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A320 > Limitations > Flashcards

Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Flight maneuvering load acceleration limits

A

Clean configuration -1g to +2.5g
Other configurations 0 to +2g

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2
Q

Runway Slope

A

Runway slope (mean) +- 2%

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3
Q

Runway Altitude

A

9,200 ft or 14,100 ft

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4
Q

Nominal Runway Width

A

Nominal runway width 148 ft (45m)
Minimal runway width 100ft (30m)

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5
Q

Maximum Demonstrated Crosswind
(Takeoff and Landing)

A

38 kt (gust included)

Note: Airbus recommends that operators should not intentionally operate in crosswinds that exceed this value.

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6
Q

Maximum Tailwind for Takeoff

A

10 kt

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7
Q

Maximum Tailwind for Landing

A

10 kt

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8
Q

Passenger and Cargo doors operation

A

Max wind for passenger door operation 65 kt
Max wind for FWD and AFT cargo door operation 40 kt
(Or 50 kt, if the aircraft nose is into the wind, or the FWD and AFT cargo doors are on the leeward side)
The FWD and AFT cargo doors must be closed before the wind speed exceeds 65kt.

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9
Q

Maximum recommended crosswind on wet and contaminated runways
(Not narrow runways)

A

Good/RCC 5 38 kt
Good to Medium/RCC 4 29 kt
Medium/RCC 3 25 kt
Medium to Poor/RCC 2 20 kt
Poor/RCC 1 15 kt

Note: recommended values based on computations.

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10
Q

Takeoff and Landing limitations on contaminated runways

A

Takeoff and Landing is not recommended on the following runway conditions:
-Water on top of compacted snow
-Dry snow or wet snow over ice

Takeoff and Landing is not permitted on the following runway condition:
-If the RCC is reported as 0-NIL

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11
Q

Runway surface conditions/
Related Landing Performance

A

Good/RCC 5
Damp
Wet (up to 3mm(1/8”) of water)
Slush (up to 3mm(1/8”))
Dry snow (up to 3mm(1/8”))
Wet snow (up to 3mm(1/8”))
Frost

Good to Medium/RCC 4
Compacted snow OAT at or below-15c

Medium/RCC 3
Dry snow 3mm-100mm(1/8” to 4”)
Wet snow 3mm-30mm (1/8” to 6/5”)
Compacted snow OAT above -15c
Dry snow over compacted snow
Wet snow over compacted snow
Slippery wet

Medium to Poor/RCC 2
Standing water 3mm-13mm (1/8”-1/2”)
Slush 3mm-13mm (1/8”-1/2”)

Poor/RCC 1
Ice (cold and dry)

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12
Q

Runway considered contaminated by rain

A

Smooth runway with moderate or heavy rain, or grooved runway with heavy rain and standing water greater than 1/8”.

Must use RCC 2

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13
Q

Cockpit window open maximum speed

A

200 kt

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14
Q

Maximum flaps/slats speeds

A

1 230kt
1+F 215kt
2 200kt
3 185kt
FULL 177kt

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15
Q

Maximum VMO/MMO

A

VMO 350kt
MMO M 0.82

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16
Q

VLE
VLO extension
VLO retraction

A

VLE 280kt/M 0.67
VLO extension 250kt/M 0.60
VLO retraction 220kt/M 0.54

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17
Q

Maximum tire speed

A

195 kt ground speed

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18
Q

Minimum control speed for landing
VMCL

A

VMCL all A320 113 kt
A319 108 or 111 kt

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19
Q

Rough air penetration speeds

A

VRA 0.76/275
VRA below 10,000 ft 250

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20
Q

Taxi speed

A

When the takeoff weight is higher than 76,000 kg (167,550 lb):

Do not exceed 20 kt during a turn

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21
Q

Wipers maximum operating speed

A

230 kt

Note: This limitation is applicable when the wipers are sweeping. It is not applicable if the wipers are not sweeping for any reasons.

