syndrome − these interfere with liver enzymes which in turn interferes with clotting factors. * Obesity * Uterine anomalies, including fibroids * Abnormal placentation * Multiple pregnancy
200
What immediate assessments indicate that the newborn requires assistance?
HR breathing status tone
201
What is the treatment for FBAO?
encourage cough back blows chest thrusts laryngoscope/magills forceps & rapid transport
202
What are the common signs and symptoms of severe alcohol withdrawal?
* anxiety * insomnia * irritability * seizures * fever * visual hallucinations * hypertension * tachycardia * tremor
203
What are the common sodium blocker drugs?
TCAs - 'ine' suffix flecainide (CVS) propafenone (CVS) propranolol (CVS) dextropropoxyphene (opioid)
204
What are the signs and symptoms of ectopic pregnancy?
* abnormal vaginal bleeding * hx of amenorrhoea (at least one missed period) * nausea * pelvic and/or abdominal pain * presyncopal symptoms
205
What are some techniques for de-escalation?
1. Respect personal space 2. Do not be provocative 3. Establish verbal contact 4. Be concise 5. Identify wants and feelings 6. Listen closely to what the patient is saying 7. Identify areas upon which to agree 8. Set clear limits 9. Offer choices and optimism 10. Evaluate the outcome of de-escalation and consider further options
206
What are the signs and symptoms of testicular torsion?
* nausea and vomiting * abdominal pain on the same side as the torsion * sudden, severe pain in the scrotum * swelling of the scrotum, redness, tenderness or hardening of the scrotum * the testicle being in a strange position, such as higher than normal or on an unusual angle * one testicle looks larger than the other * tenderness if the area is touched * discolouration of the scrotum * difficulty walking
207
What are the benefits of delayed cord clamping?
* Increases baby’s blood volume by around 80-100mls, possibly up to 300mls * Improved iron scores at 3-6 months * Supports transition from foetal to neonatal circulation * Reduced risk of brain haemorrhage and ischaemic gut in premature babies * Reduced risk of baby becoming anaemic * Transferring blood rich in antibodies and stem cells – boosting immunity
208
What organs are in the Epigastric Region?
* liver * stomach * pancreas * duodenum * spleen * adrenal glands
209
What is the pathophysiology of an acute asthma attack?
Response to allergen or environmental factors – exercise, weather, infective causes – releasing endogenous irritant and inflammatory mediators that cause reversible airway obstruction and narrowing from airway smooth muscle constriction
210
What are the indications for pre-hospital administration of fibrinolysis?
* Pt located more than 60 minutes transport time (from first STEMI 12-Lead) to a pPCI capable hospital * GCS = 15 * Classic ongoing ischaemic chest pain less than 6 hours in duration (excluding atypical ischaemic chest pain) * 12-Lead consistent with STEMI
211
What is the drug metropolol taken for?
angina hypertension heart failure previous MI tachyarrhythmias/AF it controls heart rate
212
Outline the management involved with the administration of fibrinolysis.
Complete informed consent for tenecteplase (weight based) and given in conjunction with 300mg clopidogrel and 30mg IV enoxaparin followed up at 15 mins with 1mg/kg enoxaparin subcut dose
213
Define Somnolent
sleepy, responding to stimuli only with incoherent mumbles or disorganised movements
214
How quickly should the shoulders be delivered under normal circumstances?
60-90 seconds
215
What is Kernig's Sign?
inability to straighten the leg when the hip is flexed to 90 degrees
216
What is your first pharmacological agent of choice for croup and why?
Adrenaline NEB – 5mg, single dose only – as had stridor at rest
217
Is a 12 lead ECG warranted in a ptient with abdominal pain?
Yes, as abdominal pain can be present rather than chest pain in ACS
218
What are common stroke symptoms?
* Thunderclap headache * ALOC * Focal neurological deficits * Dysphasia/asphasia * Hemiplegia * Nausea
219
What is the presentation of placental abruption?
* Constant pain in the abdomino-pelvic region * Fundal height may increase due to expanding intrauterine haemorrhage * Tetanic uterine contractions * Uterine hypertonicity – feels rigid on palpation * Bleeding may range from absent to profuse, occurring in waves as the uterus contracts * Signs of maternal shock
220
What is Betaloc presribed for?
hypertension/angina
221
What are the symptoms of brain hypoxia?
Loss of concentration Poor decision making Memory loss Cyanosis/pallor Coma Seizures Brain death
222
Define Pleural friction rub and its mechanism
rough, scratchy sound – pleural membranes rubbing together
223
What are some differential diagnoses of confusion in the elderly?
* Stroke/TIA * Infection/UTI * Sepsis * Polypharmacy overdose
224
Describe the pathophysiology of peripartum cardiomyopathy
hormones of late pregnancy causing endothelial dysfunction and cardiomyocyte death
225
What are your first actions for a patient who is supine in bed, cyanotic, speaking in phrases with an audible respiratory sound and SPO2 of 50%?
* Reposition pt to semi-recumbent – to increase available space in the thorax * Administer 15L oxygen via non rebreather mask – to return sats to a normal level and improve hypoxemia
226
If a patient who has just delivered a baby haemorrhages and continues to deteriorate, outline your ongoing management and justify your reasoning.
IV TXA, 1g, slow push over 10 minutes, single dose only – to assist with blood clotting
227
How long should each shoulder dystocia manoeuvre be done for?
30 seconds
228
Define missed abortion
pregnancy stops developing but products of conception remain in the uterus and the cervical os is closed
229
How does alcohol cause CNS depression?
strengthens the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA within the CNS, which inhibits nerve transmission and reduces neuronal excitability. It also inhibits glutamate which affects memory, cognition and mood
230
What is cervical shock and what are some differential diagnoses that could contribute to presentation?
Neurocardiogenic shock form dilation of the cervix Hypovolaemic shock
231
What are some common risk factors for developing hypoglycaemia in diabetics?
* Took insulin and forgot to eat * Increased age * Skipping meals * Erratic eating patterns * Heavy exercise * Weight loss * Beta blockers * Using same injection site too frequently * Antidepressants * Alcohol * Cognitive dysfunction * Underlying kidney damage * Underactive thyroid * Gastroparesis * Chronic diabetes * Pregnancy
232
What is your pharmacological management for a pregnant patient with suspected pre-eclampsia who begins to convulse?
5mg IM midazolam, repeated every 10 mins, max 20 mg; OR if have IV access; 5mg IV every 5 minutes, max 20 mg No as it will not correct the underlying cause of peripheral vasoconstriction and increased tone
233
Describe how patients should be restrained for sedation and the rationale behind this.
Laterally with hands in front to ensure that the patient’s face is visible at all times for monitoring and airway maintenance and restrained for as short a time as possible
234
What are some risk factors for shoulder dystocia?
* Previous SD * Macrosomia (large foetus > 4 kg) * Maternal diabetes mellitus * Maternal obesity (BMI > 30) * Older maternal age * Post term pregnancy * Excessive weight gain in pregnancy
235
How do you manage a croup patient with global expiratory wheeze and prolonged expiratory phase after administering adrenaline?
Salbutamol NEB 2.5mg, PRN Dexamethasone 0.5ml, PO – anti-inflammatory steroid Paracetamol 150mg (6ml), PO – antipyretic
236
What is the pathophysiology of an ischaemic stroke?
intracranial or perforator artery occluded by a thromboembolism from within the brain or one which has travelled from the heart or distal limb which causes hypoxia in downstream brain tissue
237
What is metoprolol administered for?
Hypertension Angina Suspected MI Migraine prophylaxis
238
What are some examples of activities of daily living, and how may they be measured in the elderly?
Walking – walking frame/stick Cleaning – cleaning themselves or having cleaners come in Self care – showering themselves or having carers come in
239
Westley Croup Score Cyanosis Variables and Scores
At rest - 5 With agitation - 4 None - 0
240
What are the expected vital signs of a 6 month old?
