# Cross-country Flight Planning Flashcards

1
Q

What are the tree common ways to navigate

A

Pilotage by reference to visible landmarks

Dead reckoning by computing direction and distance from a known position

2
Q

What types of aeronautical charts are available for use in VFR navigation

A

sectional charts - visual navigation for slow to medium speed A/C. 1” = 6.86 NM. Revised every 6 months

VFR terminal area charts - Depict the class B airspace. Similar to sectional charts but with more detail. 1” = 3.43 NM revised every 6 months

VFR Flyway Planning Charts - Printed on the reverse side of a TAC chart. Show flight paths and alt. recommended to bypass high traffic areas

3
Q

Are EFB approved for use as a replacement for paper reference material, POH and supplements, charts etc.

A

Yes, EFBs can be used during all phases of flight operations in lieu of paper. Recommended to have a secondary or backup source of information such as paper or another EFB device

4
Q

What is an isogonic line

A

Broken magenta lines connect points of equal magnetic variation. They show the amount and direction of magnetic variation which from time to time may vary

5
Q

What is magnetic variation

A

Variation is the angle between true north and magnetic north. Shown in E or W variation depending upon whether magnetic north is to the east or west of true north

6
Q

How do you convert a true direction to a magnetic direction

A

Note variation shows by the nearest isogonic line
East is leasts - subtract

7
Q

What are lines of latitude and longitued

A

Latitude - east to west parallel to equator measure distance from equator N or S

Longitude go N S and at a right angle to equator

8
Q

What are lines of latitude and longitued

A

Latitude - east to west parallel to equator measure distance from equator N or S

Longitude go N S and at a right angle to equator

9
Q

What is magnetic deviation

A

Due to magnetic influence within the A/C (radios, light etc) the compass is deflected from its normal reading.. This is called deviation. The value is found on the deviation card located in the A/C

10
Q

Name several types of navigational aids

A

VOR - Very hight frequency omnidirectional Range
VORTAC - VHF omnidirectional range / tactical air navigation
DMS - Distance measuring equipment
RNAV - area navigation includes INS, VOR/DME and GPS

11
Q

What is a VOR or VORTAc

A

Radio stations that project radial in all directions from the station. Each radio is donated by an outbound magnetic direction. Almost all VORs are VORTAC which provides the standard bearing information plus distance information to pilot with airplane that have DME

12
Q

Within what frequency range do VORs operate

A

VHF 108 - 117.95 right below aviation comm frequencies

13
Q

A

Line of magnetic bearing extending form a VOR. Always identified by their direction from the station. Regardless of heading an A/C on the 360 radio will always be north of the station

14
Q

How are VOR NAVAIDs classified

A

Terminal, Low, and high

15
Q

What reception distances can be expected from the various class VOR

A
T - 12,000' and below 25 miles
L - below 18K' 40 miles
H - below 18K' 40 miles
H - 14.5 - 17,999' 100 miles with in the lower 48
H - FL180 - FL450 130 miles
H - Above FL450 100 miles
16
Q

What limitations if any apply to VOR reception distance

A

VORs are subject to line of sight restrictions, and the range varies proportionally to the altitude of the receiving equipment

17
Q

What are the different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR receiver equipment

A
VOT check +/- 4 degrees
Ground check point within 4 degrees
Airborne checkpoint within 6 degrees
Dual VOR check 4 degrees between each
selected radial over a known ground point within 6 degrees
18
Q

What is DME

A

distance measuring equipment. used to measure in NM the slant range distance of an A/C from the DME NAVAID. A/C equipped with DME are provided with distance and GS. Operate on UFH 960 - 1215 MHz

19
Q

Give a brief explanation of GPS

A

satellite based radio navigation system that broadcasts a signal used by receivers to determine a precise position anywhere in the world. Tracks multiple satellites to determine position

20
Q

What are the three functional elements of GPS

A

space element - 30 satellites

control element - ground based GPS monitoring and control stations to ensure accuracy of satellites

user element - antennas and receiver processor on the A/C providing positioning, velocity, and precise timing

21
Q

What are the different types of GPS receivers available

A

Fully integrated IFR/VFR to hand held devices. Pilots must understand the limitations of the receivers prior to using in flight

22
Q

What is the purpose of RAIM

A

Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring is a self-monitoring function performed by a GPS receiver to ensure that adequate GPS signals are being received from the satellites at all times. GPS will alert pilot when signal is not good enough for navigation

23
Q

Where can a pilot obtain RAIM availability information

A

Manufacturer supplied RAIM prediction tool
Service Availability Prediction tool from the FAA
FSS during preflight

24
Q

If RAIM capability is lost in-flight can you continue to use GPS for navigation

A

Without RAIM a pilot cannot assure accuracy of the position. VFR only or hand held GPS do not have RAIM and will not alert the pilot of issues

25
Q

Before conducting a flight using GPS equipment for nav, what basic preflight checks should be made

A

Verify GPS is correctly installed
Verify the DB is up to date
Get GPS NOTAM/RAIM info related to route in flight
Review operational status of radio navaids in flight an A/C equipment checks
GPS operational manual or AFM are onboard the A/C

26
Q

How can a pilot determine what type of operation a GPS receiver is approved for

A

Check the POH/AFM to find the limitations and operating procedures for the GPS installed

27
Q

During a preflight briefing, will the FSS briefer automatically provide a pilot with GPS NOTAMS

A

No, you must ask for GPS/WAAS NOTAMs

28
Q

How many satellites does a GPS receiver require to compute its position

A

3 - 2D lat and long position
4 - 3D lat, long and alt
5 - 3D and RAIM
6 - 3D and RAIM isolates corrupt signal and removes from nav

29
Q

What is WAAS

A

Wide area augmentation system is a ground and satellite integrated NAV error correction system that provides accuracy enhancement to signals received from GPS.

30
Q

What limitations should you be aware of when using a panel mount VFR GPS or a hand-held VFR GPS system for navigation

A

RAIM - many VFR systems do not have RAIM

Database currency - VFR updates to database is not required only for IFR. Database may be outdate

Antenna location - not optimized for a clear view of satellites could show error in position

31
Q

Define the term VFR waypoint

A

Supplementary tool to assist with position awareness while navigating visually in A/C with area navigation receivers such as GPS. They provide navigational aids for pilots not familiar with the area, waypoint definition of existing reporting points, enhanced navigation in an around Class B and C airspace, and around special use airspace. VFR waypoint names consist of a 5-letter identifier beginning with VP and are retrievable from nav databases; they should be used only when operating under VFR conditions

