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A320 > Crew Training Supplement > Flashcards

Crew Training Supplement Flashcards

1
Q

Standard takeoff minimums for the A320

A

Standard takeoff minimums for 2 engine aircraft are 1sm or 5,000 RVR

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2
Q

Are we allowed to operate with lower than standard takeoff minimums?
What provides authorization to do so?

A

Yes

Ops spec C056: IFR takeoff minimums, part 121 airplane operations

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3
Q

What are we allowed to reduce our takeoff minimums to?

A

Ops spec C078: IFR lower than standard takeoff minima
Lowest authorized takeoff RVR:
TDZ RVR 500
MID RVR 500
ROLLOUT RVR 500

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4
Q

What are the runway requirements when operating at RVR 500/500/500?

A

HIRL + CL

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5
Q

Is reported visibility or RVR for the takeoff runway controlling?

A

RVR reports, when available for a particular runway, shall be used for all takeoff operations on that runway.

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6
Q

If reported RVR is 500/400/500, are we allowed to takeoff?

If reported RVR is 500/inop/500, are we allowed to takeoff?

A

No

Yes

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7
Q

If RVR is more than 1,600 RVR:
The TDZ RVR if available is _______
The MID RVR may be substituted for ________

A

Controlling

An unavailable TDZ report

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8
Q

If RVR is less than 1,600 RVR:
A minimum of ___________ are required
All reporting _________

A

2 operative RVR’s

RVR’s are controlling

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9
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required?

A

If the current departure airport weather is lower than the landing minimums published for the airport

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10
Q

What is required to list an airport as a takeoff alternate?

A

Must be within 1 hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative

Must meet the criteria in ops spec C055 for filling as an alternate.

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11
Q

What is the weather requirement at our destination airport to dispatch?

A

Weather must be at or above the authorized minimums at the ETA

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12
Q

The main body of the TAF for our destination airport is reporting visibility at the ETA of 1/2 sm, however there is a TEMPO for 1/4 sm. Can we depart?

A

Yes, exemption 20118 can be applied

Requires a second alternate

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13
Q

The main body of the TAF for our destination airport is reporting visibility at the ETA of 1/4 sm. Can we depart?

A

No, the main body of the report is controlling

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14
Q

When is a destination alternate required (domestic)?

A

An alternate must be designated unless the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indicates that the visibility will be at least (3) miles with a ceiling of at least 2,000 feet for at least one (1) hour before and one (1) hour after the ETA at the destination airport.

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15
Q

When is a second alternate required to be on the release?

A

When exemption 20118 is used

When weather at the destination and first alternate is marginal.

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16
Q

How is marginal weather defined?

A

A ceiling of less than 500 feet above DA(H) or MDA(H) or

A visibility of less than 1/2 mile above the lowest operational approach minimum

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17
Q

How do you determine that the alternate listed on the release is legal?

A

Reference ops spec C055: alternative airport IFR weather minimums

We use the 1 navaid/2 navaid rule to derive alternate weather minimums

1 navaid: for airports with at least 1 operational navigational facility providing a straight in NPA, or category 1 precision approach, or, when applicable, a circling maneuver from an IAP
•add 400 ft to MDA(H) or DA(H), as applicable
•add 1 sm to the landing minimum

2 navaid: for airports with at least 2 operational navigational facilities, each providing a straight in approach procedure to a different suitable runway
•add 200 ft to higher of the DA(H) or MDA(H) of the 2 approaches used
•add 1/2 sm to the higher authorized landing minimum of the 2 approaches used.

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18
Q

Would we use a different method to determine if the takeoff alternate or second alternate weather is legal?

A

No. An alternate is an alternate. We always reference C055.

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19
Q

Can we apply exemption 20118 to a destination or second alternate?

A

Yes

First alternate: the main body of the TAF must forecast a ceiling and visibility at the ETA equal to or greater than the C055 derived alternate weather minimum ceiling and visibility. A conditional statement must not forecast a ceiling or visibility, at the first alternate ETA, that is less than half of the derived alternate weather minimum ceiling or visibility

Second alternate: forecast must indicate in the main body and conditionals that the forecast ceiling and visibility, at the second alternate ETA, will be at or above the C055 derived alternate weather minimum ceiling and visibility

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20
Q

With 2 alternates listed on the release, what is the required minimum fuel (domestic)?

A

Fuel at the time of takeoff:
•fly to and land at the airport the flight was dispatched or released, and then
•fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport, and then
•fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising consumption

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21
Q

You are planning for an ILS with published minimums of 1/2 sm-1800 RVR. Prevailing visibility is 3/4 sm and TDZ RVR for that runway is 1600 RVR. Can you start the final approach segment? Can you continue if inside the FAF?

A

No, whenever the RVR is reported for a particular runway, it becomes the controlling visibility measurement for operations on the runway

Yes, if inside the FAF the weather is reported below minimums you can continue the approach.

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22
Q

Which RVR report(s) is controlling for approach and landing?

A

Reference C052

TDZ reports, when available for a particular runway, are controlling for all approaches and landings for that specific runway. The MID RVR and ROLLOUT RVR reports (if available) provide advisory information to the pilots

Note: the MID RVR report may be substituted for the TDZ RVR report in the event TDZ RVR report is not available

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23
Q

If you are flying an NPA what do you enter in the MCDU PERF approach page for minimums?

A

DDA: Derived Decision Altitude

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24
Q

How is DDA determined for an RNAV (GPS) approach?

A

DDA is derived by adding 50 ft to the appropriate LNAV MDA(H)

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25
Q

Why don’t we use LPV or LNAV/VNAV minimums?

A

Reference C052

The certificate holder may not use DA(H) unless paragraph C073 is authorized. C073 is not authorized.

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26
Q

What is required when flying an ILS approach with a report of 1800 RVR if the runway does not have operative TDZ lights or RCL lights?

A

Reference C052
Must be equipped FD or AP
Required to use the FD or AP during the approach to DA

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27
Q

If you are flying an RNAV (GPS) approach and lose “GPS primary” inside the FAF, can you continue the approach?

A

No. The approach must be discontinued

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28
Q

If you are flying a VOR approach and lose “GPS primary” inside the FAF, can you continue the approach?

A

Yes. Raw data is required to be displayed and monitored during the approach. If flight remains within required tolerances for the approach, then the approach can be continued.

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29
Q

What are the minimum HAA stabilization altitudes based on meteorological conditions?

A

Meteorological conditions HAA:

Less than or equal to 1,500 ft ceiling and 5 sm visibility: 1,000 ft

Greater than 1,500 ft ceiling and 5 sm visibility: 500 ft
(1,600 ft and 6 sm)

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30
Q

What are the elements of a stabilized approach?

A

An approach is considered stabilized only if all of the following elements are achieved before or upon reaching the applicable stabilization height:

•the aircraft is in correct lateral and vertical flight path (based on navaid guidance or visual references)
•only small changes in heading and pitch are required to maintain this flight path
•the aircraft is in the desired landing configuration
•the thrust is stabilized, usually above idle, to maintain the target approach speed along the desired final approach path
•the landing checklist has been accomplished as well as any specific briefing

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31
Q

What is the proper action if the minimum stabilization height is not met?

A

If the aircraft is not stabilized on the approach path in landing configuration at the minimum stabilization height, a go around must be initiated unless the crew estimates that only small corrections are necessary to rectify minor deviations from stabilized conditions due to external disturbances.

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32
Q

When do captain high minimums apply?

A

High minimums apply to captains who have less than 100 hours PIC under part 121 in the aircraft type being operated.

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33
Q

What are you required to add to weather minimums at your destination as a high minimums captain?

A

100 ft and 1/2 sm

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34
Q

Do high minimums captain requirements apply to the alternate?

A

No. The published minimums apply or 300-1, whichever is higher.

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35
Q

What are the notification requirements for a low time pilot? High minimums captain?

A

At the beginning of each duty period, each pilot must contact dispatch if he has not accrued:
•75 hours of line operating flight time as PIC/SIC, with Allegiant, on type.
•Captains: 100 hours as PIC, with Allegiant, on type.

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36
Q

Describe the green on green pairing limitation.

A

The PIC or SIC must have 75 hours of line operating flight time, either as PIC or SIC in aircraft type.

Note: this pairing limitation does not apply to a new captain who has greater than 75 hours of line operating flight time in type as FO.

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37
Q

Explain what is required for consolidation of knowledge and skills.

A

PIC and SIC crew members must accrue at least 100 hours of line operating flight time to complete consolidation

Must be completed 120 days from the completion of type ride or PC

If the requirement has been met as an SIC then it is not required at upgrade.

Includes credit for OE

Can be extended for 30 days

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38
Q

What are the limitations on FO’s with less than 100 hours time in type?

A

The CA must make all takeoffs/landings if:

At a special airport
Visibility is at or below 3/4 sm (4,000 RVR)
Contaminated runway (braking action less than good)
Crosswind greater than 15 kts
Suspected/reported windshear
Captain’s discretion

CA may allow FO to manipulate the controls in all phases of flight, if before takeoff, the CA conducts a pre takeoff briefing to review each crew member’s duties

FO’s are responsible for ensuring the CA is notified when they have not completed consolidation

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39
Q

When is an aircraft security search required to be completed?

A

Prior to beginning of each calendar day

If aircraft is left unsecured/unattended

Prior to each departure to/from an international destination (Canada is the exception)

When there is reasonable cause due to breach of security or a specific threat

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40
Q

What is the standard Allegiant clearance from thunderstorms above FL230?

A

20 nm

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41
Q

What briefing will the CA give the LFA in an emergency situation?

A

Red or yellow emergency
T-E-S-T briefing (for red emergencies)
T: type of emergency expected
E: evacuation type and probability
S: signals to be used for bracing/evacuation
T: time available

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42
Q

In an abnormal/emergency situation after the aircraft is stopped on the runway, what are the 2 commands the CA shall use to communicate to the passengers and FA’s?

A

“This is the Captain, remain seated” or

“Standby, standby, standby”

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43
Q

What is cost index?

A

0 = maximum range
99 = minimum time
The relationship between time and fuel related costs to minimize trip costs.

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44
Q

When is an RVSM check required? Fuel check?

A

Per SOP enroute: RVSM and fuel awareness checks are required hourly.