Weight: 7kg HR: 100-160bpm RR: 25-50rpm SBP: 70-100mmHg
241
What are the clinical features of cluster headaches?
Usually male Often a smoker Nightly pain in 1 eye for 2−3 months then pain free for at least a year
242
What are some stroke mimics?
* Conversion disorder (results from psychological stress) * Electrolyte derangement * Encephalitis * Hypoglycaemia * Infection (particularly with fever in elderly) and sepsis * Migrainous aura and/or hemiplegia (with/without pain) * Space-occupying cerebral lesions * Seizures and post-ictal periods
243
Westley Croup Score Components
Level of consciousness - disorientated/normal Cyanosis - at rest/with agitation/none Stridor - at rest/with agitation/none Air entry - markedly decreased/decreased/normal Chest wall retractions - severe/moderate/mild/none
244
What is the appropriate management for a pregnant female in third trimester with a severe headache who is refractory to initial analgesia with increasing hypertension?
Morphine 2.5mg IV – analgesia Position of comfort and quiet environment - consult for GTN for hypertension
245
What is the estimated weight of a newly born and expected vital signs?
* Weight: 3.5kg (CPG says 3-5) * Heart rate: 100-160 bpm * Respirations: 25-50 rpm * Systolic blood pressure: 60-70 mmHg * SPO2: low post delivery and increases over 10 minutes
246
What are some yellow flags associated with headaches?
* Worsening headache following recent trauma to head * Taking an anticoagulant or antiplatelet drug * Hypertension during pregnancy * Previous Hx of intracranial bleeding * Onset during sexual activity * Family history of cerebral vascular abnormalities
247
What are the clinical features of head injury headaches?
bruising and/or history of injury reduced conscious level periods of lucidity and amnesia
248
What are some mechanisms that cause orthostatic syncope?
* Volume depletion (haemorrhage, diarrhoea, vomiting) * Medications (vasodilators or diuretics) * Cardiovascular autonomic dysfunction
249
What organs are in the Umbilical Region?
* duodenum * the small intestine * transverse colon
250
Outline your plan of management for an overdose patient who presents as: Neurological Assessment * GCS – eyes do not open, groans, withdraws * Pupils – size 4 and reactive * Motor – nil Respiratory Status Assessment * Rate – 38 * Rhythm – regular * Effort – shallow * Sats – 92% * Skin – pale * Speech – none * Sounds – normal Cardiovascular Assessment * HR – 60 * BP – hypotensive * BGL – 1.2 * Temp – 36.3°C
* CCP backup for atropine and adrenaline for low HR * 6L oxygen via face mask to increase SPO2 >94% * IV access to administer drugs * IV glucose 10% at 0.25g/kg (2.5ml/kg) repeated at 0.1g/kg (1ml/kg) until BGL >4 mmol = 2.5g (25ml) repeated at 1g (10ml) * IV fluids to increase SBP to MAP 90 or SBO to 10p - 120 * 12 lead ECG If can’t get IV access 0.5mg glucagon IM, single dose only
251
Westley Croup Score Results
MILD CROUP: \<2 MODERATE CROUP: 3 to 5 SEVERE CROUP: 6 to 11 SEVERE RESPIRATORY FAILURE: \>12
252
What are the expected vital signs of a 12 year old?
Weight: 43kg HR: 70-120bpm RR: 15-25rpm SBP: 90-115mmHg
253
What is the treatment for refractory anaphylaxis and why?
Persistent wheeze * NEB Salbutamol – appropriate dose, PRN, no max dose – affects B2 receptors causing bronchodilation * IV Hydrocortisone – appropriate dose, single dose only, slow push over 1 minute (dilute with 2 ml sodium chloride, then discard 0.24 ml) – stabilises mast cells Persistent hypotension/shock * Glucagon – increases accessory pathway of cyclic amp to increase myocardium calcium release, increasing hr and contractility via non adrenergic pathway * Fluid for hypotension – end goal of return of radial pulse Upper airway obstruction * Neb adrenaline – if persistent stridor – providing localised vasoconstriction to target tissues in larynx and airways reducing capillary leakage and airway oedema
254
Describe the consequences of hypoxia on the brain.
Hypoxia triggers a cascade of physiologic events on the brain including energy failure due to impaired cellular respiration leading to disfunction of ion pumps and accumulation of excitatory neurotransmitters resulting in cellular swelling leading to additional hypoxia and oxidative stress causing cell death
255
How do you manage a focal seizure?
* Airway * Breathing * Circulation * Positioning – 45 degrees to allow for cerebral drainage * 5mg IM midazolam if required * Backup * Transport
256
What is the definition of septic shock?
subset of sepsis with profound circulatory, cellular, and metabolic abnormalities that are associated with a greater risk of mortality
257
What are the signs and symptoms of Ovarian torsion?
* Nausea and vomiting * Cramping * Severe sudden pain in lower abdomen
258
List some common causes of acute gastrointestinal bleeding
* Crohn’s disease * Diverticulitis * Haemorrhoids * Mass lesions * Oesophageal varices * Pancreatitis * Peptic ulcers * Portal hypertension gastropathy * Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurism * Severe gastritis * Severe oesophagitis * Ulcerative colitis * Upper GIT haemorrhage
259
What is the drug effect of rosuvastatin?
Causes liver to make less cholesterol and increases its uptake of cholesterol from the blood
260
What are the patient's possible outcomes when placed under an EEA?
They can be admitted or discharged following examination or referred for further assessment.
261
What is Span-K administered for?
hypokalaemia
262
Do asthma and anaphylaxis present similarly in some cases?
yes as pathophysiology is similar
263
What is Xarelto presribed for?
AF
264
-1 Sedation Assessment Tool (SAT) behaviour score description
asleep
265
What does the mental status assessment behaviour component assess?
attitude manner observed behaviours
266
What is the drug effect of metoprolol?
Relaxes blood vessels and slows HR improving blood flow and decreasing BP
267
What are the common MAOI drugs?
phenelzine tranylcypromine moclobemide
268
What is the drug effect of rivaroxaban?
stops blood clotting
269
Define Stridor and its mechanism
squeaking sound – sound of air moving around airway blockage
270
What are the four main presentations for breech birth?
complete footling kneeling frank
271
What are some green flags associated with headaches?
* Symptoms associated with influenza * Known headache with ‘usual; symptoms and triggers * Normal vital signs, normal assessment using FAST technique and able to walk normally
272
What are some of the physiological changes that occur with ageing and how do they impact the patient? Be systematic.
CNS and peripheral nervous system * Decrease in baroreceptor responses * Decreased in b adrenergic response in receptors * Decreased transduction through general CNS Pulmonary: * Decreased vital capacity * Decreased lung compliance/elasticity * Increased residual volume Cardiovascular: * Decreased endothelial dependent vasodilation * Increased peripheral resistance * Decreased intrinsic heart rate and ability to increase heart rate to compensate for stressors * Increased av conducting time and ectopics Metabolism * Decrease in overall ability to metabolise drugs
273
Describe the airway management in a newborn doesn't respond to stimulation and initial IPPV?
* PEEP on BVM with good seal (2 person)/ETCO2 * neutral positioning with towel etc * keep warm * If need to suction – make sure it is brief or can stimulate reflexes and cause bradycardia
274
What is the pathophysiology of a pulmonary embolism?
recent insult/surgery (within 2-3 weeks) associated with period of stasis leads to formation of DVT in lower limbs that works its way through circulation and into microcirculation within pulmonary vasculature.
275
What is the mangement of an overdose patient who deterioriates into cardiac arrest?
