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Limitations Flashcards

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1
Q

Flight maneuvering load acceleration limits

A

Clean configuration -1g to +2.5g
Other configurations 0 to +2g

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2
Q

Runway Slope

A

Runway slope (mean) +- 2%

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3
Q

Runway Altitude

A

9,200 ft or 14,100 ft

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4
Q

Nominal Runway Width

A

Nominal runway width 148 ft (45m)
Minimal runway width 100ft (30m)

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5
Q

Maximum Demonstrated Crosswind
(Takeoff and Landing)

A

38 kt (gust included)

Note: Airbus recommends that operators should not intentionally operate in crosswinds that exceed this value.

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6
Q

Maximum Tailwind for Takeoff

A

10 kt

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7
Q

Maximum Tailwind for Landing

A

10 kt

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8
Q

Passenger and Cargo doors operation

A

Max wind for passenger door operation 65 kt
Max wind for FWD and AFT cargo door operation 40 kt
(Or 50 kt, if the aircraft nose is into the wind, or the FWD and AFT cargo doors are on the leeward side)
The FWD and AFT cargo doors must be closed before the wind speed exceeds 65kt.

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9
Q

Maximum recommended crosswind on wet and contaminated runways
(Not narrow runways)

A

Good/RCC 5 38 kt
Good to Medium/RCC 4 29 kt
Medium/RCC 3 25 kt
Medium to Poor/RCC 2 20 kt
Poor/RCC 1 15 kt

Note: recommended values based on computations.

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10
Q

Takeoff and Landing limitations on contaminated runways

A

Takeoff and Landing is not recommended on the following runway conditions:
-Water on top of compacted snow
-Dry snow or wet snow over ice

Takeoff and Landing is not permitted on the following runway condition:
-If the RCC is reported as 0-NIL

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11
Q

Runway surface conditions/
Related Landing Performance

A

Good/RCC 5
Damp
Wet (up to 3mm(1/8”) of water)
Slush (up to 3mm(1/8”))
Dry snow (up to 3mm(1/8”))
Wet snow (up to 3mm(1/8”))
Frost

Good to Medium/RCC 4
Compacted snow OAT at or below-15c

Medium/RCC 3
Dry snow 3mm-100mm(1/8” to 4”)
Wet snow 3mm-30mm (1/8” to 6/5”)
Compacted snow OAT above -15c
Dry snow over compacted snow
Wet snow over compacted snow
Slippery wet

Medium to Poor/RCC 2
Standing water 3mm-13mm (1/8”-1/2”)
Slush 3mm-13mm (1/8”-1/2”)

Poor/RCC 1
Ice (cold and dry)

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12
Q

Runway considered contaminated by rain

A

Smooth runway with moderate or heavy rain, or grooved runway with heavy rain and standing water greater than 1/8”.

Must use RCC 2

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13
Q

Cockpit window open maximum speed

A

200 kt

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14
Q

Maximum flaps/slats speeds

A

1 230kt
1+F 215kt
2 200kt
3 185kt
FULL 177kt

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15
Q

Maximum VMO/MMO

A

VMO 350kt
MMO M 0.82

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16
Q

VLE
VLO extension
VLO retraction

A

VLE 280kt/M 0.67
VLO extension 250kt/M 0.60
VLO retraction 220kt/M 0.54

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17
Q

Maximum tire speed

A

195 kt ground speed

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18
Q

Minimum control speed for landing
VMCL

A

VMCL all A320 113 kt
A319 108 or 111 kt

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19
Q

Rough air penetration speeds

A

VRA 0.76/275
VRA below 10,000 ft 250

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20
Q

Taxi speed
A320

A

When the takeoff weight is higher than 76,000 kg (167,550 lb):

Do not exceed 20 kt during a turn

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21
Q

Wipers maximum operating speed

A

230 kt

Note: This limitation is applicable when the wipers are sweeping. It is not applicable if the wipers are not sweeping for any reasons.

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22
Q

Takeoff weight limitation at KDCA for N231NV and N232NV

A

162,038 lb

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23
Q

With passengers on board, it is not recommended to exceed ______ without air conditioning supply. The lack of fresh air supply will significantly reduce the cabin’s air quality.

A

20 minutes

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24
Q

The flight crew must not use bleed air from the _______ and from the ______ at the same time, to prevent any adverse effect on the bleed air system.