32
Q

Speed formula given time and distance

A

Speed = Distance / Time

First convert minutes to decimal by dividing by 60

33
Q

Time formula given speed and distance

A

Time = Distance / Speed

Convert time from decimal by multiplying by 60

34
Q

Distance formula given speed and time

A

Distance = Speed X Time

First convert time to a decimal by dividing by 60

35
Q

How many gallons of fuel given burn rate and time

A

Convert minutes to a decimal by dividing by 60

Then burn rate X time in decimal = gallons consumed

E6B = Required > Fuel

36
Q

What is the rate of burn given time and fuel consumed

A

Convert minutes to a decimal by dividing by 60

Gallons Consumed / Time in decimal = Gallons per hour

E6B = Flight > FPH

37
Q

How much time do you have given burn rate and consumed fuel

A

Consumed Gallons / Burn rate

Then take decimal and multiply by 60

E6B = Flight > Endur

38
Q

Find TAS given altitude, temp, and IAS

A

E6B = Speed > Plan TAS

39
Q

Nautical Miles to Statues Miles

A

NM X 1.151 = SM

40
Q

Quarts of oil to pounds

A

(Quarts / 4) X 7.5 = pounds of oil

41
Q

Gallons of fuel to pounds

A

Fuel X 6 = pounds of fuel

42
Q

F to C

A

(F-32) 0.555 = C

43
Q

Knots to MPH

A

Knot X 1.151 = MPH

44
Q

Find Ground speed and true heading

A

E6B = HDG/GS > HDG/GS

45
Q

After takeoff, you attempt to activate your VFR flight plan but are unable to contact the FSS. What will happen to your flight plan

A

It will be cancelled after 1 h of proposed departure time

46
Q

What actions should be taken if you become disoriented or lost on a cross-country flight

A

Fly a heading you feel is correct or circle. Don’t wonder aimlessly

if you kept a nav log and steady compass heading you shouldn’t have an issue finding your position

Find VOR’s and find your position or fly to the station

Knowledge of last known position, elapsed time, wind direction, and ground speed to establish how far you have traveled since your last checkpoint

Use the distance as a radius and draw a semicircle ahead of your last known position on a chart

Look for something big, highways, rivers, mountains, water towers with town names, railroads etc

47
Q

Lost: low on fuel, bad weather, no experience, night, equipment malfunctioning

A

Get it on the ground. People on the ground know where they are at and you do not

48
Q

If you cannot find your position what action is next

A

Climb - Higher alt. = better comm and visibility

Communicate - 121.5

Confess - Let ATC/FSS know you are lost

49
Q

How to get to an alternate with no GPS or DME

A

Approximate the magnetic course using a straight edge and a compass rose from a nearby VOR

Use ruler and scale to approximate distance

If there is time start to deviate over a prominent ground feature

Once on new course note time and winds aloft to calculate heading, GS, then ETA and fuel consumption

Prioritize flying the A/C then nav and planning

To determine alt consider cloud heights, winds, terrain, and radio reception

50
Q

What is the most common type of communication radio equipment installed in general aviation aircraft, how many channels are available

A

VHF

Frequencies between 118-136.975 MHz

Classified as 720 or 760 depending on the number of channels

720 = 135.975 and 760 up to 136.975

51
Q

What is the universal VHF ER frequency

A

121.5

52
Q

What frequencies are used for ground

A

121.6 - 121.9

53
Q

What is a CTAF

A

Used for comm at non-towered airports can be a unicom or multicomm or tower frequency check chart suppliment

54
Q

What is UNICOM and what frequencies is it on

A

Non-gov communication facility which may provide airport information at certain airports
Normally used 122.7 122.725 122.8 122.975 123 123.05 123.075

55
Q

What does ATIS mean

A

automatic terminal information service recorded non control information to relieve frequency congestion

56
Q

If operating into an airport without an operating control tower, FSS, or UNICOM what procedure should be followed

A

Use MULTICOM 122.9 for self-announce procedures.

57
Q

What frequencies are monitored by most FSS other than 121.5

A

In Alaska 123.6 or other that can be found in the chart supplement. You can also use 122.2

58
Q

What is an RCO

A

Remote Communication Outlet is an unmanned comm facility remotely controlled by ATC established to provide ground-to-ground comm for pilots at satellite airport

59
Q

How can a pilot determine what frequency is appropriate for activating his/her VFR flight plan once airborn

A

Two way

Ask FSS during the weather briefing

Consul the comm section for the airport of departure in the chart supplement

60
Q

What is the meaning of a heavy-lined blue box surrounding a NAVAID frequency

A

Indicates FSS frequencies 121.5 122.2 243 255.4 are available

61
Q

Why would a frequency be printed on top of a heavy-lined box

A

Usually means that frequency is available in addition to the standard ones

62
Q

What is the meaning of a thin-lined blue box surrounding a NAVAID frequency

A

Means no standard frequencies are available and will have a NO VOICE symbol underlined under the ffrequency

63
Q

Why would a frequency be printed on top of a thin-lined blue box

A

Best frequencies to use near the NAVAID.

They will normally have an R which means the pilot Tx on that frequency and Rx on the NAVAID frequency

64
Q

How can a pilot determine the availability of HIWAS when looking at a VFR sectional chart

A

The NAVAID will have a an H in the upper-right corner of the box

65
Q

What meaning does the letter T in a solid blue circle appearing in the to right corner of a NAVAID frequency box have

A

66
Q

If an inflight emergency requires immediate action by the pilot, what authority and responsibilities does the pilot have

A

PIC is responsible for an final authority as to the operation of the A/C

PIC may deviate from any rule in part 91 to the extent required to meet the ER

The PIC shall write a written report to the FAA explaining the deviation if requested

67
Q

What restrictions apply to pilots concerning the use of drugs and alcohol

A

No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember:

Within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage
While under the influence of alcohol
while using any drugs that affect the person’s faculties in any way contrary to safety
while having a BAC of .04% or more in blood or breath specimen

68
Q

Is it permissible for a pilot to allow a person who is under the influence of alcohol or drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft

A

No, except in an ER, no pilot may allow a person who appears to be intoxicated or who demonstrates by manner or physical indications that the individual is under the influence of drugs, except a medical patient under proper care, to be carried in the aircraft

69
Q

May portable electronic devices be operated onboard an aircraft

A

A/C operated by a holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an aircraft operating under IFR may not allow operation of electronic devices onboard their aircraft. Exceptions are portable voice recorders, hearing aids, heart pacemakers, electric shavers, or any other device that the operator of the aircraft has determined will not cause interference with the navigation or communication system of the aircraft on which it is to be used

70
Q

Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft

A

No PIC may allow any object to be dropped from an aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. However, this section does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property

71
Q

Concerning a flight in the local area, is any preflight action required, and if so, what must it consist of

A

Yes, pilots must familiarize themselves with all available information concerning that flight, including runway lengths at airports of intended use, and takeoff and landing distance data under existing conditions

72
Q

Preflight actions as required by regulation for all flights away from the vicinity of the departure airport shall included a review of what specific information

A

For a flight under IFR or not in the vicinity of an airport

N - NOTAMS
W - weather reports and forecasts
K - Known ATC traffic delays
R - Runway lengths at airports of intended use
A - Alternatives available
F - Fuel requirements
T - Takeoff and landing distance data
73
Q

Which persons on board an aircraft are required to use seatbelts and when

A

any person 2yo or older must occupy an approve seat or berth with safety belt, and if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing.

Under 2yo may be held by an adult

People engaging in sport parachuting may use the floor as a seat

74
Q

What responsibility does the PIC have concerning passengers and their use of seatbelts

A

No pilot may takeoff unless the PIC ensures that each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that person’s safety belt and shoulder harness.