* Pads on * 3 stacked shocks * Check temp as may need to alter doses if hypothermic * Amiodarone – 300mg slow push over 1-2 minutes * After 5th DCCS – Amiodarone – 150 mg slow push over 1-2 minutes * After 6th DCCS – Adrenaline – 1mg every 3-5 minutes, no max dose * Good quality compressions – 1/3 depth chest, 100 per minute
276
What is the treatment for tonsilitis/abscess/Quincy?
symptomatic
277
What are some differentials of centralised upper abdominal pain?
* Aortic aneurysm * Acid reflux/heart burn * Cholecystitis * Pancreatitis * Renal colic
278
What are some differences between adult and paediatric components of breathing?
* Obligatory nasal breathers * Increased resp rates * Smaller tidal volume * Decreased functional residual capacity – reduced ability to tolerate occluded airway * Diaphragmatic breathers * Greater oxygen demand
279
What are some considerations for mandatory transport for a hypoglycaemic pt?
* Injury sustained from hypoglycaemic episode requiring further investigation * Intentional overdose of glucose lowering agent * Newly diagnosed diabetes * No previous diagnosis of diabetes * Not returned to normal mental state within 20 mins of IV glucose or incomplete recovery to normal conscious state * Pt taking long acting oral hypoglycaemic agent that causes hypoglycaemia * Pregnancy * Recovered but unable to be monitored by a responsible adult for 4 hours or unable to self care * Risk of prolonged or recurrent hypoglycaemia * Seizure * Severy hypoglycaemia episode within previous 48 hours * Suspected cause of hypoglycaemia due to illness that requires further investigation * Unable tor unwilling to consume long acting carbohydrate * Unwitnessed onset or prolonged episode
280
What are some causes of psychosis?
* Primary psychotic disorder - Schizophrenia * disillusion disorders * brief psychotic disorders * organic causes – infection, inflammatory processes * elderly pts with UTI * substances/medications/alcohol
281
What is the age group for paediatric pad use?
under 6
282
What organs are in the Right Hypochondriac Region?
* Liver * gallbladder * right kidney * large/small intestine
283
What is the cause of head injury headaches?
Bruising, swelling or injury to the brain tissue
284
What does the acronym AEIOUTIPS stand for?
A - Acidosis/ Alcohol E - Epilepsy I - Infection O - Overdose U - Uremia T - Trauma to head I - Insulin: too little or or too much P - Pyschogenic S - Stroke
285
In a patient that presents in cardiac arrest in the first instance, what may be some signs that suggest a FBAO?
* Difficulty ventilating * Equal rise and fall of the chest * +/- hx of eating or playing with small objects prior
286
What are likely causes of headache and ACS-type presentations in psychostimulant overdose patients? Why?
Psychostimulants are sympathomimetic substances (fight or flight syndrome) that cause significant vasoconstriction particularly in the microcirculation of brain and heart
287
What is the drug class and use of Esomeprazole?
proton pump inhibitor acid reflux
288
What are the causes of PPH?
* Tone - Poor uterine tone (70%) * Tissue - Retained products (10%) * Trauma - tears of the vulva, vagina or cervix, as well as uterine rupture (20%) * Thrombin - Coagulopathy disorders (1%)
289
What are the common TCA drugs?
amitryptyline imipramine (endep) nortryptyline
290
Why can asthmatic Pts tolerate low resp rates in ROSC?
to prevent air trapping, and build up of intrinsic PEEP
291
Outline the normal management of the healthy newly born.
* Clean mouth and nose * Initiate tactile stimulation * Within 30 seconds assess heart rate and breathing status * Apgar at 1 and 5 minutes
292
List some examples of time-critical abdominal emergencies
* Aortic dissection * AAA * Peritonitis and sepsis * Uncontrolled gastro intestinal tract (GIT) haemorrhage * Acute pancreatitis * Ectopic pregnancy * Acute bowel obstruction * Testicular/ovarian torsion
293
What is your management of a patient refractory to 10mg droperidol?
CCP backup and second dose of Droperidol – IM – 10mg
294
What is rivaroxaban administered for?
AF (atrial fibrillation)
295
What characterises a severe airway obstruction?
* absent or ineffective cough * unable to vocalise * worsening stridor * quiet or silent chest / unable to breath * cyanosis * decreasing level of consciousness
296
What type of drug is span-k?
potassium chloride
297
What medications or ingestible agents can be fatal in small amounts in paediatric overdose?
* Antiarrhythmics * Essential oils * Opioids * Organophosphate * Paraquat * Stimulants – MDMA, methamphetamine * Alcohols * TCAs
298
What are the components of FLACC
face legs activity cry consolability
299
What is your management of a pancreatitis patient and justify why?
* IV access – to administer analgesia and fluids * IV fluids – to maintain radial pulse and SBP of 80 mmHg * IV fentanyl 25 – 50 mcg – to reduce pain * IV ondansetron 4 – 8 mg – to stop vomiting * Oxygen – 15L min via non-rebreather - if shocked and to return SPO2 >94% * Active warming as patient is hypothermic and to prevent coagulopathy * CCP backup
300
What type of drug is nordip and what is it used for?
calcium channel blocker - hypertension
301
Outline the effects and mechanism of tricyclic antidepressant overdose
Acts on multiple receptor sites inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, blocks sodium channels and inhibits muscarinic, histamine and adrenergic receptors, causing anticholinergic effects, neurotoity and cardiotoxicity/ECG changes
302
What type of drug is inderal and what is it used for?
beta blocker - hypertension
303
What is your provisional diagnosis for an unresponsive patient, with a snore, RR 4, slow radial pulse, size 2 pupils and cold, and why?
opioid overdose due to symptoms of: small pupils decreased resp rate environmental factors
304
What is the pathophysiology of epiglottitis?
Infection causing an inflammation of the lining of the cartilaginous tissue in the airway
305
What is the appropriate management for a non-pulsatile cord present in the vaginal opening?
* Assist mother to assume the knee-chest position * Carefully attempt to push the presenting part off the cord
306
What are some risk factors for SPPH?
* Prolonged rupture of membranes * Prolonged labour * Emergency caesarean section * Vaginal birth after caesarean (VBAC) * Ragged membranes or incomplete placenta (unlikely after a caesarean section) * Manual removal of the placenta
307
What is the cause of tension type headaches?
extracranial muscles become tense
308
What characteristics lead to a diagnosis of autism?
Persistent deficit in social communication and interaction across contexts from early childhood and manifests by: * Abnormal speech, failure to engage in normal conversations * Deficits from being able communicate * Social communication and interaction in multiple situations * Restricted interests and activities * Repetitive patterns of behaviour
309
What are the signs and symptoms of acute bowel obstruction?
* fever * nausea/vomiting * sudden onset abdo pain * abdominal distension * obstipation (no movement of gas or stool) * dehydration - tachycardia - orthostatic hypotension - decreased urine output - dry mucous
310
What are some differential diagnoses for a paediatric patient presenting with high-pitched grunting noise/barking seal like cough?
Croup Epiglottitis Bacterial tracheitis Peritonsillar or retropharyngeal abscess FBAO
311
What is the pathophysiology of DKA?
* High BGL draws water out of cells due to increased blood osmolality causing cellular dehydration, and osmotic diuresis and polyuria leading to severe dehydration & hypovolaemia * Ketones (organic acids) produced from using alternative fuel sources resulting in metabolic acidosis * Dehydration leading to polydipsia * Loss of potassium from the body
312
What is your airway management for a pregnant patient with suspected pre-eclampsia who begins to convulse?
Suctioning the airway for 10-20 seconds NPA if unable to open mouth due to trismus Oxygen via non-rebreather mask – 15L minute
313
What is the drug tiotropium bromide taken for?
asthma COPD
314
What are some of you considerations going to a PV bleed in a pregnant patient?
* Ectopic pregnancy * Miscarriage * Delicate emotional state in both mum and partner
315
Describe the ideal positioning of the patient for direct laryngoscopy and why is it beneficial?