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22
Q

Takeoff weight limitation at KDCA for N231NV and N232NV

A

162,038 lb

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23
Q

With passengers on board, it is not recommended to exceed ______ without air conditioning supply. The lack of fresh air supply will significantly reduce the cabin’s air quality.

A

20 minutes

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24
Q

The flight crew must not use bleed air from the _______ and from the ______ at the same time, to prevent any adverse effect on the bleed air system.

A

APU BLEED
HP air start unit

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25
Q

During ground operations, the flight crew must limit the time the aircraft electric power supply is used in normal avionics ventilation system configuration

A

OAT 49c or less No limitation
49c - 55c 2 hours
55c - 60c 1 hour
60c - 64c 0.5 hours

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26
Q

Maximum positive differential pressure

A

9.0 psi

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27
Q

Maximum negative differential pressure

A

-1.0 psi

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28
Q

Safety relief valve setting

A

8.6 psi

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29
Q

The flight crew must not use conditioned air from the _____ and from the _____ at the same time to prevent any adverse effect on the air conditioning system.

A

Packs
LP air conditioning unit

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30
Q

Minimum autopilot engagement after takeoff

A

100 ft AGL or 5 seconds after liftoff

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31
Q

Minimum autopilot use on non-precision approach using FINAL APP, NAV FPA, NAV V/S, TRK FPA, HDG V/S

A

250 ft AGL

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32
Q

Minimum autopilot use on circling approach

A

500 ft AGL

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33
Q

Minimum autopilot use on ILS approach when CAT 1 is displayed on the FMA

A

160 ft AGL

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34
Q

Minimum autopilot use on ILS approach when CAT 1 with CAT 3 SINGLE/DUAL is displayed on the FMA

A

50 ft below DA

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35
Q

Minimum autopilot use after a manual go-around

A

100 ft AGL

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36
Q

Minimum autopilot use in all other phases

A

500 ft AGL

The AP or FD in OP DES mode can be used in approach. However, it’s use is only permitted if the FCU selected altitude is set to, or above, the higher of the two: MDA/MDH or 500 ft AGL

37
Q

FMGS lateral and vertical navigation is certified for:

A

-After takeoff, en route, and terminal area operations

-Navigation within RNAV/RNP airspace

-Instrument approach procedures (except ILS, LOC, LOC/BC, LDA and final approaches)

-Missed approach procedures

38
Q

Takeoff in GPS Primary:
For certain airports, where the difference between the local coordinate system and WGS 84 (geodesic standard used by GPS, FMS) is not negligible, a map shift may occur after takeoff. The flight crew must ________ for takeoff from these airports, until ______.

A

Deselect the GPS

A safe altitude is reached

39
Q

Navigation performance
The navigation accuracy depends on:

A

IRS drift, or

One of the following:
-radio navaid availability, or
-elapsed time since last computation of radio navaid position.

40
Q

RNP accuracy with GPS PRIMARY is

A

With AP on|AP off FD on|AP off FD off

Enroute: 1nm. |1nm|1.1nm
Terminal area:0.5nm|0.51nm|0.51nm
Approach: 0.3nm|0.3nm

41
Q

Degraded situation
If GPS PRIMARY LOST is displayed on the ND and MCDU,

A

The navigation accuracy remains sufficient for RNP operations provided that, the RNP value is checked or entered on the MCDU and HIGH ACCURACY is displayed

42
Q

Use of NAV mode
After takeoff:

A

NAV mode may be used after takeoff provided that:

-GPS PRIMARY is available, or
-The flight crew checked the FMGS takeoff updating

43
Q

Use of NAV mode
Terminal area

A

NAV mode may be used in terminal area provided that:

-GPS PRIMARY is available, or
-the appropriate RNP is checked or entered on the MCDU, and HIGH accuracy is displayed, or
-FMS navigation is cross checked with navaid raw data

44
Q

Use of NAV mode
Approach based on radio navaids

A

A navaids approach may be performed in NAV, APP NAV, or FINAL APP, with AP or FD engaged, provided that:

-if GPS PRIMARY is available, the reference navaid may be unserviceable, or the airborne radio equipment may be inoperative, or not installed, provided that an operational approval is obtained

-if GPS PRIMARY Is not available, the reference navaid and the corresponding airborne radio equipment must be serviceable, tuned and monitored during the approach.