PIC shall ensure that all persons onboard have been notified to fasten their seatbelt and shoulder harness before movement of the A/C on the surface, T/O, and LND

75
Q

When are flight crew members required to keep their seatbelts and shoulder harnesses fastened

A

During T/O and LND, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall keep their seatbelts fastened while at their station. During T/O and LDN this includes the shoulder harness unless it interferes with other required duties

76
Q

If operating an aircraft in close proximity to another such as formation flight, what regulations apply

A

No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight unless first arranged with the PIC of each aircraft in the formation

No person may operate an aircraft carrying passengers for hire in formation flight

77
Q

What is the order of right-of-way as applied to the different categories of aircraft

A
Balloons
Gliders
Airships
Airplanes
Rotorcraft

A/C towing or refueling other A/C have the right-of-way over all other engine-driven A/C

78
Q

When would an aircraft have the right-of-way over all other air traffic

A

When the A/C has declared an ER

79
Q

Right of way for converging aircraft

A

Aircraft on right has the right of way

80
Q

Right of way for Approaching head-on

A

both A/C shall alter course to right

81
Q

Right of way overtaking an aircraft

A

A/C being overtaken has the right-of-way; pilot of the overtaking A/C shall alter course to the right

82
Q

What right-of-way rules apply when two or more A/C are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing

A

A/C on approach to land or while landing have the right of way over any A/C in flight or on the surface except that they cannot take advantage of this rule to force an A/C off the runway surface which has already landed

When 2 or more A/C are approaching an airpot the A/C at the lower altitude has the right of way but it shall not take advantage of the rule to cut in front of another A/C on final or to overtake another A/C

83
Q

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10K MSL

A

250 Knots

84
Q

What is the minimum safe altitude that an aircraft may be operated over a congested area of a city

A

No person may operate an A/C over a congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open-air assembly of persons, below and altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft

85
Q

In areas other than congested areas, what minimum safe altitudes shall be used

A

No lower than 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In those cases, the A/C may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure

86
Q

Define minimum safe altitude

A

AN altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface

87
Q

What is the lowest altitude an aircraft may be operated over an area designated as a US wildlife refuge, park or forest service area

A

All A/C are requested to maintain 2,000 feet AGL

88
Q

When flying below FL180 cruising altitude must be maintained by reference to an altimeter set using what procedure

A

When pressure is 31.00” Hg or less each person operating an A/C must maintain the cruising altitude of that aircraft by reference to an altimeter that is set to the current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route an within 100 NM.

If there is no station within this area, the current reported altimeter setting of an available station may be used. If the pressure exceed 31.00” Hg check the AIM for correct procedures

89
Q

If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, what procedure should be used

A

Used the same procedure as in the case of an aircraft not equipped with a radio: the elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure should be used

90
Q

When may a pilot intentionally deviate from an ATC clearance or instruction

A

An amended clearance has been obtained
In an ER

91
Q

As PIC what action if any is required of you if you deviate from an ATC instruction and priority is given

A

Each PIC who deviate must notify the ATC as soon as possible

If given priority in an ER the PIC must submit a detailed report of the ER within 48h to the ATC facility manager, if requested by ATC

92
Q

If the aircraft radio fails under VFR while operating into a tower airport, what conditions must be met before a landing may be made at that airport

A

Wx must be at or above basic VFR minimums

Visual contact with the tower is maintained

93
Q

Procedure when arriving with Receiver InOp

A

Remain outside or above Class D surface area
Determine direction and flow of traffic
Advise tower of A/C type, position, alt. and intention to land
At 3 to 5 miles advise tower of position and join TP
Watch tower for light gun signals

94
Q

Procedure when arriving with Transmitter InOp

A

Remain outside or above Class D surface area
Determine direction and flow of traffic
Monitor frequency for landing or traffic information
Join the traffic pattern and watch for flight gun signals
Daytime ACK by rocking wings, Night ACK by flashing landing or nav lights

95
Q

A

Remain outside or above Class D surface area
Determine direction and flow of traffic
Join the TP and what for light signals
Daytime ACK by rocking wings, Night ACK by flashing landing or nav lights

96
Q

What general rules apply concerning traffic pattern operations at non-tower airport within class E or G airspace

A

Each person operating an A/C To/From an non-towered airport shall:

Landing
Make all turns to the left unless airport displays approved light signals or markings showing traffic is to the right

Takeoff
Comply with any TP established for that airport in Part 93

97
Q

When operating in Class D airspace, what procedure should be used when approaching to land on a runway with a VASI

A

Maintain an alt. at or above the glide slope until a lower alt. is needed for a safe landing

98
Q

What is the fuel requirement for VFR flight at night

A

Enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and 45min after that

99
Q

What is the fuel requirement for VFR flight during the day

A

Enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and 30min after that

100
Q

When flying VFR at 3,000’ AGL what rules apply concerning specific altitudes flown

A

0-179 - Odd thousands plus 500

180 - 359 - Even thousands plus 500

101
Q

What is an ELT

A

Emergency Location Transmitter

Radio beacon with its own power source operating on 121.5, 243.0 and 406 MHz

Activated on impact

Serves to help locate downed A/C

Can be tested only during the first 5min after any hour

Digital 406 MHz should be tested only as specified by manufacturer

102
Q

Is an ELT required on all A/C

A

All A/C need an ELT except for

Training aircraft that fly only within 50NM of the airport
A/C engaged in design and testing
New A/C engaged in preparation and delivery
A/C engaged in agricultural operations

103
Q

When must the batteries in an ELT be replaced or recharged, if rechargable

A

When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour or
50% of the batteries useful life has expired

104
Q

What are the regulations concerning use of supplemental oxygen on board an aircraft

A

12,500 - 14,000 MSL for the part of the flight at those alt. that is more than 30 min - min. required flight crew must have O2

14,000 MSL - the required flight crew has 02 for the whole duration of the flight

15,000 MSL - all occupants of the A/C have O2

105
Q

According to regulations, where is aerobatic flight of an aircraft not permitted

A

Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement
Over an open air assembly of persons
Within Class B, C, D, or E airspace
Within 4NM of the centerline of a federal airway
Below 1,500’ above the surface
When vis. is less than 3SM

106
Q

Define aerobatic flight

A

Intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in an A/C attitude, an abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal flight

107
Q

When are parachutes required on board an A/C

A

When intentionally banking the A/C beyond 60 degrees or pitching up/down 30 degrees

Does not apply for flight test for pilot certs
Spins and other flight maneuvers required by the regulations

108
Q

What is Class A airspace

A

Airspace from FL180 to FL600 including airspace within 12 NM of the coast

109
Q

Can a flight under VFR be conducted within Class A airspace

A

No, unless otherwise authorized by ATc

110
Q

What is the minimum pilot certification for operations conducted within Class A airspace

A

PPL and IFR rating

111
Q

What minimum equipment is required for flight operations within Class A airspace

A

Mode C alt. encoding transponder
Equipped with instruments for IFR operations

112
Q

How is class a airspace depicted on navigational charts

A

It is not

113
Q

What is the definition of Class B airspace

A

Surface to 10,000’ MSL around the nations busiests airports in terms of IFR operations or passenger enplanements.