Sniffing position to align the oropharyngeal laryngeal axis to improve visualisation of the glottis
316
What suffix do beta blockers end in?
lol
317
What is catopril administered for?
Hypertension Congestive heart failure
318
What is the definition for hypertension during pregnancy?
Systolic blood pressure >140 mmHg Diastolic blood pressure >90 mmHg Severe Systolic blood pressure >160 mmHg Diastolic blood pressure >110 mmHg
319
How does oxygen administration effect patient’s with COPD?
It can cause hypoventilation due to increased blood flow to poorly ventilated alveoli, increasing V/Q mismatch dead space
320
How does fentanyl produce analgesia?
binds with opioid receptors altering pain perception
321
What are some risk factors for pancreatitis?
* Alcoholic * Gallstones * Obesity * Smoking * Type 2 diabetes mellitis (T2DM)
322
What is the definition of anaphylaxis?
Acute onset of illness with skin features of urticaria or erythema/flushing and/or angioedema WITH: respiratory and/or cardiovascular and/or persistent severe gastrointestinal symptoms; OR acute onset of hypotension or bronchospasm or upper airway obstruction where anaphylaxis is possible, even without skin features
323
What is the pharmacology of a beta blocker?
Antagonise beta adrenergic receptors, stopping the release of catecholamines, slowing the heart and reducing its contractility
324
What are some other priorities of management for a STEMI pt?
* Reversible causes – thrombus * Consult for management pathway and prepping for cath lab or fibrinolysis depending on where you are
325
What should you do if a STEMI pt is accepted for PCI?
Complete the decision supported PCI checklist transport to nearest hospital call cardiologist at cath lab to accept pt for PCI and order for 5000 units of heparin and find out what drug they want administered (enoxaparin or clopidogrel)
326
What conditions can mimic or mask alcohol intoxication?
* other intoxications * electrolyte imbalance (hypo or hypernatremia, hypercalcemia) – abnormal ECG * hypoglycaemia - BGL * hypothermia - temperature * head injury – clinical assessments/history taking * stroke – clinical assessments * seizure * encephalitis or meningitis * sepsis * renal failure * encephalopathy (hepatic, HIV, Wernicke) * hypothyroidism
327
What are the three categories of adrenal insufficiency?
* Primary adrenal insufficiency (PAI) * Secondary adrenal insufficiency (SAI) * Tertiary adrenal insufficiency (TAI)
328
Outline the body’s processes for homeostatic acid-base balance?
* Bicarbonate buffer system counteracts pH changes within minutes * Respiration rate changes to alter the blood’s carbon dioxide concentration within minutes to hours * Kidneys change bicarbonate generation and reabsorption and cause the excretion of hydrogen ions via phosphate and amnionic buffers * Phosphate buffer system proteins and haemoglobin
329
What is hemiplegia?
one-sided muscle paralysis or weakness
330
How do you test a rash to see if it is blanching?
pressing down on it with a clear glass etc – if it does not disappear under pressure it is non-blanching
331
What are the neurotoxicity effects of a TCA overdose?
* Sedation/Coma * Seizures
332
Outline some features of common behavioural disorders.
* Conduct disorder - when you struggle with antisocial behaviours, following rules, and showing empathy towards those around you – usual onset around 16yrs – physical altercations, bullying or threatening peers, staling, destroying or breaking into private property * Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) – acting out in defiance - frequent questioning of authority, excessive arguing, refusing to comply, and intentionally engaging in behaviours that upset others. * Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) – inability to sit still and concentrate – impulsivity, inability to pay attention, lack of time management skills, mood swings, low frustration threshold and trouble coping with stress * Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) - thoughts, actions, and impulses that are chronic, uncontrollable, and intrusive - constant washing and cleaning, repeating phrases or prayers, following strict routines, or repetitively counting and checking, the need to have things orderly or symmetrical, ideation about losing control or harming yourself or others, unwanted aggressive or sexual thoughts * Behavioural addiction – can’t stop doing something due to brain associating pleasure and activating reward mechanism when engaging in the activity – gambling, sex, internet, shopping, video games, plastic surgery, binge eating and risky behaviours
333
What are some causes of cardiac arrest in a Pt with underlying asthma/COPD disease?
* Tension pneumothorax * Hypovolaemia * Arrhythmias * Myocardial depression from prolonged hypoxia
334
Outline all fours position
mum on hands and knees to alleviate SD pressure to dislodge the shoulder
335
-3 Sedation Assessment Tool (SAT) verbal score description
nil
336
What elements of history taking may assist with defining the cause of syncope?
Medications Past medical Hx List of lasts Events
337
What questions may be asked in the assessment of a child?
Gestational age at birth NICU stay after birth Pregnancy complications Is child hydrated – wet nappies, bottle feeding appropriately, solids Sick siblings Going to school Sickness at school
338
What is the drug effect of escitalopram?
increases serotonin levels
339
What is your immediate management of a child found at the bottom of a pool with bystander CPR in progress?
* Bystander continue CPR * Cut off clothes, dry pt and move to dry location * Towel under shoulders * Manage airway, suction, IPPV, adjuncts * Pads on (Paed pads if under 6 years) * Assess rhythm and shock if required * IV access
340
How may a calcium channel blocker overdose present?
* Seizures * Coma * Hypotension * Bradycardia * Heart block * Cardiogenic shock * Hyperglycaemia * Metabolic acidosis
341
Describe your managment of a paediatric drowning pt with VF?
* Shock @ appropriate joules * CPR – good quality compressions (one handed), rotate officers * IV access * Adrenaline @ appropriate dose every 3-5 minutes * reassess
342
What is the pathophysiology of uterine rupture?
A spontaneous tearing of the uterus usually from trauma, genetic uterine wall weakness, prolonged labour augmentation or stretching of the uterine wall
343
Outline wood’s screw manoeuvre
keeping first hand in place, insert second hand and apply pressure to anterior of foetus posterior shoulder – to rotate foetus to oblique diameter
344
Define Steatorrhoea
stool containing excessive amounts of fat
345
Define incomplete abortion
partial loss of products of conception in the first 20 weeks gestation
346
Describe how and why fever occurs
Release of pyrogens from white blood cells or pathogen triggering the hypothalamus to raise body’s set point temp. Causes physiologic changes resulting in a change to body’s set point temperature, blood vessel constriction, metabolism increase, shivering/rigors to try to generate heat Natural defence mechanism response to infection.
347
What would be your considerations surrounding transporting to the closest appropriate hospital versus patient's preferred destination?
* Happy as they have all of the patient’s medical history, but have to call ahead for approval first * The facilities available in the closest hospital and the preferred destination and where will they get better care
348
What are some mechanisms that cause reflex syncope?
Vasovagal response to emotional stress and/or pain, visualisation of blood, after urination defecation, coughing or straining
349
What is your ongoing managment of a paediatric patient who is no longer seizing?
* Maintain neutral positioning for airway patency (snoring) * Prepare additional midazolam * Continue oxygen administration – titrating to >92-96% * Consider IV access * Consult for fluids as hypotensive * Consider administration of paracetamol to reduce fever if patient able to swallow * CCP to help during transport * Pre-notification
350
What is the treatment plan for an adult, with purulent leg ulcer, difficult to rouse with low sats, hypotensive and hypoglycaemic who has just finished a dose of steroids?
* Oxygen to increase SPO2 to above 94% * IV access to administer fluids and medication * IV glucose 10% - 15g (150 ml), repeated at 10g (100 ml), every 5 minutes until BGL is >4 mmol – to bring BGL to within normal limits * IV fluids – titrate to maintain radial pulse – to increase blood pressure * Consider hydrocortisone as treating possible adrenaline insufficiency
351
What are the common SNRI drugs?
venlafaxine (efexol) desvenlafaxine duloxetine
352
Why do you administer antiemetics to stroke patients?
to prevent vomiting and further increase in ICP if haemorrhagic stroke as blood is toxic to the brain when not in blood vessels
353
What is the mechanism of shoulder pain in patient’s presenting with abdominal pain?