45
Q

Use of NAV mode
RNAV approach

A

An RNAV(RNP) approach may be performed with GPS PRIMARY not available, only if the radio navaid coverage supports the RNP value and HIGH accuracy is displayed on the MCDU with the specified RNP, and an operational approval is obtained.

An RNAV(GNSS) approach may be performed provided that GPS PRIMARY is available.

46
Q

Use of NAV mode
Non-precision approaches with engine out

A

If one engine is inoperative, it is not permitted to use the autopilot to perform NPA’s in the following modes: FINAL APP, NAV V/S, NAV/FPA,

Only FD use is permitted.

47
Q

APU start

A

After three consecutive APU start attempts, the flight crew must wait 60 minutes before a new start attempt

48
Q

APU maximum N speed

A

107%

49
Q

During refuel/defuel procedures, APU starts or shutdown are permitted with the following restrictions:

A

If the APU failed to start, or following an automatic APU shutdown, do not start the APU

If a fuel spill occurs, perform a normal APU shutdown.

50
Q

APU battery restart limit
(Electrical emergency configuration)

A

25,000 ft pressure altitude

51
Q

APU bleed:
Max alt to assist engine start
Max alt for air conditioning and pressurization (single pack)
Max alt for air conditioning and pressurization (dual pack)

A

20,000 ft
22,500ft (20,000ft on two ac)
15,000ft

Use of APU bleed air for wing anti-ice is not permitted

52
Q

Engines
Takeoff and go around
Time limit

A

All engines operative 5 minutes

One engine inoperative 10 minutes

MCT Not limited

53
Q

Engines EGT limit:
Takeoff and Go-around
Maximum Continuous Thrust (MCT)
Starting (on ground and inflight)

A

950 c
915 c
725 c

54
Q

Engines
Maximum N1
Maximum N2

A

Maximum N1 104%
Note: the N1 limit depends on the ambient conditions and on the configuration of the engine air bleed. These parameters may limit N1 to a value that is less than the above mentioned N1 value.

Maximum N2 105%

55
Q

Engine oil temperature:
Max continuous temperature
Max transient temperature (15min)
Minimum starting temperature
Minimum temperature before takeoff

A

140c
155c
-40c
-10c

56
Q

Engine oil quantity

A

Minimum oil quantity
9.5 qt + estimated consumption

Average estimated consumption =
0.5 qt/h

57
Q

Engines: Minimum oil pressure

A

13 psi

58
Q

Engines:
Cold start bypass valve opens at

A

305 psi

59
Q

Engine starts:
A standard automatic start that includes up to _____ start attempts is considered one cycle

For ground starts (automatic or manual), a ______ pause is required between successive cycles

A _______ cooling period is, subsequent to ______ failed cycles

The starter must not be engaged when _________

A

3
20 seconds
15 minute 4
N2 is above 20%

60
Q

Reverse thrust:
Selection of the reverse thrust is ______ in flight
Backing the aircraft with reverse thrust is ________
Maximum reverse should not be used below _______. Idle reverse is permitted down to ________

A

Prohibited
Not permitted
70 kt
Aircraft stop

61
Q

Flex takeoff
TFLEX cannot be:

A

On a A320; higher than TMAXFLEX, equal to ISA+53c

On a A319; higher than TMAXFLEX, equal to ISA+60c

Lower than the flat temperature(TREF)

Lower than the actual OAT

FLEX takeoff is permitted only if ac meets all performance requirements at the takeoff weight, with the operating engines at the thrust available for the flexible temperature (TFLEX)
Takeoff at reduced thrust is permitted with any inoperative item affecting the performance only if the associated performance shortfall has been applied to meet the above requirements.