Custom to each airport and designed of 2 or more layers that contain all published instrument procedures

114
Q

What minimum pilot certification is required to operate an aircraft within Class B airspace

A

PIC is at least a PPL
PIC is a recreational pilot and meets 61.101 or student pilot seeking a rec. pilot and meets 61.94
PIC is a sports pilot and meets 61.325 or student pilots seeking sports and meets 61.94
Student pilot that meets 61.94 or 61.95

The airport allows pilots other than PPL to fly to/from the primary class B airport

115
Q

What is the minimum equipment required for operations of an aircraft within Class B airspace

A

Mode C alt. encoding transponder
If IFR, an operable VOR or TACAN or operable RNAV

116
Q

Before operating an aircraft into Class B airspace what basic requirements must be met

A

Arriving A/C must obtain an ATC clearance from the ATC facility having jurisdiction for that area prior to operating an aircraft in that area

117
Q

What are the VFM weather minimums for Class B

A

3 SM visibility and clear of clouds

118
Q

How is Class B airspace depicted on navigational charts

A

Class B airspace is charted on sectional, IFR en route, Low altitude, and TAC. A solid shaded blue line depicts the lateral limits of Class B airspace. Numbers indicate the base and top ie 100/25, 100/SFC

119
Q

What basic ATC services are provided to all aircraft operating within Class B airspace

A

VFR pilots will be provided sequencing and separation from other aircraft while operating within Class B airspace

120
Q

It becomes apparent that wake turbulence may be encountered while ATC is providing sequencing and separation services in Class B airspace. Whose responsibility is it to avoid this turbulence

A

The PIC is responsible. ATC services do not relieve pilots of the responsibilities to see and avoid, adjust flight path to avoid wake turbulence, maintain terrain and obstruction clearance, remain in Wx condition equal to or better than required

121
Q

What is the max. speed allowed in Class B airspace, under 10,000’ MSL, and within Class D surface area

A

Unless otherwise authorized by ATC no person may operate an A/C at or below 2,500’ AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport of a Class C, D airspace at an indicated speed of 200 knots.

However, while within Class B airspace the speed limit is 250 Kts

122
Q

When operating beneath the lateral limits of Class B airspace, or in a VFR corridor designated through CLass B airspace, what maximum speed is authorized

A

200 Kts

123
Q

What is Class C airspace

A

Surface to 4,000’ MSL for airports with a control tower and radar and have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements

124
Q

What are the basic dimensions of class C airspace

A

Tailored to each airport
Typically 5NM radius from surface to 4,000’ MSL and a 10 NM shelf from 1,200’ to 4,000’ MSL
Outer area is 20NM

125
Q

What minimum pilot certification is required to operate an aircraft within Class C airspace

A

Student pilot

126
Q

What minimum equipment is required to operate an aircraft within Class C airspace

A

automatic pressure alt. reporting equipment with Mode C capability

127
Q

When operating an aircraft through Class C airspace or to an airport within Class C airspace, what basic requirements must be met

A

Establish 2 way radio comm with the ATC facility and maintain comm while within the airspace

128
Q

What does it mean to establish two way radio comm within Class C airspace

A

ATC must use the aircraft call sign in order for comm to be established

129
Q

When departing an airport without a control tower located within Class C airspace what requirements must be met

A

Establish comm with Class C ATC as soon as practicable after departing

130
Q

What are the Class C VFR Wx minimums

A

3 SM vis

1,5,2 clouds

131
Q

How is class C airspace depicted on nav charts

A

A solid magenta line is used to depict Class C airspace.

132
Q

What type of ATC services are provided when operating within Class C airspace

A

sequencing to the primary airport

Class C services within the Class C airspace and outer area

133
Q

Describe the various types of terminal radar services available for VFR A/C

A

Basic radar service - Safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited radar vectoring on a workload permitting bases and sequencing when procedures have been established for that reason and/or when covered by a letter of agreement

TRSA Service - radar sequencing and separation service for VFR A/C in a TRSA

Class C Service - Basic radar service plus separation between IFR and VFR A/C and VFR arrival sequencing to the primary airport

Class B Services - Basic radar service plus approved separation fo A/C based on IFR, VFR, and/or weight and sequencing of VFR A/C to the primary airport

134
Q

Where is Mode C altitude encoding transponder equipment required

A

At or above 10,000 MSL within the 48 excluding airpace below 2,500 AGL

Within 30 NM of Class B primary airport below 10,000 MSL

Within and above Class C airspace up to 10,000 MSL

Within 10 miles of designated airports, excluding that airspace which is both outside the Class D surface area and below 1,200 AGL

All A/C flying into, within, or across US ADIZ

135
Q

What is the maximum speed an aircraft may be operated within Class C airspace

A

Unless otherwise authorized by ATC 200 Knots

136
Q

What is Class D airspace

A

Surface to 2,500 MSL around airports with a control tower. Configuration is tailored to each airport and contain procedures if they are available

137
Q

When operating an aircraft through Class D airspace or to an airport within class D airspace, what requirements must be met

A

Establish two-way radio comm with ATC before entering and maintain comm while within the airspace

138
Q

When departing a satellite airport without a control tower located within Class D airspace, what requirement must be met

A

Must establish and maintain comm with ATC as soon as practical after departure

139
Q

Is an ATC clearance required if flight operations are conducted through a Class E surface area arrival extension

A

Surface area arrival extensions become part of the surface area and are in effect during the same time as the surface area.

140
Q

What min. Wx conditions are required for VFR flight in Class D airspace

A

3SM Vis
1,000’ above
500’ below
2,000 side to side

141
Q

How is Class D airspace depicted on navigational charts

A

Blue segmented lines

142
Q

What type of ATC services are provided when operating within Class D airspace

A

No separation services are provided for VFR flight

Traffic advisories, safety alerts, and traffic info for sequencing will be provided on a workload permitting bases

143
Q

What is the max speed an aircraft may be operated within Class D airspace

A

Unless authorized by ATC no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 above the surface within 4 NM of the primary airport at an speed of more than 200 KT

144
Q

When a control tower, located at an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the lower limit of the controlled airspace

A

Class E surface area rules, or a combination of Class E rules down to 700’ AGL and Class G rules to the surface will apply. Check Chart Supplement for specifics

145
Q

Will all airport with an operating control tower always have Class D airspace surrounding them

A

No, some airports do not have the required weather reporting capability necessary for surface based controlled airspace. The controlled airspace over these airports will normally begin at 700’ or 1,200’ AGL and can be determined from visual aeronautical charts

146
Q

What is the definition of Class E controlled airspace

A

Controlled airspace is airspace of defined dimensions within which ATC service is provided to IFR flight and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification.