The phrenic nerve runs from the diaphragm up through to the spine, and blood in the abdominal cavity irritates the diaphragm causing this pain to travel through to the shoulders.
354
What are your considerations surrounding transport of a paediatric patient who is no longer seizing to hospital?
* Transport to nearest suitable hospital * Have midazolam prepared, ready to go * Have mum travel in ambulance if there is someone there to look after the other children * Pre-notify
355
What are some indicators of serious aetiology syncope?
* History of cardiac disease * New or unexplained dyspnoea * Syncope during physical exertion * History or physical signs of cardiac failure * History of anemia * Family history of sudden cardiac death and/or history of an inherited cardiac condition * > 50 years age * Evidence of new ECG abnormalities
356
What can you consult for in a PE cardiac arrest Pt?
autonomous fibrinolysis administration
357
What class of drug is Seretide?
corticosteroid
358
Define Crackles (Rales) and its mechanism
bubbling, rattling or clicking – sound of air moving through fluid in lungs
359
What is your management for VT when witnessed?
* Check for response * Check for pulse – if no pulse - 3 stacked shocks * Good quality compressions – 100 per minute – 1/3 depth chest * Pharmacological prioritisation
360
What is the cause of cervicogenic headaches?
Issues with bones in neck eg arthritis, injury
361
What are some risk factors for non-accidental injury/DV?
* Known family dysfunction * Child has multiple medical conditions * Poor parental care * Numerous separations for the child in 1st year of life * Hx of psychiatric issues/stresses * Criminal activity in older children
362
What are the expected vital signs of a 2 year old?
Weight: 13kg HR: 80-140bpm RR: 20-30rpm SBP: 80-110mmHg
363
What are some considerations enroute to an imminent delivery patient?
* Drugs – oxytocin & TXA * PPE maternity kit * 2 Pts – role delineation * CCP backup
364
What are some signs of imminent delivery?
* Loss of operculum mucous plug (bloody show) - (may have occurred days before) * increasing frequency and severity of contractions * with an urge to push, or open bowels * membrane rupture (this may not occur and active membrane rupture will be required if the head has been delivered with the membrane intact) * bulging perineum * appearance of the presenting part at the vulva
365
What are some common classifications of syncope?
Orthostatic Reflex Cardiac
366
What happens if a patient absconds before assessment when detained under an EEA?
Authority to return completed by hospital and QPS or QAS requested to bring them back
367
+2 Sedation Assessment Tool (SAT) verbal score description
loud outbursts
368
What are some behavioural indications or warning signs of suicide?
* Talking about death or suicide * Seeking methods for self harm * Talking about feeling hopeless or having no reason to live * Changes in drug and alcohol use * Changes in sleeping patterns * Reckless behaviour * Feelings of isolation, desperation or feeling trapped - expressed in conversations. * Social withdrawal or disengagement in usual activities * Putting affairs in order
369
Why do DKA patients present the way they do?
* Acidosis and low cpp = low map * Profound hyperkalaemia – osmolarity shift of water and K+ out of cells and cells uptake H ions and to maintain electroneutrality
370
How does paracetamol reduce fever? Do all patients with fever need to be treated?
inhibiting the hypothalamus prostaglandin production, reducing the body’s set temperature leading to heat dispersion and reduced body temperature
371
Define whooping and its mechanism
high-pitched gasp – respiratory infection
372
How can you assess pain in paediatric patients?
* FLACC – face legs activity crying consolability * Wong baker faces
373
What are the post ROSC cares/goals?
Maintaining airway Maintaining ventilation status Maintaining cardiovascular status Titrate fluid for SBP of 100 or greater
374
Q. Outline and justify management of a secondary postpartum haemorrhage.
* Fundal massage * Patient to empty bladder * Consider: * Tone – fundal massage &Oxytocin * Trauma – control external haemorrhage & Analgesia * Tissue/temperature/Thrombin – fundal massage, inspect for membranes and pieces of placenta * External aortic pressure * Bimanual compression
375
What is the drug class and use of metformin?
anti-hyperglycaemic diabetes
376
What makes children more vulnerable to FBAO?
* Smaller airway * Can not generate the same force when coughing as an adult * Commonly put objects in their mouth when they are discovering their environment
377
What is the pharmacology of naloxone?
Reverses the effects of opioids by competing for the same opioid receptors
378
How does the baby present in a complete breech?
hips and knees are flexed so that the foetus is sitting cross-legged, with feet beside the buttocks
379
What is the pathophysiology of a STEMI?
Atherosclerotic plaque buildup narrows lumen or breaks off (instigating clotting factors), obstructing blood flow distal to the occlusion, decreasing perfusion leading to injury and necrosis
380
Outline all fours running start
mum on hands and knees with one foot forward so it is near hand & apply gentle downward traction to foetus posterior shoulder or gentle upward traction to foetus anterior shoulder
381
What is the pharmacology of psychostimulants?
enhance prefrontal cortex norepinephrine levels and the activation of adrenergic receptors by binding to norepinephrine transporters in the prefrontal cortex
382
What are the elements of the paediatric assessment triangle?
Appearance – tone, interactiveness, consolability, look & gaze, speech and cry Work of Breathing – nasal flaring, retractions, posturing, breath sounds, apnoea or gasping Circulation to skin – pallor, mottling, cyanosis
383
How does the baby present in a kneeling breech?
kneeling position, with one or both legs extended at the hips and flexed at the knees.
384
What are differentials for syncope?
Cardiac syncope Orthostatic syncope Reflex syncope Seizure
385
Describe the pathophysiology of alcohol withdrawal
Ethanol inhibited GABA and glutamate receptors no longer being inhibited resulting in unopposed sympathetic and central nervous system stimulation
386
+2 Sedation Assessment Tool (SAT) behaviour score description
very anxious and agitated
387
What is the pathophysiology of primary adrenal insufficiency (PAI)?
Direct adrenal gland dysfunction typically caused by an autoimmune disease such as Addison’s disease.
388
What is the cause of cluster headaches?
dysfunction of trigeminal nerve
389
Describe the physiological mechanisms by which the body compensates for insufficient perfusion.
Baroreceptors send negative feedback loop to cardiovascular centre to increase peripheral vasoconstriction and venous return – decreased perfusion detected in kidneys which stimulates the release of renin to stimulate renin angiotensin aldosterone system – causing many effects by increasing sympathetic nervous activity which directly stimulates peripheral vasoconstriction, aldosterone release to work in kidneys to stimulate the retention of sodium and water – and antidiuretic hormone from post pituitary gland further increasing water retention
390
How would you troubleshoot/what are your considerations in a difficult ventilation with an igel in a cardiac arrest due to underlying asthma/COPD Pt?
Bilateral decompression of chest to rule out haven’t transferred from asthmatic arrest due to bronchospasm to tension pneumothorax
391
Provide some common beta blocker drug names.
mostly end in lol * Propranolol * Sotalol * Atenolol * Bisoprolol * Carvedilol
392
What is the drug effect of frusemide?
Makes person pee: causes kidney to excrete higher levels of water and salt into urine
393
What organs are in the Right Iliac Region?