A

APU BLEED
HP air start unit

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25
During ground operations, the flight crew must limit the time the aircraft electric power supply is used in normal avionics ventilation system configuration
OAT 49c or less No limitation 49c - 55c 2 hours 55c - 60c 1 hour 60c - 64c 0.5 hours
26
Maximum positive differential pressure
9.0 psi
27
Maximum negative differential pressure
-1.0 psi
28
Safety relief valve setting
8.6 psi
29
The flight crew must not use conditioned air from the _____ and from the _____ at the same time to prevent any adverse effect on the air conditioning system.
Packs LP air conditioning unit
30
Minimum autopilot engagement after takeoff
100 ft AGL or 5 seconds after liftoff
31
Minimum autopilot use on non-precision approach using FINAL APP, NAV FPA, NAV V/S, TRK FPA, HDG V/S
250 ft AGL
32
Minimum autopilot use on circling approach
500 ft AGL
33
Minimum autopilot use on ILS approach when CAT 1 is displayed on the FMA
160 ft AGL
34
Minimum autopilot use on ILS approach when CAT 1 with CAT 3 SINGLE/DUAL is displayed on the FMA
50 ft below DA
35
Minimum autopilot use after a manual go-around
100 ft AGL
36
Minimum autopilot use in all other phases
500 ft AGL The AP or FD in OP DES mode can be used in approach. However, it’s use is only permitted if the FCU selected altitude is set to, or above, the higher of the two: MDA/MDH or 500 ft AGL
37
FMGS lateral and vertical navigation is certified for:
-After takeoff, en route, and terminal area operations -Navigation within RNAV/RNP airspace -Instrument approach procedures (except ILS, LOC, LOC/BC, LDA and final approaches) -Missed approach procedures
38
Takeoff in GPS Primary: For certain airports, where the difference between the local coordinate system and WGS 84 (geodesic standard used by GPS, FMS) is not negligible, a map shift may occur after takeoff. The flight crew must ________ for takeoff from these airports, until ______.
Deselect the GPS A safe altitude is reached
39
Navigation performance The navigation accuracy depends on:
IRS drift, or One of the following: -radio navaid availability, or -elapsed time since last computation of radio navaid position.
40
RNP accuracy with GPS PRIMARY is
With AP on|AP off FD on|AP off FD off Enroute: 1nm. |1nm|1.1nm Terminal area:0.5nm|0.51nm|0.51nm Approach: 0.3nm|0.3nm
41
Degraded situation If GPS PRIMARY LOST is displayed on the ND and MCDU,
The navigation accuracy remains sufficient for RNP operations provided that, the RNP value is checked or entered on the MCDU and HIGH ACCURACY is displayed
42
Use of NAV mode After takeoff:
NAV mode may be used after takeoff provided that: -GPS PRIMARY is available, or -The flight crew checked the FMGS takeoff updating
43
Use of NAV mode Terminal area
NAV mode may be used in terminal area provided that: -GPS PRIMARY is available, or -the appropriate RNP is checked or entered on the MCDU, and HIGH accuracy is displayed, or -FMS navigation is cross checked with navaid raw data
44
Use of NAV mode Approach based on radio navaids
A navaids approach may be performed in NAV, APP NAV, or FINAL APP, with AP or FD engaged, provided that: -if GPS PRIMARY is available, the reference navaid may be unserviceable, or the airborne radio equipment may be inoperative, or not installed, provided that an operational approval is obtained -if GPS PRIMARY Is not available, the reference navaid and the corresponding airborne radio equipment must be serviceable, tuned and monitored during the approach.
45
Use of NAV mode RNAV approach
An RNAV(RNP) approach may be performed with GPS PRIMARY not available, only if the radio navaid coverage supports the RNP value and HIGH accuracy is displayed on the MCDU with the specified RNP, and an operational approval is obtained. An RNAV(GNSS) approach may be performed provided that GPS PRIMARY is available.
46
Use of NAV mode Non-precision approaches with engine out A319
If one engine is inoperative, it is not permitted to use the autopilot to perform NPA’s in the following modes: FINAL APP, NAV V/S, NAV/FPA, Only FD use is permitted.
47
APU start
After three consecutive APU start attempts, the flight crew must wait 60 minutes before a new start attempt
48
APU maximum N speed
107%
49
During refuel/defuel procedures, APU starts or shutdown are permitted with the following restrictions:
If the APU failed to start, or following an automatic APU shutdown, do not start the APU If a fuel spill occurs, perform a normal APU shutdown.
50
APU battery restart limit (Electrical emergency configuration)
25,000 ft pressure altitude
51
APU bleed: Max alt to assist engine start Max alt for air conditioning and pressurization (single pack) Max alt for air conditioning and pressurization (dual pack)
20,000 ft 22,500ft (20,000ft on two ac) 15,000ft Use of APU bleed air for wing anti-ice is not permitted
52
Engines Takeoff and go around Time limit