Controlled airspace is a generic term that covers A, B, C, D, and E airspace

147
Q

State Several examples of Class E airsapce

A

Surface area designated for an airport where a CT is not in operation - Class E surface areas extend upward from the surface to a designated alt. or to the adjacent or overlying controlled airspace and are configured to contain all instrument procedures

Extension to a surface area - Class E airspace may be designated as extension to Class B, C, D, and E surface areas. Class E starts at the surface and up to the overlaying airspace. Provides controlled airspace for instrument procedures without imposing a communication requirement for VFR flight

Airspace used for transition - Class E airspace areas may be designated for transitioning aircraft to/from the terminal or enroute env. They extend upward from 700’ or 1,200’ AGL and are designated for airports with an approved instrument procedure. The transition area remains in effect all the time regardless of airport operating hours or surface area status

Enroute domestic areas - Class E airspace areas that extend upward form a specified altitude and provide controlled airspace in those areas where there is a requirement to provide IFR enroute ATC services but the federal airway system is inadequate

Federal airway and low-altitude RNAV routes - Federal airway and low-alt RNAV routes are Class E airspace areas and unless otherwise specified, extend upward from 1,200’ AGT to FL180

Offshore airspace areas - Class E airspace areas that extend upward from a specified altitude to but not including FL180. These areas provide controlled airspace beyond 12 miles from the coast of the US in those areas where there is a requirement to provide IFR enroute ATC services and within which the US is applying domestic procedures

Unless designated at a lower altitude - Class E airspace in the US consist of the airspace extending upward from 14,500’ to but not including FL180 over the 48 states, DC, and Alaska and the waters 12NM around the coast

Airspace above FL600

148
Q

What are the operating rules and pilot equipment requirements to operate within Class E airspace

A

Min. Cert. Student Pilot
No special equipment required
No requirements for arrival or flight through Class E

149
Q

When a Class C or D surface area is not in effect continuously, what will happen to the surface areas when the CT closes

A

Surface area will change to either Class E surface areas or class G airspace. The Chart supplement will specify

When the surface area becomes Class G the arrival extension will also become class G at the same time, otherwise will stay as class E

150
Q

Explain the purpose of Class E transition areas

A

Class E transition areas extend upward from 700’ (magenta vignette) or 1,200’ (blue vignette) AGL and are designated for airport with an approved instrument procedure. Class E transition areas exist to help separate via cloud clearances arriving and departing IFR and VFR aircraft operating in the vicinity

151
Q

Are you required to establish communications with a tower located within a Class E airspace

A

Yes; unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft from/to, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless 2-way radio comm has been established and maintained. Com. must be established prior to 4NM from the airport up to and including 2,500 AGL

152
Q

How is class E airspace depicted on navigational charts

A

The lateral and vertical limits of all Class E controlled airspace up to but not including FL180 are shown by narrow bands of vignette on Sectional and TAC charts. Controlled airspace floors of 700’ AGL are shown by magenta vignette; floors other than 700 feet that abut uncontrolled airspace are defined by a blue vignette; differing floors greater than 700’ AGL are annotated by a symbol and a number indicating the floor. IF the ceiling is less than FL180 the value prefixed by the word ceiling is shown along the limits of the controlled airspace

153
Q

How are class E surface extension areas depicted on navigational charts

A

Magenta segmented line

154
Q

What is the definition of Class G airspace

A

Class G airspace is uncontrolled airspace that is any airspace that is not A, B,C, D, or E. ATC has no authority but VFR min. apply

155
Q

Are you required to establish comm with a tower located within Class G airspace

A

yes; unless otherwise authorized you must establish comm. with the tower prior to 4NM up to and including 2,500’ AGL

156
Q

What are the vertical limits of Class G airspace

A

Surface upto Class E airspace not to exceed 14,500’ MSL

157
Q

What is the minimum cloud clearance and visibility required when doing TP work at night below 1,200 AGTL

A

3 SM
1000’ above
500’ below
2,000’ side to side

158
Q

What is the main difference between class G and Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace

A

The main difference which distinguishes Class G airspace from A, B,C, D, and E is the flight visibility/cloud clearance requirements necessary to operate within it

159
Q

What are the flight visibility and cloud clearance for Class C, D or E airspace

A

Below 10K MSL
3 SM
1,000 Above, 500 Below, 2,000 side to side

Above 10K MSL
5SM
1,000 Above, 1,000 Below, 1SM side to side

160
Q

What are the flight visibility and cloud clearance for Class G airspace

A

At or below 1,200 AGL
Day: 1 SM and clear of clouds
Night: 3 ST 1K above, 5K Above, 2K side to side

Above 1,200 AGL below 10K MSL
Day: 1 SM 1,5,2 clouds
Night: 3 SM 1,5,2 Clouds

Above 1,200 AGL and at or above 10K SML
5SM
1,1,1

161
Q

What are the basic VFR weather minimums required for operation of an aircraft into Class B, C, D or E airspace

A

1,000 ft ceiling and 3SM vis except

1. Operate an aircraft beneath the ceiling under VFR within the lateral boundaries of controlled airspace designated to the surface for an airport when the ceiling is less than 1,000 FT
2. Take off or land an aircraft or enter the TP of an airport under VFR within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, C, D, or E airspace designated for an airport unless ground visibility at the airport is at least 3 SM or if ground visibility is not reported, unless flight visibility during landing or takeoff or while in the TP is at least 3 SM
162
Q

If VFR flight minimums cannot be maintained, can a VFR flight be made into Class B, C, D or E airspace

A

No with one exception. A Special VFR clearance may be obtained from ATC prior to operating within a Class B, C, D or E surface area provided the flight can remain clear of clouds with at least 1 SM ground visibility if taking orr or landing or 1 SM flight visibility for operating within Class B, C, D, and E surface area

163
Q

Are special VFR clearances always available to pilots in all classes of airspace

A

A VFR pilot may be given a clearance to enter, leave or operate within Class D and E surface areas and some Class C and B surface areas traffic permitting and providing such flight does not delay IFR Ops

Some B and C prohibit Special VFR and can be found in Part 91

164
Q

It becomes apparent that a special VFR clearance will be necessary, what facility should the pilot contact in order to obtain one

A

In Class B, C, or D surface area clearance should be obtained from the tower

In Class E clearance may be obtained from the nearest tower, FSS, or center

165
Q

Can a SVFR clearance be obtained into or out of Class B, C, D, or E airspace at night

A

Only if the pilot is instrument rated and the A/C is equipped for IFR flight. Otherwise SVFR at night is prohibited

166
Q

What is a prohibited area

A

Prohibited areas contain certain airspace of defined dimensions identified by an area on the surface of the earth within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited. Such areas are established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare

167
Q

What is a restricted area

A

Area where flight is not prohibited but subjected to restrictions. These areas denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Penetration of restricted areas without authorization from the controlling facility may be extremely hazardous to the A/C and its occupants

168
Q

Under what conditions if any may a pilot enter restricted or prohibited areas

A

No person may operate an A/C in a restricted area contrary to the restrictions imposed, or within a prohibited area, unless that person has the permission of the using or controlling agency.

Normally no operations are permitted in a prohibited area and permission must always be obtained before operating in a restricted area

169
Q

What is a warning area

A

Airspace of defined dimensions extending form 3NM outward from the coast of the US containing activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The purpose of such an area is to warn nonparticipating pilots of the potential danger. A warning area may be located over domestic or international waters or both

170
Q

What is a MOA

A

Military Operating Area - Airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of separating certain military activities from IFR traffic.

VFR pilots should exercise extreme caution while flying within an MOA when military activity is being conducted.

MOA status can change frequently, pilots should contact any FSS within 100NM of an MOA to obtain real-time information. Prior to entering an MOA pilots should contact ATC for traffic advisories

171
Q

A

Areas depicted on charts to inform pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of flight training or unusual type of aerial activity. Pilots should be very alert to other traffic within the alert area

172
Q

What are Controlled Firing Areas

A

CFA contain activity that is very hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft if conducted in a non controlled env.