In addition to the hourly RVSM check, an altimeter check is required prior to entering RVSM airspace. This is accomplished at transition altitude.

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45
Q

How do you determine that the TLR is valid?

A

POAT: OAT is no less than POAT -10C.

PQNH: QNH is no less than 0.10 below PQNH.

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46
Q

Where do we reference the engine failure takeoff procedure?

A

Standard: ACARS runway section of the TLR

Simple Special: special ENG fail takeoff procedures section of the TLR

Complex Special: company tab on the JEPP FD PRO application or the A320 ADPH.

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47
Q

If a turn/heading is denoted in the takeoff section of the TLR, when would you be required to start the turn if you lost an engine prior to EO acceleration?

A

Standard procedure turns are commenced at 1,000 AFE, in IMC/VMC conditions

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48
Q

Do we have to comply with simple special procedures? Complex special procedures?

A

Simple special in IMC: until 3,000 AFE unless assigned a radar vector at a lower altitude

Simple special in VMC: until 1,000 AFE

Complex special: mandatory in IMC and VMC

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49
Q

ACARS is deferred. If you are issued a runway change, can the TLR be used to make the runway change?

A

Yes (assumes a valid TLR)

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50
Q

Minimum landing distance is determined by assessed runway conditions. How is this information (assessed runway conditions) distributed?

A

FICON NOTAM

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51
Q

What information is included in the FICON NOTAM?

A

Runway condition code (RCC), contaminant type, depth, and percentage of coverage.

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52
Q

How is coverage reported?

A

Provided in 1/3 runway intervals when the runway is more than 25% contamination level.

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53
Q

Based on FICON NOTAM DATA, how do we determine the impact the conditions will have on our landing performance?

A

Reference the RCAM runway condition assessment matrix

Refer to RCAM minimum landing distance in the TLR for planning prior to departure

Enter the field condition and expected braking action into the ATSU or use inflight performance in the QRH when enroute.

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54
Q

If RCC was 5/6/6, how would you calculate landing distance?

A

Use the lowest value (5/good)

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55
Q

What is minimum factored landing distance?

A

Landing distance including a 15% safety margin and an air run from a 50 ft threshold crossing height.

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56
Q

What landing requirements must be met in order to dispatch?

A

Must be able to land and stop within 60% of the effective length of the runway to be used

An additional 15% is added for a wet runway

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57
Q

Is it possible to meet dispatch requirements yet have a factored minimum landing distance (based on expected braking action) greater than the landing distance available? Can you depart?

A

Dispatch is permitted if:

There is reasonable expectation that the braking action will improve to the point that the minimum landing distance required will be less than the landing distance available at ETA

The PIC and dispatcher conduct a briefing and agree what braking action will be required before landing

A performance alternate is added to the dispatch release

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58
Q

What is the requirement to list an airport as a performance alternate?

A

Minimum landing distance must be less than the landing distance available.

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59
Q

Can we reference the RCAM MIN-LDG distance in the TLR to determine landing distance?

A

No. It’s for planning purposes only

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60
Q

How do we determine minimum landing distance once airborne?

A

Obtain up to date FICON NOTAM information on ATIS

With ATSU: enter field condition, expected braking action, and select thrust reverser option to obtain minimum required landing distance. Min required distance on LDG data report includes 15% safety margin and an air run from 50 ft above threshold

Without ATSU: use airbus flysmart application on iPad

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61
Q

We have 3 different colored placards. When do we use the yellow, orange and white placards?

A

M351: white placard is used for crew deferrals, or contract MX

M352: orange placard is used for repetitive action items

M353: yellow placard is the standard placard

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62
Q

What is a class 2 maintenance message?

A

Maintenance status messages displayed on the status page that indicate minor system faults

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63
Q

When are class 2 maintenance messages displayed?

A

On the ground when power is applied

After engine shutdown

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64
Q

Where are class 2 maintenance messages displayed?

A

Lower right side of status page

Will be indicated by flashing STS on E/WD after engine shutdown

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65
Q

What is our procedure for addressing class 2 maintenance messages?

A

Advise dispatch/MOC of the class 2 maintenance message. The crew is required to make a logbook entry and apply the appropriate MEL related to the class 2 message.

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66
Q

What is the difference between an MEL and a CDL?

A

MEL addresses INOP equipment/component.

CDL addresses missing equipment/component.

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67
Q

When would a category L (120 day interval) repair category be applied?

A

CDL/RVSM: administrative control item.

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68
Q

What does an (M) in the remarks/exceptions section denote?

A

Maintenance action is required

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69
Q

Can the crew perform an (M) action?

A

When Y is denoted in the CP column and under the supervision of maintenance

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70
Q

Can the crew perform an (O) action?

A

(O) actions are normally performed by the crew

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71
Q

What does an (R) in the remarks/exceptions denote?

A

Repetitive action is required

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72
Q

What is the repetitive action interval?

A

Prior to each departure

Once each flight day

Prior to the first flight of the day

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73
Q

What is a mechanical irregularity? What must be done for any mechanical irregularity?

A

A mechanical irregularity exists if an aircraft system, instrument, component or part is broken, damaged, inoperative, or not serving the purpose for which it was designed

All mechanical irregularities must be entered into the M300 as a discrepancy or a successful reset (info only)
The PIC is responsible to ensure all mechanical irregularities observed by the flight crew are entered into the M300
The PIC is responsible to ensure all mechanical irregularities are reported to maintenance control (through dispatch) prior to any subsequent takeoff.

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74
Q

After making an entry in the M300, is it sufficient to contact local maintenance to report the write up?

A

NO. The PIC is responsible to ensure all mechanical irregularities are reported to maintenance control (through dispatch) prior to any subsequent takeoff. Contacting local or line maintenance DOES NOT satisfy this requirement.

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75
Q

Where can the flight crew find approved reset procedures?

A

Aircraft specific approved reset procedures are contained in respective aircraft operating manuals and quick reference handbooks
EQRH: ABN - [RESET] SYSTEM RESET
FCOM PRO-ABN-ABN-RESET

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76
Q

If a flight crew performs a successful system reset per the QRH system reset table, what must be done?

A

Unless otherwise required by an approved reset procedure, mechanical irregularities that are successfully reset to a normal operating condition via an approved reset procedure must be entered into the successful reset (info only) block of the M300

Reset successful (info only) block entries must contain the system or component reset, the procedure action used to affect the reset, and a statement indicating that the system or component was restored to a normal operating condition. For example, “F/CTL SEC 2 FAULT, performed ECAM actions, reset successful”

Maintenance control (via dispatch) must be contacted for all successful reset (info only) block entries. Maintenance control will review the reset history of the system or component to determine whether multiple resets have occurred. Mechanical irregularities that require multiple resets must be entered as an M300 discrepancy.

Successful reset (info only) block entries do not require and will not have a corresponding corrective action block entry

The following reset successful (info only) block information must also be completed: type of reset, originator employee number

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77
Q

If a mechanical irregularity reoccurs after a successful reset of the same component on the same flight segment or on the previous flight segment (including preflight) what must be done?

A

The fault must be entered in the discrepancy block of the M300

A discrepancy block entry requires an appropriate corrective action block entry prior to takeoff.

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78
Q

If an ECAM message appears (and is successfully reset) during transfer from ground power to APU power, is a M300 entry required?

A

Unless otherwise required by an approved reset procedure, faults obviously associated with an electrical power transfer that can be successfully reset to a normal operating condition are not considered to be a mechanical irregularity

Power transfer faults successfully reset on sequential flights are not considered multiple resets.

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79
Q

If an ECAM message appears momentarily and then self corrects, is a M300 entry required?

A

Transient (momentary and self correcting) faults are not considered mechanical irregularities unless the transient abnormality occurs often enough to prevent the system from serving the purpose for which it was designed or results in the flight crew performing a rejected takeoff.

Transient faults on sequential flights are not considered multiple resets

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80
Q

What is the wingspan of an A320 with sharklets? Without sharklets?

A

117’5”

111’10”

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81
Q

With a minimum turn radius, will the tail and wing clear what the nose clears?

A

No

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82
Q

What is the minimum theoretical pavement width for a 180 degree turn?

A

75 ft

(100ft company recommended)

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83
Q

Which valves will receive a close command when the DITCHING push button is depressed?

A

(ARPO)

Avionics inlet and extract valves
Ram air inlet
Pack flow control valves
Outflow valve (only if in auto mode)
FWD cargo outlet isolation valve

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84
Q

Will the ditching push button always close the outflow valve?

A

Not if the outflow valve is under manual control

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85
Q

Can the pilot control the outflow valve?

A

Yes. Select MAN on the MODE SEL and use the MAN V/S CTL switch.

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86
Q

How many CPC’s (cabin pressure controllers) are in the pressurization system?!

A
  1. Only one is used at a time and they swap roles after each landing.
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87
Q

How do you manually switch CPC’s?

A

Switch MODE SEL to MAN for 10 seconds, then back to AUTO.

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88
Q

What does an amber fault light in the MODE SEL push button indicate?

A

Both automatic pressure controllers are faulty

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89
Q

From what source does the pressurization system normally obtain landing elevation?

A

FMGC database

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90
Q

If the FMGC does not supply the landing elevation, how do you set the landing elevation?

A

Manually by selecting landing elevation via the LDG ELEV knob

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91
Q

What protects the airframe from excessive cabin differential pressure?

A

2 pressure relief valves (safety valves)

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92
Q

How many outflow valve motors are installed?

A

3 total. One for each CPC, and one for manual control.

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93
Q

How would a pilot manually control the pressurization?

A

By selecting MAN on the MODE SEL push button and utilizing the MAN V/S CTL toggle switch

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94
Q

What flow rate is automatically selected when APU bleed air is in use or during single pack operation?

A

HI

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95
Q

If the engine bleed air pressure in flight is too low, what will occur?

A

Engine speed is automatically increased to provide adequate bleed air pressure.

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96
Q

What would cause the amber fault light to illuminate in the pack 1 and/or pack 2 pushbutton?

A

(OOD)
Overheat - pack outlet
Overheat- compressor outlet
Discontinuity- switch position disagreement with pack flow control valve.

Note: FAULT light will be illuminated when no bleed air is supplied

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97
Q

At what cabin differential pressure does the RAM AIR valve open?

A

1 psi ^p or less

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98
Q

What causes the pack flow control valve to automatically close?