All engines operative 5 minutes One engine inoperative 10 minutes MCT Not limited
53
Engines EGT limit: Takeoff and Go-around Maximum Continuous Thrust (MCT) Starting (on ground and inflight)
950 c 915 c 725 c
54
Engines Maximum N1 Maximum N2
Maximum N1 104% Note: the N1 limit depends on the ambient conditions and on the configuration of the engine air bleed. These parameters may limit N1 to a value that is less than the above mentioned N1 value. Maximum N2 105%
55
Engine oil temperature: Max continuous temperature Max transient temperature (15min) Minimum starting temperature Minimum temperature before takeoff
140c 155c -40c -10c
56
Engine oil quantity
Minimum oil quantity 9.5 qt + estimated consumption Average estimated consumption = 0.5 qt/h
57
Engines: Minimum oil pressure
13 psi
58
Engines: Cold start bypass valve opens at
305 psi
59
Engine starts: A standard automatic start that includes up to _____ start attempts is considered one cycle For ground starts (automatic or manual), a ______ pause is required between successive cycles A _______ cooling period is, subsequent to ______ failed cycles The starter must not be engaged when _________
3 20 seconds 15 minute 4 N2 is above 20%
60
Reverse thrust: Selection of the reverse thrust is ______ in flight Backing the aircraft with reverse thrust is ________ Maximum reverse should not be used below _______. Idle reverse is permitted down to ________
Prohibited Not permitted 70 kt Aircraft stop
61
Flex takeoff TFLEX cannot be:
On a A320; higher than TMAXFLEX, equal to ISA+53c On a A319; higher than TMAXFLEX, equal to ISA+60c Lower than the flat temperature(TREF) Lower than the actual OAT FLEX takeoff is permitted only if ac meets all performance requirements at the takeoff weight, with the operating engines at the thrust available for the flexible temperature (TFLEX) Takeoff at reduced thrust is permitted with any inoperative item affecting the performance only if the associated performance shortfall has been applied to meet the above requirements.
62
FLEX takeoff is not permitted on
Contaminated runways
63
Maximum operating altitude with slats and/or flaps extended
20,000 ft
64
Rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll or yaw (e.g. large sideslip angles) may result in _____
Structural failures at any speed
65
The fuel system is certified with:
JET A, JET A1, JET B, JP4, JP5, JP8, N3 JET, RT, and TS-1, in accordance with engine manufacturers and fuel specifications
66
Fuel imbalance at takeoff: If the quantity difference between left and right INNER wing fuel tanks (outer tanks balanced) is greater than_______, refer to the following table
800 lbs
67
Fuel imbalance at takeoff Outer tanks maximum asymmetry (Inner tanks balanced)
815 lb
68
Fuel imbalance in flight and at landing Inner wing fuel tanks (Outer tanks balanced)
If the difference between left and right inner wing fuel tanks is greater than 1,500 lb, refer to the following table
69
Fuel imbalance in flight and at landing Outer wing tanks If the difference between left and right outer wing fuel tanks is greater than ______, refer to the following table
1,500 lb Maximum asymmetry 1,521 lb The maximum fuel imbalance in the outer wing fuel tanks (one full/one empty) is allowed provided that: -The fuel quantity of the outer and inner wing fuel tanks of one side is equal to the fuel quantity of the outer and inner wing fuel tanks on the other side, or -On the side of the lighter outer tank, the fuel quantity of the inner tank is more than the fuel quantity of the opposite inner tank. The difference between the fuel quantity in the inner tanks should not be more than 6,613 lb Note: In exceptional conditions (i.e. fuel system failure) the above mentioned values for maximum fuel imbalance may be exceeded without significant effect to the aircraft handling qualities. The aircraft remains fully controllable in all flight phases.
70
Minimum fuel quantity for takeoff
3,300 lb The ECAM alerts that are related to fuel low level in the wing tanks (FUEL WING TK LO LVL, etc.) must not appear for takeoff
71
Flammability reduction system Center tank usable fuel
Aircraft equipped with FRS Usable fuel in center tank is reduced by up to: 42.9 gallons (or 287 lbs or 130kg)
72
Definition of icing conditions
OAT (on ground or after takeoff) or the TAT (in flight) is at or below 10c and visible moisture is present (clouds, fog with visibility of 1sm (1600m) or less, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals). OAT on the ground and for takeoff is at or below 10c and operating on ramps, taxiways or runways where surface snow, standing water, or slush may be ingested by the engines, or freeze on engines, nacelles or engine sensor probes.
73
Definition of severe ice accretion
5mm (0.2 in) thick or more
74
Definition of thin hoarfrost
A white crystalline deposit so thin that surface features (lines and markings) can be distinguished beneath it Usually develops uniformly on exposed surfaces on cold cloudless nights.