62
Q

FLEX takeoff is not permitted on

A

Contaminated runways

63
Q

Maximum operating altitude with slats and/or flaps extended

A

20,000 ft

64
Q

Rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll or yaw (e.g. large sideslip angles) may result in _____

A

Structural failures at any speed

65
Q

The fuel system is certified with:

A

JET A, JET A1, JET B, JP4, JP5, JP8, N3 JET, RT, and TS-1, in accordance with engine manufacturers and fuel specifications

66
Q

Fuel imbalance at takeoff:
If the quantity difference between left and right INNER wing fuel tanks (outer tanks balanced) is greater than_______, refer to the following table

A

800 lbs

67
Q

Fuel imbalance at takeoff
Outer tanks maximum asymmetry
(Inner tanks balanced)

A

815 lb

68
Q

Fuel imbalance in flight and at landing
Inner wing fuel tanks
(Outer tanks balanced)

A

If the difference between left and right inner wing fuel tanks is greater than 1,500 lb, refer to the following table

69
Q

Fuel imbalance in flight and at landing
Outer wing tanks
If the difference between left and right outer wing fuel tanks is greater than ______, refer to the following table

A

1,500 lb

Maximum asymmetry 1,521 lb
The maximum fuel imbalance in the outer wing fuel tanks (one full/one empty) is allowed provided that:
-The fuel quantity of the outer and inner wing fuel tanks of one side is equal to the fuel quantity of the outer and inner wing fuel tanks on the other side, or
-On the side of the lighter outer tank, the fuel quantity of the inner tank is more than the fuel quantity of the opposite inner tank. The difference between the fuel quantity in the inner tanks should not be more than 6,613 lb

Note: In exceptional conditions (i.e. fuel system failure) the above mentioned values for maximum fuel imbalance may be exceeded without significant effect to the aircraft handling qualities. The aircraft remains fully controllable in all flight phases.

70
Q

Minimum fuel quantity for takeoff

A

3,300 lb

The ECAM alerts that are related to fuel low level in the wing tanks (FUEL WING TK LO LVL, etc.) must not appear for takeoff

71
Q

Flammability reduction system
Center tank usable fuel

A

Aircraft equipped with FRS
Usable fuel in center tank is reduced by up to: 42.9 gallons (or 287 lbs or 130kg)

72
Q

Definition of icing conditions

A

OAT (on ground or after takeoff) or the TAT (in flight) is at or below 10c and visible moisture is present (clouds, fog with visibility of 1sm (1600m) or less, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals).

OAT on the ground and for takeoff is at or below 10c and operating on ramps, taxiways or runways where surface snow, standing water, or slush may be ingested by the engines, or freeze on engines, nacelles or engine sensor probes.

73
Q

Definition of severe ice accretion

A

5mm (0.2 in) thick or more

74
Q

Definition of thin hoarfrost

A

A white crystalline deposit so thin that surface features (lines and markings) can be distinguished beneath it

Usually develops uniformly on exposed surfaces on cold cloudless nights.

75
Q

The braking system is not designed to _____________ when a high thrust level is applied on at least one engine.
During ground procedures that require a thrust increase with braking, the flight crew must ensure that the aircraft remains stationary, and must be ready to ____________

A

Hold the aircraft in a stationary position

Immediately retard the thrust levers to IDLE

76
Q

Auto brake
The use of MAX mode is _____ for landing

A

Prohibited

77
Q

Maximum brake temperature for takeoff (brake fans off)

A

300 c

78
Q

Towbarless towing and pushback maximum NWS angle

A

+/-85*

79
Q

Taxi with deflated or damaged tires:
To vacate the runway or taxi at low speed with tire(s) deflated (not damaged), all of the following limitations apply:

A

If maximum one tire per gear is deflated (consider three gears) maximum taxi speed during turn 7kt

If two tires are deflated on the same main gear (maximum one main gear) maximum taxi speed 3kt

Max NWS angle 30*

In addition, if tire damage is suspected, the flight crew must ask for an aircraft inspection prior to vacating the runway or taxi. If the ground crew suspects that a tire burst may damage the landing gear, maintenance action is due.