A

Upstream pressure below minimum
Pack overheat
Engine start sequence
Engine FIRE pushbutton on the related side pressed
DITCHING pushbutton pressed

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99
Q

What does an amber FAULT light in the HOT AIR pushbutton indicate?

A

Duct overheat - the Hot Air and Trim Air valves close automatically

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100
Q

How many air conditioning system controllers are there and how many lanes do they have?

A

2 air conditioning system controllers

Each air conditioning system controller has 2 lanes (active/standby)

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101
Q

Describe how the air conditioning system controllers regulate temperature

A

Basic temperature regulation: both packs produce the required outlet temperature determined by the lowest demanded zone temperature

Optimized temperature regulation: hot air is added to the individual zones by the trim air valves to maintain the desired zone temperature

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102
Q

What occurs when an active lane of an air conditioning system controller fails?

A

The second lane takes over

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103
Q

What occurs when both lanes of an air conditioning system controller (ACSC) fail?

A

The related pack is lost. The hot air pressure regulating valve and associated trim air valve(s) close

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104
Q

How does the air conditioning system controller configure its associated pack ram air inlet flap for takeoff and landing to avoid the ingestion of foreign matter?

A

Takeoff: pack ram air inlet flap closes when takeoff power is set and the main landing gear struts are compressed. Reopens after main landing gear strut extension

Landing: pack ram air inlet flap closes as soon as the main landing gear struts are compressed and speed is greater than or equal to 70 knots. Opens 20 seconds after speed is less than 70 knots

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105
Q

If an air cycle machine (ACM) fails, what occurs?

A

The affected pack will operate as a heat exchanger

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106
Q

What effect will the engine start sequence have on the pack flow control valves?

A

The pack flow control valve will close automatically

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107
Q

What does the CARGO HEAT HOT AIR amber fault light indicate?

A

Duct overheat

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108
Q

What is the purpose of the cabin fans?

A

To recirculate cabin air to the mixing chamber and then back to the cabin

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109
Q

With BLOWER and EXTRACT pushbuttons in AUTO, how does the system operate?

A

Ground - system is normally in the OPEN configuration

Flight - system is normally in the closed configuration

Intermediate- closed configuration except small internal flap in extract valve is open.

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110
Q

With both BLOWER and EXTRACT pushbuttons in OVRD (smoke configuration) what are the positions of the INLET and EXTRACT valves?

A

INLET valve CLOSED
EXTRACT valve OPEN

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111
Q

What is the status of the blower and extract fans with the blower and extract valves in OVRD?

A

BLOWER fan OFF
EXTRACT fan ON

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112
Q

When is air conditioning introduced into the avionics compartment?

A

Abnormal operation
SMOKE configuration

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113
Q

Is the skin heat exchanger ever bypassed in flight?

A

Yes, during SMOKE configuration

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114
Q

What does an amber fault light on the blower pushbutton indicate?

A

SMOKE warning is activated
Computer power supply failure
Low blower pressure
Duct overheat

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115
Q

What does an amber fault light on the extract pushbutton indicate?

A

SMOKE warning is activated
Computer power supply failure
Low extract pressure

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116
Q

With 2 fault lights on the ventilation panel, are there any other indications?

A

Yes. The SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE pushbutton

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117
Q

What are the main components of the FMGS?

A

2 FMGC’s
2 MCDU’s
1 FCU (two independent channels)
2 FAC’s

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118
Q

What are the functions of the flight management guidance computers?

A

Flight guidance
Flight management

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119
Q

What are the 3 modes of FMGC operation?

A

Independent (MCDU scratchpad displays- INDEPENDENT OPERATION)

Single (ND displays - SELECT OFFSIDE RING/MODE)

Dual (normal)

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120
Q

What are the 2 modes of flight guidance?

A

Managed guidance
Selected guidance

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121
Q

What is the managed mode of flight guidance used for?

A

Long term lateral, vertical and speed profiles as determined by the FMGS

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122
Q

What is the selected mode of flight guidance used for?

A

Temporary lateral, vertical and speed commands as selected with the FCU

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123
Q

Does selected or managed guidance have priority?

A

Selected guidance always has priority

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124
Q

How do you determine the validity of the navigation database?

A

On the aircraft status page via the MCDU

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125
Q

What input does each FMGC use for position determination?

A

A hybrid IRS/GPS position

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126
Q

How does autopilot selection influence master FMGS logic?

A

If one autopilot is engaged, the respective FMGS is master

If both autopilots are engaged, FMGS 1 will be the master

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127
Q

If an amber SELECT OFFSIDE RING/MODE message is displayed on the ND, what action should the crew take?

A

An FMGS has failed and both ND’s must be set to the same mode and range (single mode)

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128
Q

Can both autopilots be engaged during any phase of flight?

A

No, only during an ILS approach

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129
Q

What is the difference between the large and small fonts utilized in the MCDU?

A

Large - pilot entries and modifiable data

Small - default/ computed non-modifiable data

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130
Q

Where do you enter the ZFW?

A

INIT B page (not accessible after engine start)

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131
Q

What do amber box prompts on the MCDU indicate?

A

An entry is mandatory

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132
Q

What occurs when managed NAV mode is engaged and the aircraft flies into a flight plan discontinuity?

A

NAV mode will be lost and the HDG/TRK mode engaged

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133
Q

What is the function of the Flight Control Unit?

A

Permits short term interface between the pilot and the FMGS

Allows temporary modification of any flight parameter (HDG, SPD, ALT, V/S)

Used to select operational modes of the autopilots, flight directors, and A/THR system.

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134
Q

What do dashes in the FCU display windows along with the adjacent white dot indicate?

A

FMGS managed guidance is in use

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135
Q

How is selected guidance engaged?

A

Pull the appropriate selector knob

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136
Q

How do you confirm all autopilot, FD, and A/THR inputs?

A

Confirm all mode inputs by reference to the flight mode annunciator (FMA)

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137
Q

Will the FCU altitude window ever display dashes?

A

No. Pilot selected altitude will always be displayed.

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138
Q

What does each column mean on the PFD?

A

a/thr|vert|lat|approach|ap,fd,a/thr

A/THR
VERTICAL
LATERAL
APPROACH CAPABILITY, DH/MDA
AP, FD, A/THR ENGAGEMENT STATUS

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139
Q

How is the crew made aware of mode changes on the FMA?

A

A white box is temporarily displayed around the new indication (10-15 seconds)

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140
Q

How are armed modes displayed on the FMA?

A

Blue - armed

Magenta- armed because of a constraint

Green - engaged

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141
Q

When is the side stick position indication icon (white cross) displayed?

A

Displayed when the first engine is started

Disappears at liftoff

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142
Q

What would the large red arrowheads indicate?

A

Pitch attitude of greater than 30 degrees

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143
Q

What is the meaning of USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM?

A

You are in direct law

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144
Q

What is the meaning of MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY?

A

You are in mechanical backup

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145
Q

What are the pitch and roll angle limits indicated by the green = signs?

A

Pitch +30/-15

Roll 67

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146
Q

How can you determine you are in alternate law?

A

Amber X’s replace the green = marks at the pitch and bank limits

Only VLS and VSW is displayed on the airspeed scale.

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147
Q

When would the side slip index change from yellow to blue?

A

In case of an engine failure during takeoff/go-around, it is now a blue beta target.

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148
Q

What does the yellow speed trend line on the airspeed display indicate?

A

The speed the aircraft will reach in 10 seconds if acceleration/deceleration remains constant

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149
Q

What is the difference between the magenta and blue target airspeeds?

A

Magenta - managed speed computed by the FMGC

Blue - selected speed on the FCU

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150
Q

What speed does Vmax represent and how is it displayed?

A

It is the lowest of Vmo/Mmo, Vle, or Vfe

Defined by the bottom of a red and black strip along the speed scale

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151
Q

What is Vls?

A

Represents the lowest selectable speed providing an appropriate margin to the stall speed

Corresponds to 1.13 Vs during takeoff

Corresponds to 1.23 Vs after retraction of one step of flaps

Corresponds to 1.28 Vs in clean configuration

Above 20,000ft, Vls is corrected for Mach effect to maintain a buffet margin of 0.2G

In approach mode is equivalent to Vref

Increases with speedbrake extension

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152
Q

What is green dot speed?

A

Engine out operating speed in clean configuration

Appears when the aircraft is in the clean configuration

Corresponds to the best lift to drag ratio.

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153
Q

What is ground speed mini?

A

Based on a calculated groundspeed at the runway

Protects against actual groundspeed dropping below this calculated groundspeed

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154
Q

What does it mean when you see the magenta triangle on the PFD speed tape above the FMGC computed or entered Vapp during an approach?

A

Ground speed mini has increased speed due to a higher headwind component at your present location than what was calculated at the runway.

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155
Q

Is the groundspeed mini function available in selected speed?

A

No, managed speed only

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156
Q

What are three ways to disconnect the A/THR?

A

Instinctive disconnect buttons

Thrust levers to idle

A/THR pushbutton

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157
Q

How do you disconnect the A/THR for the remainder of the flight?

A

Press and hold the instinctive disconnect pushbutton for 15 seconds

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158
Q

What would you lose if you held down the instinctive disconnect pushbutton for more than 15 seconds?

A

Alpha floor protection

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159
Q

What happens to thrust, and what annunciates on the FMA when you reach alpha floor?

A

Thrust- TOGA

FMA - A.FLOOR

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160
Q

What occurs during alpha floor protection after the A.FLOOR conditions are no longer applicable.

A

FMA changes to TOGA LK
(On some software standards the mode reverts to the mode that was active prior to the engagement of A.FLOOR)

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161
Q

How do you regain normal A/THR when in TOGA LK?

A

Move thrust levers to the TOGA detent

Press the instinctive disconnect button

Return thrust levers to the CL detent

Push the A/THR pushbutton to engage A/THR

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162
Q

When is alpha floor protection active?

A

From liftoff through 100 feet RA on approach

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163
Q

When would thrust lock occur?

A

Thrust levers in CL detent and A/THR pushbutton on the FCU is pushed, or

A/THR disconnects due to a failure

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164
Q

How would the flight crew command an evacuation?

A

Make a PA announcement: “This is the Captain, EVACUATE, EVACUATE, EVACUATE”

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165
Q

When is the RCDR normally on in AUTO?