75
The braking system is not designed to _____________ when a high thrust level is applied on at least one engine. During ground procedures that require a thrust increase with braking, the flight crew must ensure that the aircraft remains stationary, and must be ready to ____________
Hold the aircraft in a stationary position Immediately retard the thrust levers to IDLE
76
Auto brake The use of MAX mode is _____ for landing
Prohibited
77
Maximum brake temperature for takeoff (brake fans off)
300 c
78
Towbarless towing and pushback maximum NWS angle
+/-85*
79
Taxi with deflated or damaged tires: To vacate the runway or taxi at low speed with tire(s) deflated (not damaged), all of the following limitations apply:
If maximum one tire per gear is deflated (consider three gears) maximum taxi speed during turn 7kt If two tires are deflated on the same main gear (maximum one main gear) maximum taxi speed 3kt Max NWS angle 30* In addition, if tire damage is suspected, the flight crew must ask for an aircraft inspection prior to vacating the runway or taxi. If the ground crew suspects that a tire burst may damage the landing gear, maintenance action is due.
80
Photoluminescent emergency floor path marking system To charge
Cabin lights (entry and all zones) must be switched to FULL BRIGHT 15 minutes before takeoff (during cabin preparation and boarding) prior to an overnight flight. Max length of a dark cabin without recharging is 6.5 hours (15 minute charging time) or no limitation for 30 minute charging time Note: any cabin illumination in full bright for passenger services during flight is considered as charging time.
81
Inertial reference system Latitude limits
North of 60* North South of 55* South Are most restrictive. For anything beyond that view expanded limitations
82
Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast (ADS-B) When using ADS-B out for ATC separation services, the ________ must be operational
TCAS/ACAS system
83
Minimum flight crew oxygen pressure
Minimum bottle pressure from the chart covers: -Preflight checks -The use of oxygen when only one flight crew member is in the cockpit -unusable quantity (to ensure regulator operation with minimum pressure) -normal system leakage -The most demanding of: Protection after loss of cabin pressure with mask regulator on NORMAL (diluted oxygen): •during emergency descent for all flight crew members and observers for 13 (or 22) minutes •during cruise at FL100 for two flight crew members for 107 (or 98)minutes Protection against smoke with 100% oxygen for all flight crew members and observers during 15 minutes at 8,000 ft cabin altitude Note: the above times that are based on the use of a sealed mask may be shorter for bearded crew (in terms of performance, pressure, or duration)
84
GPWS Aircraft navigation ________ be based on the use of the terrain display. The terrain display is intended to serve as a ___________ only, and may not provide the accuracy on which to solely base ________
Must not Situation awareness tool Terrain avoidance maneuvering
85
The predictive GPWS functions should be inhibited (TERR push button to OFF, on the GPWS panel) when the aircraft position is less than 15 nm from the airfield:
For operations from/to runways not incorporated in the predictive GPWS database For specific approach or departure procedures which have previously been identified by the operator as potentially causing expected or spurious terrain alerts. Note: the decision to inhibit the predictive GPWS functions must not be based on flight crew judgment only Only aircraft with man made obstacle function can display obstacles on ND and trigger alerts, based on a dedicated database which includes artificial obstacles worldwide.
86
Narrow runway limitations, procedures and performance apply to operations from/to runways with a width below __________ Down to a minimum runway width ______
148 ft (45m) 100 ft (30m)
87
Dispatch to/from narrow runways is not allowed in case of:
Nose wheel steering inoperative One brake or more inoperative Operations on icy runways have not been demonstrated, therefore it is PROHIBITED
88
Narrow runways: Diversion to a 148 ft wide runway is recommended in case of:
Rudder jam Rudder pedal jam Yaw damper system fault Rudder travel limit system fault All failures leading to the loss of the nosewheel steering (HYD Yellow system loss, double hydraulic failure, double BSCU fault, double LGCIU fault) Operations on icy runways have not been demonstrated, therefore it is PROHIBITED
89
Narrow runway Maximum crosswind for takeoff and landing
RCC6 dry 38 kt RCC5 good 33 kt RCC4 good to medium 10 kt RCC3 medium 10 kt RCC2 medium to poor 10 kt RCC1 poor 10 kt Note: these maximum demonstrated crosswind values are based on the assumption that the crew have been trained accordingly.

A320 (6 decks)

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