* appendix * cecum * ascending colon * small intestine
394
List some normal gross motor milestones for children
6wks – good head control in vertical 3mths – no head lagging or pulling, lying on abdo with good head control 6mths – sits up with good support 12mths – taking first steps 13mths – walks unsupported 18mths – runs, climbs 2yrs – runs, walks down steps 2 feet at a time 3yrs – able to catch objects and hold a pencil to draw objects 4-5yrs – can climb, skip, hop and colour in neatly
395
Compare cholinergic and anticholinergic agents
Cholinergic agents activate acetylcholine receptors, stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system Anticholinergic agents block the action of acetylcholine, inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system
396
What are some common calcium channel blockers?
verapmil diltiazem
397
What is status epilepticus?
seizure activity > 5 minutes in duration or recurrent seizure activity where the patient does not recover to a GCS of 15 prior to another seizure
398
Following your initial treatment, what is your ongoing management of a patient presenting with meningitis and justify why?
Airway – good oxygenation Breathing Circulation * IV access – further doses morphine, possibly saline, ceftriaxone and ondansetron * IV fluids – titrate to MAP 90 * Antiemetic – ondansetron 8mg IV, slow push over 2-3 minutes, to stop nausea and to also reduce ICP when vomiting * Further doses of morphine to max 20mg to control pain, also has anti-anxiety properties which may help the Pt * CCP backup * Rapid transport * Pre-notify hospital * Consult for Ceftriaxone – 2g, slow push over 5 minutes as meets risk criteria for meningococcal bacteria
399
What is Frusemide administered for?
Hypertension Oedema – heart, kidney & liver failure
400
What does the mental status assessment thought content component assess?
the content of their thoughts
401
0 Sedation Assessment Tool (SAT) verbal score description
speaks normally
402
What is Protonix presribed for?
acid reflux
403
What are the anticholinergic effects of a TCA overdose?
* Hot as a hare: increased body temperature * Mad as a hatter: delirium * Blind as a bat: mydriasis (dilated pupils) * Red as a beet: flushed face * Dry as a bone: dry mouth, dry eyes, decreased sweat * Fast as a fox: tachycardia * Full as a flask: urinary retention
404
What are some signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis?
Gradual or rapid onset of: Cutaneous – urticaria (rash), angioedema (swelling), pruritus (itch), flushed skin Respiratory – difficulty breathing, wheeze, upper airway swelling, rhinitis (runny nose) Cardiovascular – hypotension, dizziness, bradycardia or tachycardia, collapse Abdominal – nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, abdominal pain
405
What are the contraindications for an acute stroke referral?
* Advanced terminal cancer with a life expectancy of less than 6 months * Seizure/s at onset of symptoms
406
How do opioids cause CNS depression?
act on both opioid and non-opioid receptors in the nervous system, GIT, cardiovascular and immune systems blocking pain messages
407
What are some additional causes of SPPH?
* Perineal trauma / Perineal repair infection * Uterine Abnormalities - Fibroids * Vascular anomalies - arteriovenous malformation or pseudoaneurysm * Caesarean section wound dehiscence / infection * Bleeding disorders or coagulopathies
408
What is your management for a patient with a mild airway obstruction, unable to dislodge with their own efforts to cough?
5 back blows, checking to see if the obstruction has been dislodged between blows, and if unsuccessful, 5 chest thrusts, checking to see if the obstruction has been dislodged between blows
409
Define complete abortion
full loss of products of conception in the first 20 weeks gestation
410
Define Stuporous
profoundly reduced alertness and requiring continuous noxious stimuli for arousal
411
Define Haematochezia
per rectum bleed of fresh blood
412
What role does naloxone have in an overdose patient who deteriorates into cardiac arrest?
No role in cardiac arrest as it is secondary to opioid and Narcan/naloxone has no cardiac effects
413
What factors may support the patient’s presentation of an acute behavioural disturbance (ABD) being associated with a medical aetiology?
* first presentation/episode of ABD in a person aged 45 years or older * abnormal vital signs * focal neurologic findings * decreased awareness of surroundings * difficulty paying attention * absence of a clear trigger for ABD
414
What is the pathophysiology of secondary adrenal insufficiency (SAI)?
Deficiency in adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH) secretion by the pituitary gland.
415
What would you consider appropriate analgesia for a pregnant patient with abdo pain and PV bleed?
2.5mg IV morphine, or 3ml methoxyflurane
416
Define Ascites
fluid build up in the spaces within the abdomen
417
What are some risks associated with post-term delivery?
* Macrosomia * Shoulder dystocia * Placental breakdown * Infection * Stillbirth * Maternal mortality
418
What are some risk factors for Cholecystitis?
* Fat * Female * Fair (Caucasian) * Fertile * Over 40 * Pregnancy * Hormone therapy * Diabetes
419
What does the mental status assessment thought form component assess?
the amount of thought and the rate of production
420
Define threatened abortion
vaginal bleeding in the first 20 weeks of gestation
421
What does the mental status assessment appearance component assess?
the general appearance of your pt
422
What does the mental status assessment insight component assess?
degree to which the client understands the importance of their illness or current state
423
Define HELLP syndrome and how it is different to other conditions.
A marker for severe pre-eclampsia, where 2 of the 3 elements of Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes and Low Platelets are required for a diagnosis
424
What may be some common rhythms that may present as palpitations?
* Broad complex tachycardia * Narrow complex tachycardia * Sinus rhythm
425
Outline different agents that primarily cause CNS depression.
* Alcohol * Benzodiazepines * Opioids
426
What does the mental status assessment speech component assess?
volume at which they speak
427
What constitutes a normal birth?
* spontaneous onset * low-risk at the start of labour * remaining low-risk throughout labour and birth * the newborn is born: o spontaneously o in the vertex position o between 37 and 42 completed weeks gestation * After birth mum and bub in good condition
428
What is the pathophysiology of tertiary adrenal insufficiency (SAI)?
Hypothalamic dysfunction, resulting in a decrease in corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH), which stimulates the pituitary gland to produce ACTH. Sudden withdrawal from long-term exogenous steroid use is the most common cause of TAI
429
What is the presentation of placenta praevia?
* no pain, other than that associated with contractions * a soft, non-tender uterus * several small warning bleeds * bright red blood * significant blood loss, which may lead to hypovolaemic shock
430
What are the expected vital signs of a 4 year old?
Weight: 19kg HR: 80-140bpm RR: 20-30rpm SBP: 80-110mmHg
431
What are some potential differential diagnoses for chest pain?
* Acute myocardial infarction * Angina stable/unstable * Aortic dissection * Cardiac tamponade * Pulmonary oedema * Pericarditis * Spontaneous pneumothorax
432
What are some high risk for sepsis in paediatrics?
* Severe tachycardia or bradycardia * Severe respiratory distress/tachypnoea/apnea * Needs oxygen to maintain SpO2 greater than 92% * Hypothermia * Non-blanching rash/mottled ashen/cyanotic * Altered GCS/AVPU
433
What are the expected vital signs of a 7 year old?
Weight: 28kg HR: 70-120bpm RR: 15-25rpm SBP: 90-115mmHg
434
Outline your management for a birth at 20 weeks gestation with the foetus having gasping respirations?
* Pull over and have second assist * Backup with second crew to assist * No resuscitation * Wrap baby and present to mum * Be very supportive and ensure psychological cares * Manage mother as post delivery – oxytocin etc
435
Define the pattern of pain for Bowel obstruction
sudden onset of abdo pain in the periumbilical region, cramping waves every 4-5 minutes if in small bowel, or every 20 minutes if in large bowel
436
What are the signs and symptoms for AAA?
* ALOC * shoulder tip pain * myocardial infarction * hypotension * asymmetrical/absent distal pulses * abdo pain * palpable mass * ecchymosis (bruising around flank) * limb ischaemia * shock (hypovolaemic)
437
What are focal neurological deficits?
signs or symptoms in which causation can be localized to an anatomic site in the central nervous system, eg paralysis, weakness, loss of muscle control, increased muscle tone, loss of muscle tone, tremors, sensation changes
438
Why is it important to guard the uterus when applying cord traction?
To prevent uterine inversion
439
What enroute considerations do you have for a child found at the bottom of a swimming pool, with CPR in progress?