A

On the ground, for 5 minutes after electrical power is supplied to the aircraft

When at least one engine is operating

Stops 5 minutes after the last engine is shut down

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166
Q

How do you record the flight attendant PA’s?

A

ACP 3 PA volume knob out and set volume at or above medium range

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167
Q

How do you call a mechanic stationed on the outside of the aircraft?

A

Momentarily depress the MECH pushbutton. A blue light on the EXT PWR PANEL will illuminate and an external horn will sound.

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168
Q

How do you make a normal call to the flight attendants?

A

Press the FWD or AFT call button (this sounds one high/low chime in the cabin)

Listen and transmit on CAB

The flight attendants can only pick up a cabin phone at the station called

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169
Q

What happens when the flight attendants initiate an emergency call?

A

The white EMER ON light and amber CALL lights flash

The amber ATT lights flash on the ACP’s

3 long buzzers sound in the cockpit (inhibited during critical phases of flight)

System resets when the attendant hangs up the relevant system

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170
Q

What is the AUDIO SWITCHING PANEL used for?

A

Allows for switching to ACP 3 if ACP 1 or 2 fails.

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171
Q

How are the communications radios controlled?

A

From any one of 3 RMPs

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172
Q

Which RMP is powered in the emergency electrical configuration?

A

RMP 1

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173
Q

Which communication radio is powered in the emergency electrical configuration?

A

VHF 1 and HF 1 (if installed)

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174
Q

What would cause the SEL indicator to illuminate on both RMP’s?

A

When a communication radio normally associated with one RMP is tuned by another RMP

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175
Q

If the NAV key is selected on either RMP, can the FMGC still auto tune navaids?

A

No. RMP now controls the VOR/ILS receivers

NAV key on RMP 3 has no effect

Normal radio communication is still available

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176
Q

What methods would the crew utilize to make a PA announcement?

A

Pressing the PA switch on the ACP and using the boom, hand, or mask microphone, or

The flight deck handset dedicated to the PA system only

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177
Q

What does the illumination of the CALL light on the VHF transmission keys indicate?

A

The SELCAL system detects a call

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178
Q

What buses are powered by the emergency generator?

A

AC ESS and AC ESS SHED

DC ESS and DC ESS SHED

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179
Q

What is the function of the RAT & EMER GEN pushbutton?

A

AUTO - RAT will automatically extend if AC BUS 1&2 are not powered and airspeed is greater than 100 knots

MAN - extend the RAT at any time

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180
Q

How long does it take the RAT to extend and provide power?

A

8 seconds (3 seconds for RAT extension, 5 seconds to pressurize the blue hydraulic system and power the EMER GEN)

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181
Q

What does the red FAULT light on the RAT & EMER GEN pushbutton indicate?

A

Loss of power to AC Bus 1 + AC Bus 2 and the emergency generator is not supplying power

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182
Q

What powers the emergency generator?

A

Blue hydraulic power from the RAT

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183
Q

Is there another way to deploy the RAT?

A

Yes. RAT MAN ON from the HYD panel

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184
Q

What is different about deploying the RAT via the HYD panel?

A

Blue HYD pressure only - no emergency generator

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185
Q

What happens when you push the GEN 1 LINE pushbutton?

A

GEN 1 line contactor opens and the white OFF light illuminates

AC BUS 1 is powered by GEN 2 through the BUS TIE CONTACTOR

GEN 1 continues to power 1 fuel pump in each wing tank

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186
Q

When is the GEN 1 LINE pushbutton used?

A

During smoke procedures

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187
Q

When performing the preliminary cockpit preparation, what is the minimum battery voltage?

A

25.5 volts

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188
Q

What do you do if it’s below 25.5 volts?

A

Select BATT pushbuttons to ON with EXT PWR on aircraft. This starts the charging cycle (approximately 20 minutes required)

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189
Q

When performing the cockpit preparation, what are we looking for on the ELEC panel BAT check?

A

ECAM ELEC page - select

BAT 1 & 2 - OFF then ON

Check BATT current is less than 60 amps after 10 seconds and continues to decrease

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190
Q

Will the batteries completely drain if you leave the BAT switches in AUTO after AC power is removed on the ground?

A

No. Battery cutoff logic prevents complete discharge when the aircraft is on the ground and unpowered- 22VDC

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191
Q

How is the BATTERY BUS normally powered?

A

DC BUS 1 through a DC bus tie contactor

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192
Q

What does the amber FAULT light in the GALLEY pushbutton indicate?

A

At least 1 generator load is above 100% rated output

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193
Q

How does the GALLEY pushbutton work in AUTO?

A

Sheds main galley and in seat power supply if:

Only one generator (APU or Engine) is available in flight, or

Only one engine generator is available on the ground (all galleys are available when APU GEN or EXT PWR is supplying power)

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194
Q

What does a fault on the ENG GEN pushbutton indicate?

A

The generator line contactor is open because of a fault detected by the Generator Control Unit (GCU) which could include:

Overload
Over/Under voltage
Differential fault (short) , and/or
The generator line contactor is open

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195
Q

What does the APU GEN fault light indicate?

A

The generator line contactor is open because of a fault detected by the GCU

196
Q

When is the APU GEN fault light inhibited?

A

APU speed too low

Line contactor OPEN after EXT PWR or ENG GEN takes over

197
Q

What is the function of the BUS TIE in the AUTO position?

A

Allows the bust tie contactors to open and close automatically to maintain power to both AC BUS 1&2

Allows a single source to power the entire system

Allows connection of the APU GEN or EXT PWR to the system

Inhibits multiple sources to connect simultaneously

198
Q

What does and IDG fault light indicate?

A

Oil pressure low (inhibited when N2 is less than 14%)

Oil outlet temperature overheat

Light is inhibited when IDG is disconnected

HOTLOP-
High
Oil
Temperature
Low
Oil
Pressure

199
Q

What precautions must you take when disconnecting an IDG?

A

Do not disconnect when the engine is not operating or windmilling

Do not hold the button down longer than 3 seconds

200
Q

How can an IDG be reset?

A

On the ground by maintenance

201
Q

What is the function of the AC ESS FEED pushbutton in the normal position?

A

Allows AC BUS 1 to power the AC ESS BUS

202
Q

How is AC ESS FEED transferred from AC BUS 1 to AC BUS 2?

A

Manually by selecting ALTN on the AC ESS FEED pushbutton or automatically if AC BUS 1 is lost and the switch is in the normal position

203
Q

What does the AC ESS FEED pushbutton white ALTN light indicate?

A

AC BUS 2 is powering the AC ESS BUS

204
Q

What is the purpose of the static inverter?

A

To provide AC power to the AC ESS bus from the battery when the EMG GEN is not online when in the emergency electrical configuration

205
Q

What are the three times the batteries are connected to the battery bus?

A

APU start

Battery charging

AC BUS 1&2 not powered and airspeed below 100 knots

206
Q

What is the priority sequence for electrical power?

A

(GEARB)

G - Generators - Engine
E - EXT PWR (manually selected)
A - APU Generator
R - RAT Emergency Generator
B - Batteries

207
Q

With the APU green AVAIL light ON and the EXT PWR blue ON light illuminated, which system is powering the aircraft?

A

EXT PWR

208
Q

What is the significance of the green and red collared circuit breakers on the flight deck?

A

Green - monitored by ECAM

Red - wing tip brake C/B

Black - not monitored by ECAM

Yellow - cb’s to be pulled in emergency electrical configuration on batteries only

209
Q

Can we use the aircraft electrical outlets in the flight deck?

A

Only if it’s placarded “EFB Compatible “

210
Q

What are the color codes associated with indications and pushbuttons?

A

Warnings-
Red - A failure requiring immediate action

Cautions -
Amber - A failure. The flight crew should be aware, but does not call for immediate action

Indications -
Green - normal system operation
Blue - normal operation of a system used temporarily
White - abnormal pushbutton position, or a test result, or maintenance information

211
Q

What does the amber smoke light in the GEN 1 LINE pushbutton indicate?

A

Smoke detected in the avionics ventilation ducting

212
Q

Will there be any indications when the smoke light illuminates on the GEN 1 LINE pushbutton?

A

ECAM warning and amber fault lights in the EXTRACT and BLOWER pushbuttons on the ventilation panel

213
Q

Where are the engine fire loops installed?

A

Pylon nacelle
Engine core
Fan section

214
Q

What happens if both fire loops fail?

A

If the failure of both loops occurs within 5 seconds of each other, a FIRE warning will be issued

215
Q

What does an amber DISCH light mean?

A

The fire extinguisher bottle has lost it’s pressure

216
Q

How many fire extinguishers are provided for each engine?

A

2

217
Q

List the actions that occur when an ENGINE FIRE pushbutton is pressed

A

2 - silences the aural fire warning and arms the fire extinguisher squibs
1 - closes the hydraulic fire shutoff valve
2 - closes the low pressure fuel valve and the IDG fuel return valve
1 - deactivates the IDG (FADEC power supply also deactivated)
2 - closes the pack flow control and engine bleed valves

218
Q

What occurs when you press the TEST pushbutton on the ENGINE FIRE panel?

A

7 lights:
CRC sounds
MASTER WARNING lights flash (2)
ENG FIRE pb illuminates red (1)
SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate (2)
ECAM FIRE WARNING (1)
FIRE light on the ENG panel illuminates (1)

219
Q

How many fire extinguishers are provided for the APU?

A

1

220
Q

Does the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge if a fire is detected in flight?

A

No

221
Q

List the actions that occur when the APU FIRE pushbutton is pressed

A

2 - silences the aural fire warning and arms the APU fire extinguisher squib
1 - shuts down the APU (ECB)
2 - closes the low pressure fuel valve and shuts off the APU fuel pump
1 - deactivates the APU generator
2 - closes the APU bleed and cross bleed valves

222
Q

What occurs when you press the APU FIRE TEST pushbutton?

A

CRC sounds
5 lights:
MASTER WARN lights flash (2)
APU FIRE pb illuminates red (1)
SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate (1)
ECAM FIRE WARNING (1)

223
Q

Does the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge if a fire is detected on the ground?

A

Yes. The APU will automatically shut down and the APU fire extinguisher will discharge

224
Q

How many fire extinguishers are provided for the cargo compartments?