80
Q

Photoluminescent emergency floor path marking system
To charge

A

Cabin lights (entry and all zones) must be switched to FULL BRIGHT

15 minutes before takeoff (during cabin preparation and boarding) prior to an overnight flight.

Max length of a dark cabin without recharging is 6.5 hours (15 minute charging time) or no limitation for 30 minute charging time

Note: any cabin illumination in full bright for passenger services during flight is considered as charging time.

81
Q

Inertial reference system
Latitude limits

A

North of 60* North
South of 55* South
Are most restrictive. For anything beyond that view expanded limitations

82
Q

Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast (ADS-B)

When using ADS-B out for ATC separation services, the ________ must be operational

A

TCAS/ACAS system

83
Q

Minimum flight crew oxygen pressure

A

Minimum bottle pressure from the chart covers:
-Preflight checks
-The use of oxygen when only one flight crew member is in the cockpit
-unusable quantity (to ensure regulator operation with minimum pressure)
-normal system leakage
-The most demanding of:
Protection after loss of cabin pressure with mask regulator on NORMAL (diluted oxygen):
•during emergency descent for all flight crew members and observers for 13 (or 22) minutes
•during cruise at FL100 for two flight crew members for 107 (or 98)minutes
Protection against smoke with 100% oxygen for all flight crew members and observers during 15 minutes at 8,000 ft cabin altitude
Note: the above times that are based on the use of a sealed mask may be shorter for bearded crew (in terms of performance, pressure, or duration)

84
Q

GPWS
Aircraft navigation ________ be based on the use of the terrain display. The terrain display is intended to serve as a ___________ only, and may not provide the accuracy on which to solely base ________

A

Must not

Situation awareness tool

Terrain avoidance maneuvering

85
Q

The predictive GPWS functions should be inhibited (TERR push button to OFF, on the GPWS panel) when the aircraft position is less than 15 nm from the airfield:

A

For operations from/to runways not incorporated in the predictive GPWS database

For specific approach or departure procedures which have previously been identified by the operator as potentially causing expected or spurious terrain alerts.

Note: the decision to inhibit the predictive GPWS functions must not be based on flight crew judgment only

Only aircraft with man made obstacle function can display obstacles on ND and trigger alerts, based on a dedicated database which includes artificial obstacles worldwide.

86
Q

Narrow runway limitations, procedures and performance apply to operations from/to runways with a width below __________
Down to a minimum runway width ______

A

148 ft (45m)

100 ft (30m)

87
Q

Dispatch to/from narrow runways is not allowed in case of:

A

Nose wheel steering inoperative

One brake or more inoperative

Operations on icy runways have not been demonstrated, therefore it is PROHIBITED

88
Q

Narrow runways:
Diversion to a 148 ft wide runway is recommended in case of:

A

Rudder jam
Rudder pedal jam
Yaw damper system fault
Rudder travel limit system fault
All failures leading to the loss of the nosewheel steering (HYD Yellow system loss, double hydraulic failure, double BSCU fault, double LGCIU fault)

Operations on icy runways have not been demonstrated, therefore it is PROHIBITED

89
Q

Narrow runway
Maximum crosswind for takeoff and landing

A

RCC6 dry 38 kt
RCC5 good 33 kt
RCC4 good to medium 10 kt
RCC3 medium 10 kt
RCC2 medium to poor 10 kt
RCC1 poor 10 kt

Note: these maximum demonstrated crosswind values are based on the assumption that the crew have been trained accordingly.

A320 (6 decks)

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