The area is not charted and activity is suspended immediately when spotter A/C radar or ground lookout positions indicate an A/C might be approaching the CFA

173
Q

What is a National Security Area

A

NSA consist of airspace of defined vertical and lateral dimensions established at locations where there is a requirement for increased security and safety of ground facilities. Pilots are requested to voluntarily avoid flying through the depicted NSA. When necessary NSA flight may be prohibited under 14 CFR 99.7

174
Q

What is a Special Flight Rules Area

A

AN SFRA is an area of airspace within which Special regulations apply. Eg. D.C SFRA and Grand Canyon SFRA.

Ops requirements and procedures to operate within the SFRA can be found in 14 CFR 93. Always check NOTAM for changes

175
Q

Where can information on Special use airspace be found

A

Special use airspace except CFA are charted on IFR or VFR charts including the hours of ops, altitudes, and controlling agency

176
Q

Where can a pilot find info on VFR flyways, VFR Corridors, and Class B airspace transition routes used to transition busy terminal airspace

A

Reverse side of a VFR terminal chart area aka class B airspace chart

177
Q

What are military training routes

A

Routes for use by the military to conduct low-alt high speed training.

Routes above 1,500 AGL developed to be flow to max ext. possible under IFR. At 1,500 AGL or below are developed for VFR flight

Below 1,500 AGL used 4 digit ID e.g. IR1004, VR1008)

Routes above 1,500 AGL use 3 digit ID (IR003, VR 004). IR is for IFR VR is for VFR

178
Q

What is a TRSA

A

A terminal radar service area consist of airspace surrounding designated airport wherein ATC provides radar vectoring, sequencing, and separation on a full time basis for all IFR and participating VFR A/C. Pilot participation is urged but not mandatroy

179
Q

What class of airspace is a TRSA

A

TRSA do not fit into any of the US airspace. The primary airport within a TRSA become class D airspace. The remaining airspace is normally class E starting at 700’ or 1,200’ and established to transition to/from the enroute/terminal env.

180
Q

How are TRSA depicted on NAV charts

A

Solid black line and alt. for each segment. Class D portion is still with a blue segmented line

181
Q

What are ADIZ and where are they located

A

Air Defense Id Zone is an area of airspace over land or water, extending upward from the surface within which the ready id, location, and the control of A/C are requried in the interest of national security

Domestic - located within US along international boundary
Coast - Located over coast waters of the US
Distant Early Warning ID Zone (DEWIZ) located over coast waters of Alaska
Land-based ADIZ - located over US metropolitan areas

182
Q

What requirements must be satisfied prior to operations into, within or across a ADIZ

A

Flight plan - An IFR, or DVFR flight plan must be filed with the appropriate aeronautical facility

Transponed - A/C must be equipped with an operable radar beacon transponder having altitude reporting Mode C capabilities. Must be turned on and set to the ATC code

Position reports - For IFR flight normal position reports for DVFR flights, an estimated time of ADIZ penetration must be filed at least 15min prior to entry

A/C position tolerances - Over land a tolerance of +/- 5 minutes from the estimated time over a reporting point and within 10NM from the centerline of an intended track over an estimated reporting point. Over water +/- 5min and 20NM from the centerline of the reporting point

Land-based ADIZ are activated and deactivated as needed with info shared via NOTAMs. In addition to other ADIZ req. pilots must report landing or leaving the land-base ADIZ if flying too low for radar coverage

183
Q

Discuss Class A airspace

A

FL180 to FL600

Only IFR

ATC Clearance

Must be Instrument rated

All A/C have seperation

184
Q

Discuss Class B airspace

A
Surface to 10K' MSL
IFR and VFR traffic
ATC clearance
Private or Student pilot
VFR Vis 3SM
VFR Cloud: Clear
A/C Separation for all
Conflict resolution
185
Q

Discuss Class C airsapce

A
Surface to 4,000' AGL charted in MSL
IFR and VFR
ATC clearance for IFR radio contact for all
Student pilot
VFR Vis: 3 SM
VFR Clouds: 1,5,2
Separation for IFR and SVFR and runway ops
186
Q

Discuss Class D airspace

A
Surface to 2,500 AGL charted in MSL
IFR and VFR traffic
ATC clearance for IFR; radio contact for all
Student pilot
VFR Vis: 3SM
VFR Clouds: 1,5,2
IFR and SVFR separation and runway ops
187
Q

Discuss Class E airspace

A

From surface or a designated altitude to the overlaying adjacent controlled airspace not to exceed 17,999’ MSL

IFR and VFR
ATC clearance for IFR
Student pilot
2 way radio for IFR only
VFR Vis: 3SM below 10K MSL 5SM above
VFR CLoud: 1,5,2 below 10K MSL, 1,1,1 above
IFR and SVFR separation
No conflict resolution
188
Q

Discuss Class G airspace

A

Surface upto Class E airspace not to exceed 14,500 MSL
IFR and VFR
No entry requirement
Student pilot
VFR vis 1SM day 3SM at night below 10,000 MSL then 5SM
VFR Cloud: below 1,200 day clear of; night 1,5,2 above 1,200 AGL day/night 1,5,2
No separation or conflict resolution
Traffic on a workload permitting bases

189
Q

When is immediate notification to the NTSB required

A

When an accident or serious incident occurs

a. flight control system malfunction
b. Crewmember unable to perform normal duties
c. Inflight fire
d. Aircraft collision inflight
e. Property damage, other than A/C, exceeding \$25,000
f. Overdue A/C believed to be in accident
g. Release of all or portion of a propeller blade from an A/C
h. Complete loss of info excluding flickering from more than 50% of an A/C EFIC cockpit display

190
Q

Define A/C incident

A

An A/C incident means an occurrence other than an accident associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations

191
Q

Define A/C accident

A

An accident means an occurrence associated with the operation of an A/C which takes place between the time any person boards the A/C with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the A/C receives substantial damage

192
Q

Define serious injury

A

Any injury that

a. requires hospital stay of more than 48h within 7 days from the date of the injury
b. results in a fracture of any bone except simple fractures of fingers, toes, or nose
c. Causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage
d. involves any internal organ
e. involves second or third degree burns affecting more than 5% of the body surface

193
Q

Define the term substantial damage

A

damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of the A/C and which would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component. Engine failure or damage limited to an engine if only one engine fails or is damaged; bent fairing or cowling; dented skin, small punctures holes in the skin or fabric; ground damage to rotor or propeller blades; and damage to landing gear wheels, tires, flaps, engine accessories, breaks, or wing tips are not considered substantial damage for the purpose of this part

194
Q

Will notification to the NTSB always be necessary in any aircraft accident even if there were no injuries

A

Reporting to the NTSB is required if there is substantial damage OR injuries and reporting in those cases is always required

195
Q

Where are accident or incident reports filed

A

The NTSB office nearest to the accident

196
Q

How soon after an incident or accidents must a report be filed

A

For accidents within 10 days after the accident or after 7 days if an overdue A/C is still missing

Incidents shall be filed only as requested by an authorized NTSB rep.

197
Q

Can the FAA use NASA reports for enforcement purposes

A

No, excepte information concerning accidents or criminal offenses which are wholly excluded from the program. By submitting a report within 10 days following an incident the pilot is not protected from the FAA finding a violation or regulation, but may be providing himself some immunity from a civil penalty or possible suspension of cert.