A

1 bottle, which can be discharged to either compartment (some aircraft have 2 bottles)

225
Q

What does the red SMOKE light in the FWD or AFT pushbutton indicate?

A

Both channels detect smoke, or

One channel is faulty and the other detects smoke

226
Q

How many smoke detectors are there?

A

2 forward cargo
4 aft cargo

227
Q

With a CARGO SMOKE warning, what happens to the isolation valve and extract fan?

A

Isolation valve closes

Extract fan stops

228
Q

What does ELAC stand for?

A

Elevator Aileron Computer

229
Q

How many ELAC’s are installed?

A

2

230
Q

What are the functions of the ELAC?

A

Normal elevator and stabilizer control
Normal aileron control
Normal pitch and roll
Alternate pitch
Direct pitch and roll
Abnormal attitude
Aileron droop
Acquisition of autopilot orders

231
Q

Under normal law, what does ELAC 1 control?

A

Primary - aileron control (roll)
Standby - elevator/trimmable horizontal stabilizer control (backs up ELAC 2)

232
Q

Under normal law, what does ELAC 2 control?

A

Primary - elevator/stabilizer (pitch)

Standby - aileron control (backs up ELAC 1)

233
Q

What does SEC stand for?

A

Spoiler Elevator Computer

234
Q

How many SEC’s are installed?

A

3

235
Q

What functions are performed by the SEC’s?

A

Normal roll (by controlling the spoilers)
Speed brakes and ground spoilers (SEC 1&3 only)
Alternate pitch (SEC 1&2 only)
Direct pitch (SEC 1&2)
Direct roll
Abnormal attitude

236
Q

Under normal law, what do the 3 SEC’s control?

A

Primary - spoiler control (roll)
Standby - elevator/stabilizer control (SEC 1&2 back up the ELAC’s)

237
Q

What is the sole purpose of SEC 3 in normal law?

A

Spoiler control (spoilers 1&2 only)

238
Q

What does FAC stand for?

A

Flight Augmentation Computer

239
Q

How many FAC’s are installed?

A

2

240
Q

What are the functions of the FAC’s?

A

Normal roll (turn coordination and yaw damping)
Rudder trim
Rudder travel limit
Alternate yaw

241
Q

In normal law, what do the FAC’s provide?

A

(YAWL)

Yaw control- damping and turn coordination, rudder limiter, rudder trim

Airspeed protection computation (alpha protection, high/low limits, maneuvering speed, PFD speed scale)

Windshear protection (reactive and not predictive)

Low energy warning protection (speed, speed, speed)

242
Q

Is full rudder deflection available during all flight regimes?

A

No. Rudder deflection is limited as a function of airspeed

243
Q

How are the flight control surfaces controlled and actuated?

A

All surfaces are controlled electrically and actuated hydraulically

244
Q

When is automatic pitch trim available?

A

In flight under normal law with bank angle less than 33 degrees with or without autopilot engaged

245
Q

How is roll control normally achieved?

A

1 aileron and 4 spoilers on each wing

246
Q

If both FAC’s fail, is maximum rudder deflection available?

A

Yes, after slat extension

247
Q

How is the THS normally operated in flight?

A

The ELAC’s (primary) and SEC’s (secondary) control trim functions automatically

248
Q

If no hydraulic power is available, can the THS be positioned?

A

No - the THS requires hydraulic power from the green or yellow systems

249
Q

If a complete flight control computer failure occurs, can the THS be positioned?

A

Yes. Mechanical trimming is possible by manually positioning the pitch trim wheel.

250
Q

Can you move the pitch trim wheel if all systems are working normally?

A

Manual inputs have priority over computer inputs. The autopilot will disconnect.

251
Q

What happens to the THS when the aircraft enters into ground mode?

A

The trim automatically resets to zero (inside the green band)

252
Q

What does the red arrow in the SIDE STICK PRIORITY light mean?

A

It illustrates in front of the pilot losing authority

253
Q

How would you regain control if you had just lost sidestick authority?

A

The last pilot to press the sidestick pushbutton will have authority. An aural “priority left” or “priority right” will sound

254
Q

What do flashing green CAPT and FO SIDESTICK PRIORITY lights indicate?

A

Both sidesticks have been moved simultaneously and neither pilot has taken priority

255
Q

What happens when both pilots make an input simultaneously on the sidesticks?

A

The inputs are algebraically summed up to the normal limits

An aural “dual input” will sound

Green CAPT and FO lights will illuminate

256
Q

With only green hydraulic system pressure available, will both the flaps and slats operate?

A

Yes, at a slower speed

257
Q

What system prevents flap or slat asymmetry?

A

Wing tip brakes (WTB)

258
Q

What causes the wing tip brakes to activate?

A

(ROAM)

Runaway (move handle to 1, all go to 3)
Overspeed (flap jack screw breaks)
Asymmetry (both on one side move farther)
Movement (never touch handle, all just move)

259
Q

If the wing tip brakes activate due to a flap asymmetry, can the slats still operate?

A

Yes, only flap operation is inhibited

260
Q

How many slat/flap control computers (SFCC) are installed?

A

2

261
Q

What would occur if one SFCC failed?

A

The slats and flaps would continue to operate, but at half speed.

262
Q

What flap/slat configurations correspond to position 1 on the flaps lever and how do they differ?

A

CONF 1+F is used for takeoff and provides both slats (position 1) + flaps

CONF 1 is used in flight and is slats only

263
Q

When will the automatic retraction system (ARS) operate?

A

During acceleration in CONF 1+F, the flaps (not slats) will automatically retract to 0 at 210 knots

264
Q

What is alpha lock?

A

This function inhibits retracting slats from 1 to 0 at a high angle of attack or low airspeed

265
Q

When the flap legend appears in blue on the upper ECAM display, what is indicated?

A

Flaps/slats in transit

266
Q

What happens to the ailerons when the flaps are extended?

A

The ailerons droop 5 degrees

267
Q

Is there any landing configuration when speed brake extension is inhibited?

A

Flaps FULL

268
Q

When do the ground spoilers automatically extend?

A

Partial - when reverse thrust is selected on at least one engine with the other at idle and one main landing gear strut is compressed

Full - at touchdown of both main gears, or in case of RTO with airspeed above 72 knots, when both thrust levers at idle (if ground spoilers armed) or when reverse thrust is selected on at least one engine with the other thrust lever at idle (if the ground spoilers are not armed)

269
Q

At touchdown with reverse selected and only one landing gear strut compressed, will the ground spoilers extend?

A

Partially - full extension is limited until both main gear struts are compressed

270
Q

When will the ground spoilers automatically retract?

A

When at least one thrust lever is advanced above IDLE

271
Q

In flight, what happens if a spoiler fault is detected or electrical power is lost?

A

The spoiler automatically retracts

272
Q

When is speedbrake extension inhibited?

A

(SAFET)
SEC 1 and 3 have failed
AOA protection is active
Flaps FULL
Elevator (L or R) fault (only spoilers 3 and 4 are inhibited)
Thrust levers above the MCT position

273
Q

What is the difference between the A319 and A320 regarding speed brake usage with the AP on?

A

With the A319 you get full spoiler deflection and with the A320 you only get partial spoiler deflection

274
Q

What happens if you turn the rudder trim with the autopilot engaged?

A

Nothing

275
Q

Does the rudder RESET button work with the autopilot engaged?

A

No

276
Q

How does the high speed protection operate?

A

If Vmo/Mmo plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the system induces a pitch up input to limit aircraft speed

277
Q

Can the pilot override the auto pitch up associated with high speed protection in normal law?

A

No

278
Q

What is alpha max?

A

The maximum AOA allowed in normal law, indicated by the top of the red strip on the airspeed scale

279
Q

How does high AOA protection operate?

A

When the AOA exceeds alpha protection, pitch trim ceases and AOA is now proportional to sidestick deflection, not to exceed alpha max even with full aft sidestick deflection

280
Q

What protection do you have in alternate law?

A

Load factor

High speed stability (nose up command) but can be overridden

Low speed stability (nose down command) but can be overridden

281
Q

Can you override the high speed stability in alternate law?

A

Yes

282
Q

What protections do you have in direct law?

A

None

283
Q

If you are in pitch alternate law, what law would roll be in?

A

Direct law

284
Q

When is there a direct relationship between sidestick and flight control surface deflection?

A

When in normal law, ground mode

When in direct law

When below 50 ft in flare mode (pitch only)

285
Q

How would you get into abnormal attitude law?

A

By exceeding approximately double the normal law limits

286
Q

What is the purpose of abnormal attitude law?

A

Allows the aircraft to be recovered from an unusual attitude

287
Q

After recovery from an unusual attitude, what law will you be in?

A

When aircraft returns within normal flight envelope, the abnormal attitude law disengaged and aircraft remains in alternate law with reduced protection for the remainder of the flight

288
Q

What PFD indications indicate normal law?

A

Green = for pitch, bank, and overspeed limits

Amber/black (alpha protection) airspeed tape

289
Q

What is indicated if the PFD pitch and bank limits are amber X’s?

A

You are not in normal law

290
Q

What would cause you to revert to another law?

A

Multiple failures of redundant systems

291
Q

What law are you in when you perform the flight control check on the ground?

A

Normal law, ground mode

292
Q

Can the aircraft be flown with a loss of all flight control computers?

A

Yes, in mechanical backup

293
Q

How is the airplane controlled in mechanical backup?

A

Pitch - trim wheel (horizontal stabilizer)

Yaw - rudder pedals (rudder)

Speed - thrust levers

294
Q

What is the normal in flight fuel management scheme?

A

Use center tanks first, then the wing tanks

295
Q

How many fuel pumps are installed?

A

2 in each wing tank

1 APU pump to provide fuel to the APU when the left wing/center tank pumps are off

2 in center tank

2 center tank transfer jet pumps (only on tail N246NV through N257NV, N276NV)

296
Q

With full fuel, when do the center tank fuel pumps operate?

A

For 2 minutes after BOTH engines are started (if slats are retracted, pumps will continue to operate)

After slat retraction

Continue to run for 5 minutes until the center tank is empty or slats are extended

297
Q

What will cause a FUEL MODE SEL FAULT light?

A

Center tank contains more than 550 pounds and either main tank has less than 11,000 pounds

298
Q

When do the main tank outer cells drain into the inner tanks?