* CCP QFS back up * Do calculations: o Pts weight (age x 3) + 7 o Defib joules weight x 4 (round up to next highest setting) o Amiodarone – CCP administration after 3rd DCCS o Adrenaline dose 10mic/kg, every 3-5, no max, after 5th DCCS * scene control * Best facility to transport to
440
Define Comatose
state of deep, unarousable, sustained unconsciousness
441
What are some differences between adult and paediatric components of circulation?
* Increased hr * Decreased ability to increase stroke volume * Increased vagal tone * Smaller blood volume – 9-10 ml/kg
442
Westley Croup Score Stridor Variables and Scores
At rest - 2 With agitation - 1 None - 0
443
What occurs in the first stage of labour?
gradual effacement and dilation of the cervix through regular contractions up to 10cm dilation
444
What is the maximum joulage of paediatric pads?
100 joules
445
What is the pathophysiology of placenta praevia?
The embryo implants in the lower part of the uterus causing the placenta to grow close to or over the cervical os
446
Why is rapid transport for a stroke patient essential?
for urgent stroke testing
447
What is Brusinksi Sign?
patient's hips and knees flex when the neck is flexed
448
When do you administer naloxone to an opioid overdose patient?
to be administered after immediate cares commenced and resp rate and oxygen sats have improved – fix hypoxia first Give it prior to immediate cares if unable to manage airway - anatomically difficult etc
449
What are some mechanisms that cause cardiac syncope?
* Structural cardiac abnormality (aortic stenosis, cardiomyopathy, aortic dissection) * Cardiac arrhythmia (sinus node dysfunction, atrioventricular block, tachycardia)
450
What are the risk factors for epiglottitis?
Adults and children who are not vaccinated – haemophilis influenza type B (HIB)
451
What are some differences between adult and paediatric components of airway?
* Large head/occipult * Small oral cavities and oral airway openings * Large tongue * Large tonsils * Large floppy u-shaped epiglottis * More proximal and anterior larynx * Absence of tracheal ridge
452
What are some causes of arrhythmias?
* Ischemic heart disease * Hypertension * Heart failure * Heart disease * Diabetes * Electrolyte disturbances
453
How do you instruct the mother to push when the head is crowning? Do you touch the baby?
Small pushes with contractions Place 2 fingers against baby’s head to prevent explosive delivery of the head
454
-2 Sedation Assessment Tool (SAT) behaviour score description
physical stimulation
455
What type of drug is catopril?
ace inhibitor
456
What is the cause of migraine headaches?
traction or inflammation of cranial blood vessels
457
What other assessment needs to be completed with the NIHSS-8 score?
GCS
458
Compare and contrast DKA and HHS
DKA: * T1DM * BGL >10 mmoL * +/- Kussmaul respirations * rapid onset * Not enough insulin to convert sugar into energy, so liver uses fats for energy instead of sugar, creating ketones HHS: * T2DM * BGL > 40 mmoL * does not have kussmaul respirations * develops over long period * pancreas creates insulin, but peripheral tissues resistant causing an increase in bsl
459
Outline the elements of the APGAR and when it is performed.
Appearance – skin colour Pulse – count heart rate Grimace – monitor response to stimulation Activity – muscle tone Respiration – count and assess resp rate APGAR is performed at 1 and 5 minutes
460
What is the management for abdominal pain and why?
* 400 mg ibuprofen – to assist with pain * 1g paracetamol to assist with pain * 4-8 mg ondansetron - Antiemetic to stop nausea and vomiting if present * IV access - to administer drugs * 2.5 – 5mg IV morphine – to assist with pain
461
Define Melaena
dark sticky stool that contains partly digested blood from internal bleeding or swallowing blood
462
+1 Sedation Assessment Tool (SAT) behaviour score description
very anxious/restless
463
What type of drug is diamicron and what is it used for?
antihyperglycaemic, - T2DM
464
What are the benefits of active management of third stage of labour?
Speeds up the delivery of the placenta and reduces risk of post partum haemorrhage
465
What are some maternal complications associated with shoulder dystocia?
* postpartum haemorrhage * severe vaginal and perineal trauma * uterine or bladder rupture * psychological distress
466
What is the drug class and use of Escitalopram?
SSRI depression
467
What is your management plan for a STEMI? ie what will you do?
* CCP backup * Pads on as deteriorate quickly * Check contraindications * 300mg, single dose Aspirin for antiplatelet properties to stop platelets aggregating * 400 mics, every 5 GTN for vasodilation, reduction of preload and afterload, allowing blood flow through cardiac arteries and veins and peripheral blood pooling to reduce workload of the heart * IV access * 25mcs Fentanyl – analgesia and more efficacy with PCI drugs * Commence pPCI pathway
468
What organs are in the Hypogastric Region?
* bladder * parts of sigmoid colon * small intestine * and reproductive organs
469
What are high risk features of sepsis in adults?
* Respiratory rate greater than 25 breaths/min * Systolic BP less than 90 mmHg (or a drop of greater than 40 mmHg from normal) * Heart rate is equal to or greater than 130 beats/min * Needs oxygen to maintain SpO2 greater than 92% * Non-blanching rash/mottled/ashen/cyanotic * Deterioration in mental status (from normal) * Recent chemotherapy * Anuria in last 18 hours OR significantly reduced urine output
470
What is the difference between active management of the third stage and physiological management of the third stage?
active management is the process of cord clamping, oxytocin and active cord traction physiological management is all maternal effort
471
What are the clinical features associated with stimulant overdose?
* Psychosis * Anxiety agitation paranoia * Dilated pupils * Tachycardia * Hypertension * ACS * Cardiac dysrhythmias * Diaphoresis * Tremor * Metabolic – dehydration, rhabdomyolysis, hyperkalaemia * Acute renal failure * Death
472
Define recurrent abortion
2 or more successive pregnancy losses
473
Define Haematemesis
vomiting fresh blood
474
What do each of the APGAR score ranges suggest?
* 0-3: indicates severe distress in the newborn requiring immediate resuscitation * 4-6: indicates moderate distress that requires medical attention and extreme vigilance * 7-10: indicates the newborn is coping well at that point in time
475
Define the pattern of pain for Peptic ulcer disease
burning or gnawing pain in the epigastrium that slowly builds for 1-2 hours, then gradually decreases Is aggravated by meals
476
How does methoxyflurane produce analgesia?
by altering tissue excitability
477
What type of drug is cartia and what is it used for?
aspirin - antiplatelet
478
What organs are in the Left Lumbar Region?
* descending colon * small intestine * left kidney
479
What are the elements of the NIHSS-8 assessment?
1. Level of consciousness 2. Level of consciousness questions – ask age, current month 3. Commands – open/close eyes, grip and release 4. Best gaze – horizontal eye movements tracking 5. Facial palsy – show teeth, close eyes, raise eyebrows 6. Motor Arm – hold arms outstretched 7. Dysarthia – slowly count to 5 8. Extinction/Neglect – motor sensory with eyes closed & show fingers in both visual fields
480
What is Dysphasia/asphasia?
Full or partial loss of language
481
What is the definition of psychosis and what are the defining features?
a mental disorder where a person loses the capacity to tell what’s real from what isn’t * Delusions * Hallucinations * Disordered thinking * Disordered behaviour * General thought disorganisation
482
What does the mental status assessment judgement component assess?
ability to evaluate and make appropriate choices
483
Outline supra-pubic pressure
pressure superior to symphysis pubis or continuous rocking motion (back of foetus towards front) – to reduce diameter of foetal shouters and rotate anterior shoulder into oblique diameter - do with McRoberts
484
What is the cause of raised ICP headaches?