198
Q

What type of aeronautical lighting is VASI

A

Visual Approach Slope Indicator - provide visual descent information during landing

199
Q

What is a PAPI

A

Precision Approach Path Indicator

4 white 3.5+ high
3 white 3.2 degrees slight high
two white on glide path
1 white 2,8 low
4 red 2.5 low
200
Q

What does the operation of an airport rotating beacon during the hours of daylight indicate

A

Ground vis is less than 3 miles and/or ceiling is less than 1,000’. Cannot be relied on as there is no regulation for operating the beacon during the day to indicate IFR conditions

201
Q

What are the six types of signal installed at airports

A

Mandatory instruction sign - red back / white letters (runway, critical area, prohibited area)

Location sign - black back / yellow test (taxiway, unway location, boundary of the runway, or ILS critical area)

Direction sign - yellow back / black text (intersecting taxiways)

Destination sign - yellow back / black text - info on location of runway has arrows

Information sign - yellow back / black text - info on areas that cannot be seen from the tower

Runway distance remaining sign - Black back / white text distance of runway remaining in 1,000’ feet

202
Q

What color are runway marking? taxiway markings

A

runway markings are white

taxiway markings are yellow

203
Q

how is a runway threshold marked

A

Either 8 stripes or related to the width of the runway shows the start of the runway available for landing

204
Q

How is a displaced threshold marked

A

10-foot wide white threshold line across the width with white arrows across the center line

205
Q

Runway hold position markings

A

show where an A/C needs to stop if it doesn’t have a clearance onto the runway. Can also be on a runway if a runway is used for LAHSO. 4 yellow lines, two solid and two dashed six inches apart across the taxiway/runway

206
Q

Temporarily closed runways and taxiways

A

Yellow crosses placed at each end of the runways. Taxiways are barricaded or have yellow crosses at the entrance to the taxiway

207
Q

Permanently closed runways and taxiways

A

lighting circuits will be disconnected. Threshold, runway designation, and touchdown markings are removed and yellow crosses are at each end of the runway and every 1K feet

208
Q

What are the different methods a pilot may used to determine the proper runway and traffic pattern in use at an airport without a CT

A
1. UNICOM station usually will include wind direction, velocity, favored or designated runway, right or left traffic, altimeter setting, known traffic, NOTAMS
2. Completely automated UNICOM system. Info of availability can be found in the chart supplement
3. A segmented circle visual indicator system consisting of the segmented circle, wind direction indicator, landing direction indicator, landing strip indicator, traffic pattern indicator
209
Q

What is the standard direction of turns when approaching an uncontrolled airport for landing

A

Turns should be made to the left unless a traffic pattern indicator indicates that turns should be made to the right

210
Q

What is considered standard traffic pattern altitude

A

Unless otherwise established 1,000’ AGL is recommended. Most airports TP for propeller-driven A/C is from 600 to 1,500 AGL

211
Q

What recommended entry and departure procedure should be used at airport without an operating control tower

A

Enter TP in level flight abeam the midpoint of the runway at pattern altitude.

When departing continue straight out, or exit with a 45-degree turn to the left in a left-hand TP or right in a right hand TP beyond the departure end of the runway after reaching pattern altitude

212
Q

If in doubt about the traffic pattern altitude for a particular airport, what publication can provide this information

A

Chart Supplement

213
Q

What is an ARTCC and what useful services can it provide to VFR flights

A

Air Route Traffic Control Center is a facility established to provide air traffic control service primarily to A/C operating on IFR flight plans within controlled airspace. and principally during the en route phase of flight. Air Route Surveillance Radar allows them the capability to detect and display an A/C position while en route between terminal areas. When equipment capabilities and controller workload permit, certain advisory/assistance service may be provided to VFR A/C. Frequency may be obtained from FSS or the chart supplement. IFR enroute charts have ARTCC sector frequencies depicted

214
Q

What does code 1200 mean

A

VFR ops

215
Q

What does code 7500 mean

A

hijack

216
Q

What does code 7600 mean

A

Comm failure

217
Q

What does 7700 mean

A

General ER

218
Q

When conducting flight operations into an airport with a CT when should initial contact be established

A

219
Q

What communication procedures are recommended when departing a Class D airsapce area

A

Monitor tower for traffic advisories. Do not need to request permission to leave tower once outside of Class B, C, and D surface area

220
Q

How do you convert from standard time to UTC

A

take the local military time and add the time differential

221
Q

List the radio facilities for arrivals

A

ATIS, Approach, Tower, Ground

222
Q

LIst the radio facilities for departures

A

ATIS, Clearance Delivery, Ground, Tower, Departure

223
Q

What are NOTAMs

A

Notices To Airman - time-critical aeronautical information of either a temporary nature, or not known sufficiently in advance to permit publication on aeronautical charts or in other publications, receives immediate dissemination via the NOTAM systems. This is aeronautical info that could affect a pilot’s decision to make a flight. Includes info as airport or primary runway closure, changes in the status of nav aids, ILS, radar service availability, and other info essential to planned en route, terminal, or landing ops

224
Q

What are the 5 categories of NOTAMs

A

D - Info that requires wide dissemination via telecom and pertains to en route nav aids, civil public-use airports listed in the AFD, facilities, services, and procedures

FDC - Flight info that is regulatory in nature including but not limited to changes to IFR charts, procedures, and airspace usage

Pointer - issued by FSS to point out another NOTAM such as an FDC. Assist users in cross-referencing important information that may not be found under an airport or NAVAID ID

SAA - Special Active airspace will be activated outside the published schedule times and when required by the published schedule

Military - pertain to USAF, Army, Marines, and Navy nav aids/airpots that are part of the NAS

225
Q

All D notams will have keywords contained within the first part of the text. What are several examples of these keywords

A

RWY, TWY, RAMP, APRON, AD, OBST, NAV COM, SVC, AIRSPACE, U, O

226
Q

What is a TFR

A

Temporary Flight Restriction. Used to restrict certain aircraft from operating within a define area on a temporary basis.

227
Q

Where can NOTAM information be obtained

A
FSS
NTAP
DUATs vendors
Internet FAA.gov
FIS-B displayed in cockpit
228
Q

When are VFR flight plans required to be filed

A

Except for operation in or penetrating a Costal or domestic ADIZ or DEWIZ a VFR flight plan is not required but it is strongly recommended to file one with the FAA to ensure you get VFS search and rescue protection

229
Q

What is a DVFR flight plan

A

Defense VFR must be filed before departure when flying in or through a ADIZ or DEWIZ

230
Q

When you land at an airport with a CT, will the CT automatically close your flight plan

A

No, CT will not close your VFR or DVFR flight plan as it does not know if an A/C is on a flight plan. You should close your flight plant with the closest FSS if available. If no FSS is available you can request ATC to relay the information for you

231
Q

If your flight is behind schedule, and you do not report the delay, or you forget to close your flight plan, how much time from ETA does the FSS allow before search and rescue effort are begun

A

30 minutes

232
Q

What is wake turbulence

A

A phenomenon resulting from the passage of an aircraft through the atmosphere. The term includes vortices, thrust stream turbulence, jet blas, jet wash, propeller wash, and rotor wash, both on the ground and in the air