A

When the inner tank quantity reaches 1,650 pounds

299
Q

If only one inner tank reaches 1,650 pounds, what happens to the other transfer valve?

A

All four transfer valves open

300
Q

Once opened to transfer fuel, how are the fuel transfer valves closed?

A

Automatically at the next refueling operation

301
Q

How is the IDG cooled?

A

By fuel from the HP fuel pump drawn in from the fuel manifold and then returned to its respective outer tank. When full, the outer tank spills over to the inner tank.

302
Q

If the IDG return fuel fills the wing tanks, what occurs?

A

The center tank pumps turn off until the wing tank quantity reduces by 1,100 pounds

303
Q

What does an amber fault light in the fuel pump pushbutton indicate?

A

Low fuel delivery pressure

304
Q

Can fuel be transferred from one tank to another?

A

Only during ground refueling

305
Q

Why are the outer wing tanks drained last?

A

Structural wing bending moment relief

306
Q

When does the APU fuel pump run?

A

When the wing or center tank pumps are off or when the aircraft is on battery power only

307
Q

What does the REFUEL message on the ECAM indicate?

A

The refueling control panel door is not closed

308
Q

What does an amber boxed ECAM FOB indicate?

A

Some fuel is unusable

309
Q

What controls the flow of fuel from the center tank to the inner tanks on aircraft that have jet pumps?

A

The Fuel Level Sensing Control Unit (FLSCU)

310
Q

Can the aircraft be flown with a loss of all hydraulic systems?

A

No - you must have at least one

311
Q

What occurs when you press the RAT MAN ON pushbutton?

A

The RAT extends providing pressure to the blue hydraulic system

312
Q

Does the PTU transfer hydraulic fluid?

A

No

313
Q

How many hydraulic pumps are in the green system?

A

1 engine
1 PTU

314
Q

How many hydraulic pumps are in the blue system?

A

1 electric
1 RAT

315
Q

How many hydraulic pumps are in the yellow system?

A

1 engine
1 electric
1 PTU
1 hand pump

316
Q

When does the BLUE ELEC PUMP operate?

A

After the first engine is started

If the BLUE PUMP OVRD pushbutton on the maintenance panel has been pressed with no engine running

317
Q

What is normal system hydraulic pressure?

A

3,000 +- 200 psi

318
Q

Does the RAT automatically deploy with the loss of blue hydraulic pressure?

A

No, it must be deployed manually by the RAT MAN ON pushbutton

319
Q

If the ACCU PRESS indicator is low and an external walkaround is to be completed, what should you do?

A

Obtain ground clearance, then turn on the YELLOW ELEC PUMP to pressurize the accumulator

320
Q

What condition will cause the PTU to operate when the pushbutton is in auto?

A

A difference of 500 psi between green and yellow hydraulic systems

321
Q

Can the YELLOW ELEC PUMP run the PTU?

A

Yes

322
Q

When is the PTU inhibited?

A

PTU pushbutton OFF
First engine start
Parking brake is set and only one ENG MASTER switch is ON
NWS in towing position and parking brake is released
Cargo door operation (PTU is also inhibited for 40 seconds after the end of cargo door operation)

323
Q

If the ECAM actions lead you to turn off the PTU for a reservoir overheat, will the fault light go out?

A

No, not until the overheat subsides

324
Q

If the fault light in the PTU pushbutton is ON, are there any other indications on the HYD panel?

A

Yes - FAULT light illuminated in the respective ENG PUMP pushbutton

325
Q

Name several items that run from only the green system

A

Landing gear
Normal brakes
Slats and flaps
Engine 1 reverser

326
Q

Name several items that run from only the yellow system

A

Nosewheel steering
Alternate brakes
Parking brake
Cargo doors
Engine 2 reverser

327
Q

List several items that are powered by the blue system

A

Slats
Emergency generator

328
Q

What does a fault light in the PTU pushbutton indicate?

A

(OLL)

Overtemp in reservoir
Low air pressure in the reservoir
Low quantity in the reservoir

329
Q

What does an amber fault light in the ENG PUMP pushbutton indicate?

A

POLL

Pump pressure low
Overtemp in reservoir
Low air pressure in the reservoir
Low quantity in the reservoir

330
Q

What does a fault light in the blue or yellow electric pump pushbutton indicate?

A

POLLO

Pump pressure low
Overtemp in reservoir
Low air pressure in the reservoir
Low quantity in the reservoir
Overheat of pump

331
Q

What is the function of the hydraulic priority valves?

A

Hydraulic power to the flaps, slats, landing gear, and emergency generator is cut off if pressure drops below a predetermined value (high demand items)

332
Q

What is the purpose of the hand pump?

A

To provide yellow hydraulic pressure for cargo door operation

333
Q

When is engine anti-ice required?

A

When OAT (ground)/ TAT (flight) is 10c or below with visible moisture present (except during climb and cruise when the temperature is below-40c SAT)

Prior to and during descent in icing conditions (including temperatures below-40c SAT)

334
Q

What does a fault light in the ENG ANTI ICE pushbutton indicate?

A

Switch/anti-ice valve disagreement

335
Q

With ENG ANTI ICE ON what indications will you see?

A

Blue ENG ANTI ICE light ON
ECAM: ENG ANTI ICE
N1 limit is reduced (amber tick on N1 indicator)
N1 idle is increased

336
Q

With engine anti-ice on, is your descent affected?

A

Yes, because idle thrust is increased

337
Q

What happens if you turn the WING ANTI ICE switch on the ground?

A

The wing anti-ice valves will open for a 30 second test

338
Q

What part of the wing is heated?

A

Outboard 3 slats

339
Q

When do the wing anti-ice valves automatically close?

A

On landing
Bleed leak detected
Loss of electrical power

340
Q

What does the amber fault light in the wing anti-ice pushbutton indicate?

A

Switch/anti-ice valve disagreement
Low pressure is detected

341
Q

In what position do the wing and engine anti-ice valves fail if electrical power is lost?

A

Wing - valves CLOSE
Engine - valves OPEN

342
Q

On the ground, with the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton in auto, when are the probe and TAT heaters activated?

A

LOW with at least one engine running (except the TAT probe - not heated on the ground)

NORMAL is automatically set after takeoff

343
Q

What does the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton do?

A

Manually activates the probe, drain mast, and window heaters

344
Q

When does the digital flight data recorder (DFDR) operate?

A

On the ground, for 5 minutes after electrical power is supplied to the aircraft

When at least one engine is operating

Continuously in flight, whether or not the engines are operating

Stops 5 minutes after the last engine is shut down

345
Q

What is the purpose of the DFDR EVENT pushbutton?

A

Briefly pressing this button sets an event mark on the flight data recorder

346
Q

What would be indicated if the altitude window changed from yellow to amber?

A

The aircraft has deviated from the FCU selected altitude or flight level by 250 feet

347
Q

When is altitude alerting automatically inhibited in flight?

A

When slats are extended with the landing gear selected down

On approach after glideslope capture

When the landing gear is locked down

348
Q

What does it mean when the altitude digits change from green to amber?

A

The aircraft has descended below the MDA/DH entered into the FMGC

349
Q

When is radio height displayed on the PFD?

A

Below 2,500 feet AGL

350
Q

What would a flashing amber ILS indicate on the bottom of the PFD?

A

Flashes amber when APPR mode is armed and the LS display is not selected

351
Q

Information from ILS receiver 1 is displayed where?

A

Captain’s PFD
FO’s ND

352
Q

Top of descent and continue descent arrows are displayed in blue or white. What is the difference?

A

Top of descent - always white (never armed)

Continue descent - blue indicates armed, white indicates not armed

353
Q

What color does each altitude constraint circle represent?

A

White - constraint is not taken into account

Magenta - constraint is predicted to be satisfied

Amber - constraint is predicted to be missed

354
Q

If mode range data fails, what should you expect to see on the ND?

A

ROSE NAV mode at 80 nm range

355
Q

What are the 3 levels of ECAM failure mode notifications?

A

Level 1 - Alert:
Associated with amber E/WD message, no aural signal, and requires crew monitoring

Level 2 - CAUTION
Associated with the amber MASTER CAUT light, single chime, and require crew awareness

Level 3 - WARNING
Associated with the red MASTER WARN light, CRC, and require immediate action

356
Q

If simultaneous failures occur, how will they be presented to the crew?

A

A level 3 warning has priority over a level 2 caution which has priority over a level 1 alert.

357
Q

What types of failures are presented to the crew?

A

Independent - failure affecting an isolated system/item without degrading other systems/items

Primary - failure of a system/item that affects the use of other systems/items

Secondary - loss of a system/item resulting from a primary failure

358
Q

What indication does the E/WD provide for secondary failures?

A

Secondary failures are displayed on the lower right portion of the E/WD and are preceded by an *

359
Q

What does the appearance of a green arrow indicate at the bottom of the E/WD screen indicate?

A

Information has overflowed off the screen and the pilot must scroll down using the CLR pushbutton on the ECAM panel

360
Q

What does the display of T.O. INHIBIT or LDG INHIBIT indicate?

A

Most warnings and cautions are inhibited to avoid unnecessary distractions during critical phases of flight

361
Q

When does the takeoff memo appear?

A

2 minutes after the second engine is started or when the T.O. CONFIG TEST pushbutton is pressed with one engine running

Takeoff memo is removed when takeoff power is applied

362
Q

When does the landing memo appear?

A

Below 2,000 feet RA

Memo disappears after touchdown (80 knots)

Displays at 800 feet if you never climbed above 2,000 feet RA

363
Q

In general, when are the system pages automatically displayed on the SD?

A

Relative to the current phase of flight, or

When a system malfunction is detected

364
Q

When is a status page displayed?

A

After a failure is displayed on the SD and all failure items have been cleared

STATUS will reappear when the slats are extended

365
Q

What computers feed data to the six display units?

A

3 Display Management Computers (DMC)

366
Q

What does each of the DMC’s normally supply?

A

DMC 1 - captain PFD, ND, upper ECAM DU, lower DU

DMC 2 - FO PFD, ND

DMC 3 - Backup

367
Q

How can you tell if a DMC has failed?

A

“INVALID DATA” will be displayed in the respective EFIS/ECAM display units

368
Q

What happens when the upper ECAM display fails?