Pressure on the brain due to increased amount of fluid and restricted room in skull
485
What is the pathophysiology of a generalised seizure?
abnormal neuronal activity rapidly engages both hemispheres of the cerebral cortex (absence, atonic, tonic, myoclonic and tonic/clonic)
486
What is the pathophysiology of a haemorrhagic stroke?
blood vessel within the brain ruptures and bleeds into surrounding tissue and possibly subarachnoid space, causing hypoxia in downstream brain tissue and increasing ICP
487
What is the treatment for croup?
Depending on Wesley croup score, dexamethasone +/- adrenaline Dexamethasone, PO, 0.5ml, may be repeated once if spat out Adrenaline, NEB, 2.5mg, single dose only
488
What is the pathophysiology of sepsis?
Infection penetrates the blood causing dysregulated inflammation response and body is overwhelmed by release of anti-inflammatory mediators increasing vascular permeability causing fluid shifts and cellular hypoxia. Fluid loss into interstitium causes increase in peripheral vascular resistance worsening tissue ischemia and increasing lactate. Within sepsis response microcirculatory dysfunction resulting in circulatory dysfunction and DIC
489
What are some causes of APH before 20 weeks?
* Miscarriage * Ectopic pregnancy * Implantation bleeding
490
What are the expected vital signs of a 3 year old?
Weight: 16kg HR: 80-140bpm RR: 20-30rpm SBP: 80-110mmHg
491
+3 Sedation Assessment Tool (SAT) verbal score description
continual loud outbursts
492
What are the clinical features of cervicogenic headaches?
Unilateral or bilateral; band from neck to forehead and scalp tenderness
493
How does the baby present in a frank breech?
buttocks presents first, with the legs flexed at the hip and extended at the knees, placing the feet near the ears.
494
Define the pattern of pain for Renal colic
mild to intense pain beginning around the flank and moving anteriorly towards abdomen and inguinal region
495
What should you consider when deciding on medication doses in the elderly?
Decreased kidney function and ability to metabolise drugs
496
Name the 9 abdominal regions
right hypochondriac region epigastric region left hypochondriac region right lumbar region umbilical region left lumbar region right iliac region hypogastric retion left iliac region
497
At what point would you consider physical management of the PPH? Outline the procedures for each method and reasoning why?
If blood loss over the 10 minutes of TXA administration does not improve * External aortic compression – manual compression of the abdominal aorta against the vertebral column to restrict uterine blood flow * Bimanual compression - invasive two-handed technique to manually compress the uterus wall - continued through to definitive care (theatre).
498
What is the drug effect of catopril?
Decreases BP and improves contractility
499
Outline some of the common gaps in health outcomes and risk factors for First Nations people.
* Low birthweights * More likely to die before 5th birthday * Hearing problems in children * More likely to smoke * More likely to have physiological distress due to chronic medical conditions * Higher rates of mental health issues
500
-2 Sedation Assessment Tool (SAT) verbal score description
few recognisable words
501
What are the common SSRI drugs?
fluoxetine (prozac) sertraline citalopram
502
Outline your treatment of a 2 year old presenting with shortening to right leg, swelling in thigh and bad nappy rash.
* Reassurance * ABC’s in tact * Check pedal pulse and mark location – future assessments * Advise mother of what’s going to occur * NAS fentanyl – 1.5mcg/kg * Clean nappy if available or dressing to groin * Traction * Transport * Notify triage of safety concerns
503
Describe the pathophysiology of aortic dissection during pregnancy
pregnancy hormones creating a hyperdynamic state in vasculature
504
What is the pathophysiology of epiglottitis?
Infection causing an inflammation of the lining of the cartilaginous tissue in the airway
505
How do you treat pregnant patients when it comes to analgesia?
same as non pregnant for analgesia – except for imminent delivery stage (as opioids can lead to resp depression when baby is born)
506
What are the manoeuvres designed to relieve shoulder dystocia?
Primary: * All fours position * McRoberts * Supra-pubic pressure Secondary: * Rubins II * Wood's screw * Reverse Woods screw * All fours running start
507
What is your initial management for a patient with a mild airway obstruction?
position and encourage patient's own effort to cough
508
What are some risk factors for suicide?
job loss/unemployment legal/financial problems stress serious/mental illness substance misuse relationships adverse childhood events bullying stigma associated with seeking help
509
What are the effects of a mild serotonin toxicity?
Mild - Moderate * Tremor * Hyperreflexia * Diaphoresis * Clonus
510
What are some protective factors for suicide risk?
* Future orientation * Engagement in help seeking behaviours * Coping and problem solving skills * Connections to friend, family and community supports * Availability of physical and mental health care * Limiting the access to lethal means
511
What are the cardiotoxicity/ECG changes of a TCA overdose?
* Hypotension * Prolonged PR and QRS interval * Prominent terminal R wave in aVR * Ventricular tachycardia
512
What are some important questions to ask to ascertain pertinent points of the maternal history for an imminent delivery pt?
* How many weeks gestation? * Singleton or multiparity? * Antenatal care up to date? * When was last antenatal visit? * Any complications with this pregnancy? * Any foetal movements today? * Any complications with previous pregnancy or delivery? * What was the gestation period for last pregnancy? * How long did the last delivery take? * Any postpartum haemorrhage * Gravidity and Parity * Last known position of foetus
513
What is your initial management of a pregnant patient with PV bleed and abdo pain?
Fresh pad – to monitor amount of bleeding IV access – to administer drugs IV morphine – 2.5mg, every 5 if required, max dose 20 mg – pain management Reassure mum and partner Rapid transport
514
What does Aspirin do?
stop platelets aggregating
515
What organs are in the Right Lumbar Region?
* ascending colon * small intestine * right kidney
516
How can you differentiate between syncope and seizure?
* Seizures have a post-ictal period where the patient can be drowsy, confused, have a headache and nauseous * Ask – muscular jerking, how long did it last for * Incontinence occurred
517
What are your priorities of management for a patient who has been sedated for ABD?
* maintain normothermia * capnography * Pads on – for monitoring * IV access – to administer medications * Transport
518
How does morphine produce analgesia?
binds with opioid receptors altering pain perception
519
Define the different types of delusions
* Grandiose delusions: the person believes they are very talented, rich or influential * Paranoid delusions: the person believes others want to harm them or are persecuting them * Somatic delusions: the person believes there is something wrong with a part of their body, or that part of them is missing * Reference delusions: the person believes other people's thoughts or actions are directed towards them, or that special messages are being sent to them via the TV or radio * Bizarre delusions: the person believes in something that is physically impossible * Delusional jealousy: the person believes their partner is being unfaithful, even when that's impossible * Misidentification syndrome: the person believes someone they know has been replaced by an imposter who looks identical to that person
520
+1 Sedation Assessment Tool (SAT) verbal score description
normal/talkative
521
Outline the maternal changes that occur during pregnancy.
* Respiration increases * HR increase as is responsible to maintain cardiac output * Normal ECG changes * Blood volume increases 30-40% * Vasodilation secondary to hormone release – increases cardiac output and decreased systemic vascular resistance * Clotting factor changes – more likely to clot – hypercoagulable state * Fluid retention * Urinary stasis – increasing risk of UTI * Reduction in sphincter tone
522
Why are rashes non-blanching?
* DIC – thrombosis – tiny blood clots preventing blood from displacement when pressure applied * Vessel damage or inflammation – vasculitis – inflamed and effecting ability to blanch under pressure
523
Define the pattern of pain for Biliary pain
right upper quadrant tender on palpation and may radiate to back and right shoulder. Intense pain lasting at least 30 minutes, reaching plateau within hour and will resolve with 6 hours.
524
What are the expected vital signs of a 8 year old?
Weight: 31kg HR: 70-120bpm RR: 15-25rpm SBP: 90-115mmHg
525
What are the main signs of epiglottitis?
sitting forward don't want to swallow drooling upper airway sounds
526
What class of drug is novorapid?
hyperglycaemic