A

The E/WD automatically replaces the SD on the lower ECAM display

369
Q

If both the E/WD and SD display units fail, how can you display E/WD information?

A

Select the ECAM/ND switch to the CAPT or FO to transfer the E/WD to either ND

370
Q

With the E/WD displayed on the lower screen, how else can you view SD information?

A

Press and hold the appropriate system button on the ECAM control panel that you wish to view

371
Q

What does the ALL pushbutton do?

A

Displays all the system pages successively in 1 second intervals when held down

Release the pushbutton to maintain display of the selected page

372
Q

What does pressing the RCL pushbutton do?

A

Allows you to recall any warning or caution messages that the activation of the CLR pushbutton or flight phase inhibition may have suppressed

If held longer than 3 seconds, the E/WD will show any caution messages suppressed by the EMER CANC pushbutton

373
Q

If you press the STS pushbutton and the system has no STATUS messages, what will be displayed?

A

“NORMAL” for 5 seconds

374
Q

If power fails to the ECAM CONTROL panel, which buttons are still functional?

A

EMER CANC
ALL
CLR
STS
RCL

Or SCARE
STS
CLR
ALL
RCL
EMER CANC

375
Q

What does the EMER CANC do?

A

Cancels the current level 1 or 2 warning for the remainder of the flight

Cancels the current level 3 warning for that occurrence

376
Q

What do you look for on the PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION quantity check?

A

ENG - oil quantity above 9.5 quarts + 0.5 quarts per planned flight hours

HYD - hydraulic quantity indexes in normal filling range box (normal range + one half the normal range)

DOOR - oxygen pressure- if half boxed in amber, check the MIN FLT CREW OXY CHART

377
Q

What occurs when the T.O. CONFIG pushbutton is pressed?

A

The system simulates the application of takeoff power and checks certain systems for proper configuration

A warning is displayed if any system is not configured properly

“TO CONFIG NORMAL” is displayed in the TO MEMO section if the configuration is correct

378
Q

What is the function of the two landing gear control and interface units (LGCIU)?

A

Provide sequencing, operation, monitoring, and indications for the landing gear

Provide aircraft “in flight” or “on the ground” signals to other aircraft systems

379
Q

When does the red arrow in the LND panel illuminate?

A

Below 750 feet RA, when the aircraft is in the landing configuration and the landing gear is not locked down

380
Q

What happens if your airspeed is 280 knots and you place the landing gear lever down?

A

Nothing - a safety valve shuts off hydraulic power to the landing gear system when airspeed is above 260 knots

381
Q

What do the red UNLK lights indicate?

A

The landing gear is not locked in the selected position

382
Q

What controls and manages all braking functions?

A

Normal brakes - braking steering control unit (BSCU)

Alternate brakes - alternate braking control unit (ABCU)

383
Q

What happens when you switch the A/SKID & NW STRG to OFF?

A

Nosewheel steering deactivated

Brake pressure is supplied by the yellow hydraulic system

Anti-skid is deactivated

BSCU and ABCU are depowered

A 1,000 psi pressure limiting valve helps prevent wheel lock up

384
Q

Which hydraulic systems provide pressure to the brakes?

A

Normal brakes - Green

Alternate brakes - Yellow backed up by a hydraulic accumulator

385
Q

What are the four modes of braking?

A

Normal braking

Alternate braking with anti-skid

Alternate braking without anti-skid (max brake pressure 1,000 psi)

Parking brake

386
Q

When do the auto brakes activate on landing if armed?

A

When the ground spoilers deploy

387
Q

What is the difference between LOW and MED auto brakes?

A

LOW - progressive pressure applied to brakes 4 seconds after ground spoilers deploy to decelerate at 5.6 FPS

MED - progressive pressure applied to brakes 2 seconds after ground spoilers deploy to decelerate at 9.8 FPS

388
Q

What does the AUTO BRK green DECEL light indicate?

A

Actual rate of deceleration is within 80% of the selected rate

389
Q

What is the takeoff setting for auto brakes?

A

MAX

390
Q

What will cause the MAX AUTO BRK to activate on an RTO?

A

Airspeed above 72 knots, and
Thrust levers at IDLE, and
Ground spoiler extension

391
Q

If you lose green hydraulic pressure, will you have auto brakes?

A

No, not with the alternate brake system

392
Q

Is anti-skid available with alternate brakes?

A

Yes, if certain conditions are met

393
Q

With spoilers not armed, will the spoilers deploy for an RTO?

A

Yes - when at least one engine is in reverse

394
Q

How many brake applications are available with accumulator pressure?

A

Approximately 7 full applications of brake pedals or parking brake or any combination thereof

395
Q

What does the BRAKES & ACCU PRESS triple indicator indicate?

A

Yellow hydraulic pressure delivered to the left and right brakes

Yellow system brake accumulator pressure

396
Q

When brake accumulator pressure is low, how is it recharged?

A

With the yellow hydraulic system electric pump

397
Q

How do you verify the parking brake is set?

A

ECAM PARKING BRK memo

Triple indicator brake pressure

398
Q

If the parking brake is activated and no yellow hydraulic or accumulator pressure is available, do you still have available braking?

A

Yes, via the brake pedals, but you must have green hydraulic pressure

399
Q

What 3 things occur when you turn the gravity gear extension hand crank?

A

Removes green hydraulic pressure
Opens gear doors
Releases the uplocks

400
Q

How many turns of the gravity gear extension hand crank does it take to lower the gear manually?

A

3 clock-wise turns

401
Q

What hydraulic system supplies nosewheel steering?

A

Yellow

402
Q

The steering hand wheels can steer the nosewheel up to how much in each direction?

A

+- 75 degrees

403
Q

When using the rudder pedals for steering, when does the steering angle begin to reduce?

A

Starts reduction at 40 knots and progressively reduces to zero degrees at 130 knots

404
Q

If RWY TURN OFF is selected to ON and the NOSE is selected to TAXI or T.O., which lights automatically extinguish after takeoff?

A

The NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights extinguish when the landing gear is retracted

405
Q

Are the NAV 1 and 2 positions connected to a single bulb?

A

No, they are separate bulbs

406
Q

When do the strobes flash in auto?

A

When the main landing gear strut is not compressed

407
Q

What signs illuminate when you turn the NO SMOKING or NO PED switch to ON?

A

No smoking or no personal electronic device

EXIT signs

408
Q

What lights illuminate when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to ON?

A

Proximity emergency escape path marking system

Overhead emergency lighting

EXIT signs

409
Q

What lights illuminate when the normal aircraft electrical power fails?

A

Floor proximity emergency escape path marking system

Overhead emergency lighting

EXIT signs

410
Q

What occurs when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to OFF?

A

All lights OFF

Amber EMER EXIT LT OFF light illuminates

411
Q

What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical power is lost?

A

Captain’s instrument panel (2 places)

Right dome light (provided DOME switch set in DIM or BRT)

Standby compass

412
Q

What does the ON BAT light indicate?

A

It is illuminated amber if one or more IR(s) is supplied by the aircraft battery. Also illuminates briefly during the beginning of a full alignment.

413
Q

How long will each ADIRU stay on battery power?

A

ADIRS 2 and 3 will remain on battery power for 5 minutes to hold alignment until a generator can be restored. ADIRU 1 (ADIRU 3 if captain selected ATT HDG CAPT 3) will remain on battery power until generator power is restored or battery #2 fails.

414
Q

What information is provided by the IR units?

A

(FATHAAG)

Flight path vector
Airplane position
Track
Heading
Attitude
Acceleration
Ground speed

415
Q

What information is provided by the ADR units?

A

BOATS

Barometric altitude
Overspeed warnings
AOA
Temperatures
Speed/Mach

416
Q

What does a steady white ALIGN light indicate (older panel with keypad)?

A

The respective IR is in the align mode

417
Q

How does the ADIRS panel indicate that an IR is in ALIGN mode?

A

Before any engine is started (displayed on E/WD):
IR IN ALIGN ___ MN memo appears in green when at least one active IRS is being aligned

When one engine is started (displayed on E/WD):
IR IN ALIGN ___ MN memo appears in amber during IRS alignment
IR NOT ALIGNED is displayed as an ECAM caution message if the alignment of one IRS is faulty
IR IN ATT ALIGN appears in green during the IR alignment in attitude mode

418
Q

What does a flashing white align light mean (older panel with keypad)?

A

There are three reasons that the white align lights will flash:

There is no current position
The position is incorrect
The aircraft moved during alignment

419
Q

How is the crew alerted to the FMGS having no current position, an incorrect position or if the aircraft has moved during the alignment?

A

IR IN ALIGN X MN memo pulses in green on the E/WD

420
Q

How do you fast align an IR?

A

Select each ADIRS selector OFF and then back to NAV (one at a time) within 5 seconds

421
Q

What does the IR pushbutton do on the newer ADIRS panel?

A

Inertial data output of the respective IR is disconnected

422
Q

What does steady illumination of the amber IR FAULT light indicate?

A

A fault affects the respective IR

423
Q

What does flashing illumination of the amber IR FAULT light indicate?

A

Attitude and heading may be recovered in ATT mode (you have lost the navigation portion)

424
Q

What does the amber ADR FAULT light indicate?

A

A fault is detected in the air data reference portion

425
Q

Does turning the IR mode rotary switch to OFF also turn off the ADR?

A

Yes

426
Q

Can you turn the ADR off and still have the IR?

A

Yes

427
Q

When is a full alignment required of the ADIRU required?

A

Full alignment of the IRS is required:
Before the first flight of the day, or
When there is a crew change or
When the GPS is not available and the NAVAIDS coverage is poor on the expected route, or
When the GPS is not available and the expected flight time is more than 3 hours
When any portion of the flight is conducted in Class II Navigation

428
Q

Describe the process for a full alignment of the ADIRS when the flaps are not retracted?

A

If the flaps are not retracted, the flight crew should not set all ADIRS to OFF at the same time

In order to perform the alignment with the flaps not retracted, set a single IR mode selector to OFF for more than 5 seconds, then set that IR mode selector to NAV. Repeat this for each remaining IR mode selection switch

429
Q

What would be missing on the captain’s PFD and ND if IR1 failed or was turned off?

A

Attitude and navigation information would be lost. ATT and HDG flags will be displayed on the PFD and MAP NOT AVAIL will be on the ND

430
Q

What action would recover the attitude and navigation information if IR1 failed or was turned off?

A

Selecting CAPT 3 on the EIS switching panel ATT/HDG selector

431
Q

What would restore the lost altitude and airspeed information if IR 1 failed or was turned off?

A

Selecting CAPT 3 on the EIS switching panel AIR DATA selector

432
Q

Pressing the SYS pushbutton does what?

A

Inhibits all EGPWS warnings except TERR system

433
Q

What does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pushbutton indicate on the GPWS panel?

A

Any failure of basic GPWS modes 1 through 5

434
Q

What does LDG FLAP 3 ON light indicate?

A

“Too Low Flaps” inhibited for a flap 3 landing

435
Q

When would you press the FLAP MODE pushbutton?

A

To avoid nuisance warnings when landing with the flaps less than 3

436
Q

If the TERR mode failed, does it affect the basic GPWS?

A

No

437
Q

How many transponders are installed?

A

2

438
Q

Does illumination of the ATC FAIL light indicate loss of all transponder capability?

A

No - only the selected transponder has failed

439
Q

What capabilities does the RADAR system have?

A

Weather avoidance
Turbulence detection
Terrain mapping
Predictive windshear detection

440
Q

What would prevent the weather display on the ND?

A

Mode selector in PLAN

TERR selected ON

441
Q

When is WX/TURB mode available?

A

At ranges of 40 nm or less

442
Q

Does predictive windshear detection work when the RADAR system is switched off?

A

Yes, if the windshear switch is in AUTO

443
Q

What is the scanned area of the predictive windshear detection feature?

A

Up to 5 nm ahead of the aircraft when the aircraft is below 1,500 feet AGL

444
Q

When are predictive windshear alerts inhibited?

A

When landing below 50 feet AGL

445
Q

How many RADAR systems are installed?

A

1

446
Q

What does the PASSENGER SYS ON light mean?

A

The signal to release the oxygen mask doors has been sent

447
Q

When do the masks automatically deploy?

A

When cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet

448
Q

How long does the PAX oxygen last?

A

About 13, 15, or up to 22 minutes (depending on oxygen generators installed)

449
Q

Where is oxygen stored for the crew?

A

In a single high-pressure cylinder

450
Q

What happens during the preflight when you push to extinguish the CREW SUPPLY OFF light?

A

It electrically opens a valve in the avionics bay to supply low-pressure crew oxygen

451
Q

What would you notice on the DOOR ECAM page if you set the CREW SUPPLY to ON?

A

The OXY would change from amber to green

452
Q

Will the crew oxygen mask microphone automatically be deactivated when the mask is stowed?

A

No, you must press the RESET slide switch

453
Q

The pneumatic system is monitored and controlled by?

A

2 Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMC)

454
Q

If one BMC fails, can the other take over?

A

Yes, they are interconnected. If BMC 1 fails:
APU and ENG 1 leak detection are not monitored
ECAM APU BLEED LEAK warning lost

455
Q

What does the amber fault light in the APU bleed pushbutton indicate?

A

Bleed leak (APU bleed valve closes)

456
Q

What causes the amber fault light on the ENG 1 BLEED and/or ENG 2 BLEED pushbutton?

A

(OOLD)
Overpressure- downstream of the bleed valve
Overheat
Leak - low pressure
Discontinuity - APU bleed valve open and engine bleed valve not closed or
Engine start with bleed valve not closed

457
Q

What are the two functions of the engine bleed valves?

A

Pressure regulation

Shut off valves

458
Q

What logic controls the X-Bleed valve when the X-Bleed switch is in AUTO?

A

When APU bleed valve is OPEN, the X-Bleed valve is open

When APU bleed valve is CLOSED, the X-Bleed valve is closed

X-Bleed also closes for wing, pylon, or APU duct leak (except during engine start)

459
Q

After engine start with the APU BLEED pushbutton ON, what source is supplying bleed air to the packs?

A

APU bleed

460
Q

What does the green AVAIL light on the APU START pushbutton indicate?

A

APU N is above 99.5% or 2 seconds after N reaches 95%

461
Q

With the APU green AVAIL light on, and the external power green AVAIL light on, which system is powering the aircraft?

A

APU

462
Q

What does an amber fault light in the APU MASTER SW pushbutton indicate?

A

The Electronic Control Box (ECB) commanded an auto shutdown of the APU?

463
Q

How long should you wait to push the APU START pushbutton after engaging the APU MASTER switch?

A

3 seconds

464
Q

What does an amber fault light in the APU BLEED pushbutton indicate?

A

An APU bleed leak

465
Q

What are the primary differences between an automatic and manual start?

A

Automatic start:
The FADEC provides full monitoring during start and will provide appropriate ECAM cautions and procedures to follow in the event of a start fault

Manual start:
The FADEC makes a passive survey of the engine during the start sequence and the flight crew is made aware of an abnormal start by a proper ECAM warning. The FADEC does not have the authority to abort the start and the flight crew has to interrupt the starting sequence. (Except if EGT limit is exceeded prior to 50% N2 on the ground)

466
Q

When would you use a manual start?

A

After aborting a start because of:
Engine stall
Engine EGT overlimit
Low start air pressure

When expecting a start abort because of:
Degraded bleed performance due to hot conditions or at high altitude airports.
An engine with a reduced EGT margin in hot conditions or at high altitude airports.
Marginal performance of the external pneumatic power group.

467
Q

What controls the engines in all operating regimes?

A

FADEC’s (Full Authority Digital Engine Controls)

468
Q

What functions does the FADEC control?

A

Fuel metering
Engine limits based on thrust lever angle
Start sequencing
Provides engine indications and thrust limit displays on the E/WD

469
Q

What redundancy does the FADEC have?

A

Dual channel redundancy - one channel is active while the other is standby

470
Q

When does continuous ignition automatically operate?

A

Engine flameout detection

Failure of the engine interface unit (EIU)

471
Q

How many igniters fire on manual or in-flight starts?

A

Both A and B

472
Q

What is the power source of the FADEC?

A

The system has its own alternator making it independent of the aircraft electrical system when N2 is above a set value

If this alternator fails, the FADEC automatically switches to aircraft electrical power

473
Q

When will the FADEC abort a start?

A

Hot start
Stalled start
No ignition

474
Q

If the FADEC detects a fault during automatic start, is any crew intervention required?

A

No. The FADEC will discontinue the start, clear the engine, and attempt a restart (if warranted) automatically

475
Q

When does the FADEC command a higher engine idle speed?

A

Bleed demands
Approach configuration
High engine or IDG temperatures

476
Q

What determines the maximum thrust the A/THR system will be able to command?

A

The position detent of the thrust lever

477
Q

What controls the engine LP fuel valves?

A

Engine MASTER switch

ENGINE FIRE pushbutton

478
Q

What does a fault light on the ENG panel indicate?

A

Auto start abort

Switch disagreement between HP valve and it’s commanded position

479
Q

Airbus golden rules for pilots

A

1 Fly, navigate and communicate:
In this order and with appropriate tasksharing

2 Use the appropriate level of automation at all times

3 Understand the FMA at all times

4 Take action if things do not go as expected

480
Q

Normal task sharing

A

PF:
Fly
Navigate

PM:
Monitor the flight path, the navigation and the aircraft systems
Communicate

481
Q

Abnormal task sharing

A

PF:
Fly
Navigate
Communicate after the initiation of:
•the ECAM actions, or
•a QRH procedure

PM:
Monitor the flight path, the navigation and the aircraft systems
Perform ECAM actions or apply QRH/OEB procedure

482
Q

Supplementary procedures

A

Read and do

Accomplished by FO or PM as applicable

Crews MUST be familiar with the supplemental procedure before commencing the read and do

483
Q

Emergency evacuation procedures

A

First Officer - Performs the checklist as a read and do from the back of the QRH

Captain - confirms and verbalizes the action

Each item read aloud as a
Challenge/Response/Response

The FO can select the engine masters off and push the FIRE pb, without any confirmation from the CA

As per abnormal task sharing, once the CA calls for the EMER EVAC procedure, the CA automatically assumes communication roles (ATC, PA, etc) and will perform them when the FO gets to those items during the procedure

484
Q

Automation removal

A

PF:
“Autopilot off”
“Flight directors off”
“Bird on”
“Set runway track”

Auto thrust off:
Thrust lever angle…match
Instinctive disconnect pbs…press

485
Q

Automation restoration

A

PF:
“Bird off”
“Flight directors on”
“Manage speed/Pull speed xxx”
“Mange Nav/Pull heading xxx”
“xxx Manage/xxx Pull” (altitude)

FMA…announce
Trajectory…follow FD’s

Auto thrust on
•A/THR pb…press
•Thrust levers…CLB or MCT detent

Auto pilot ON

486
Q

ECAM actions

A

First pilot who notices MASTER WARNING/MASTER CAUTION
master warning/master caution…reset
Announce…”Title of failure “

PF:
Announce…”ECAM actions”
(PF in charge of communications until all the ECAM actions have been completed)

PM performs ECAM actions/OEB, then requests “Clear (name of system)”

PF checks that ECAM actions are complete and then confirms, “Clear (name of system)

PM analyzes system display page and then requests,”Clear (name of system)”

PF confirms,”Clear (name of system)”

PM announces, “status”

PF “stop ECAM, checklists, resets”

PM performs normal checklists/resets

PF “continue ECAM”

PM reads Status - limitations, deferred procedures, infos, inop systems, and then requests,”Remove status?”

PF confirms,”Remove status”

PM “ECAM actions complete”

Increased fuel consumption…evaluate
WX and landing information…obtain
When requested by ECAM:
Landing distance procedure…apply, or
Landing performance…confirm

QRH (as required)
PF “QRH (name of appropriate procedure/checklist”

PM performs QRH checklist/summary and then announces,” (name of procedure/checklist) complete”

FCOM (time permitting)
PF “FCOM (system)”
PM performs FCOM checklist and then announces,”FCOM (system) complete”

Situation assessment (taking into account legal/safe):
Limitations/performance
Weather
Operational/commercial considerations
Joint PIC/dispatcher decision

Decision

Notify ATC
Notify dispatch/operations
Notify FA’s (red/yellow emergency)
Notify PAX PA

Approach preparation

A320 (6 decks)

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