233
Q

Where are wake turbulence and wingtip vortices likely to occur

A

Behind and below the aircraft especially at low altitudes. The greatest vortex happen the the A/C is heavy, clean and slow

234
Q

Wake Avoidance: Landing behind an larger A/C same runway

A

Stay at or above the A/C final approach path, land beyond it’s touchdown point

235
Q

Wake Avoidance: Landing behind a large A/C parallel runway loser than 2,500’

A

Stay at or above the A/C approach path land beyond it’s touchdown point, consider possible drift

236
Q

Wake Avoidance: Landing behind a large A/C crossing runways

A

Cross above the A/C flight path

237
Q

Wake Avoidance: Landing behind a departing large A/C same runway

A

Land before the A/C rotation point

238
Q

Wake Avoidance: Landing behind a departing larger A/C crossing runways

A

Not the rotation point: If past the intersection land before the intersection. If rotation is before the intersection avoid flight below the A/C flight path, go-around unless you can ensure landing before the intersection

239
Q

Wake Avoidance: Departing behind a larger AC

A

Rotate before the A/C point of rotation fly above the A/C flight path and turn clear of the A/C wake. Avoid headings that will cross below and behind the A/C

240
Q

Wake Avoidance: Intersection takeoffs, same runway

A

241
Q

Wake Avoidance: T/O or landing after a large A/C executed a low approach, missed, or touch and go

A

Vortices settle and move laterally near the ground. Because of this, the vortex hazard may exist along the runway and in your flight path after a large A/C has executed a low or missed approach or TnG. Make sure you wait 2min before you T/O or Land

242
Q

Wake Avoidance: EN route VFR 1,000’ + 500

A

Avoid flight below and behind a large A/C paths. Adjust position laterally preferably upwind

243
Q

Explain Runway width illusion

A

A narrower-than-usual runway can create the illusion that you are higher than you actually are. Pilots will fly a lower approach risking landing short or hitting objects

A wider than normal has to opposite effect making pilots fly a high approach risking rounding out too early and landing hard or overshooting

244
Q

Explain Runway and terrain slopes illusion

A

Upsloping runway, terrain, or both make the pilot think they are higher than it actually is causing the pilot to fly a lower approach.

Downslope has the opposite effect

245
Q

Explain featurless terrian illusion

A

Absence of ground features as when landing over water, darkened areas, can cause the pilot to think they are higher than they really are and cause them to fly a lower approach

246
Q

Explain atmospheric illusion

A

Rain on the windscreen can create the illusion of greater height and haze can cause you to think you are further away from the runway than you really are causing the pilot to fly a lower approach

247
Q

What is LAHSO

A

Land and Hold Short. A clearance that requires the pilot to land and hold short of a specified point on the runways.

Student pilots and pilots not familiar with LAHSO should reject the clearance. It should only be accepted if the pilot can determine they can land and stop within the available landing distance. Reject if below basic VFR Wx min. or if PIC feels it will compromise safety

248
Q

Where can available landing distance ALD data be found

A

ALD data are published in the special notices section of the chart supplement. ATC can also provide the data on request

249
Q

Collision Avoidance: Before take off

A

Check both approach ends of runway for possible landing traffic

250
Q

Collision Avoidance: Climbs and descents

A

During climbs and descents in flight conditions that permit visual detection of other traffic, pilots should execute gentle banks left and right at frequencies that allow continuous visual scanning of the airspace

251
Q

Collision Avoidance: Straight and level

A

Execute appropriate clearing procedures at periodic intervals

252
Q

Collision Avoidance: Traffic Patterns

A

Entries into traffic pattern while descending should be avoided

253
Q

Collision Avoidance: VOR site

A

Sustained vigilance should be maintained in the vicinity of VOR and intersections

254
Q

Collision Avoidance: Training Ops

A

Vigilance and clearing turns prior to a practice maneuver. High-win A/C should raise the wing, low-wing should lower. Pilot should call out clear left/right above/below

255
Q

Where should you look for drones in your area

A

Below 400’ AGL in daylight and clear of clouds

256
Q

What are the 3 major areas that contribute to runway incursions

A

Communications - misunderstanding the given clearance

Airport knowledge - failure to navigate the airport correctly inability to read airport signs

Cockpit procedures for maintaining orientation - failure to maintain situational awareness

257
Q

Preflight planning for taxi ops should be an integral part of the pilots flight planning process. What information should be included

A

Review airport signs and markings

Review diagram and planned taxi routes, ID hot spots

Review NOTAMs and ATIS for RWY TWY closures

Conduct a pre-taxi/pre-landing briefing that includes the expected taxi route and hold short lines and restrictions

Plan for critical times and locations on the taxi route complex intersections, crossing runways etc

Plan to complete as many A/C checklist items as possible before taxi

258
Q

What is an airpot hot spot

A

Runway safety related problem area or intersection on an airpot. Typically complex or confusing taxiway-taxiway or taxiway-runway intersections

259
Q

Why is use of sterile cockpit procedures important when conducting taxi ops

A

So pilots can focus on their duties without being distracted. Pax should be briefed on the importance of min conversation and questions during taxi, departure, and arrival

260
Q

When should a pilot request progressive taxi instructions

A

When unfamiliar with the airport or confusion exists as to the correct taxi routing

261
Q

After completing your pre-tax briefing of the taix route ATC gives a different route. What potential pitfall is common in this situation

A

Short term memory is of limited duration. Pilots need to follow the instructions given not the ones they planned for

262
Q

Why is it a good idea to write down taxi instructions

A

So you don’t forget parts of the instruction and for read-back to ATC

263
Q

When issued taxi instruction to an assigned takeoff runway, are you automatically authorized to cross any runway that intersects your taxi route

A

No. You must have a clearance for each runway you will cross during taxi

264
Q

When receiving taxi instructions from ATC pilots should always read back what information

A

Runway assignment
Clearance to enter a specific runway
Hold short instructions

265
Q

What are some recommended practices that can assist a pilot in maintaining situational awareness during taxi ops

A

Current diagram

Monitor ATC instructions for others for the big pic

Focus outside the cockpit

use all available resources: diagrams, signs, marking, light, ATC

Cross-ref HSI to ensure turns are in the correct direction

Prior to crossing any hold short visually check for traffic

Be alert for other A/C with similar call signs on the freq.

266
Q

How can a pilot use A/C exterior lighting to enhance situational awareness and safety during airport surface ops

A

Engines running - Turn on rotating beacon whenever an engine is running

Taxiing - turn on nav position and anti-collision lights

Crossing a runway - all lights should be on

Entering/departing runway for T/O - All light except landing should be on

Cleared for takeoff - ALl light including landing light should be on

267
Q

During calm or nearly calm wind conditions, at an airport without an CT, a pilot should be aware of what potentially hazardous situations

A

A/C may be landing or taking off on more than one runway. May be using instrument approach procedures

268
Q

You have just landed at a controlled airport and missed your assigned taxiway for exiting the runway. Can you turn around on the runway and return to the exit taxi

A

No; unless authorized by ATC

269
Q

When taxiing at a non-towered airport, what are several precautionary measures you should take prior to entering or crossing a runway

A

Listen on CTAF for inbound A/C information. Scan full length of the runway. Self-announce your position and intentions and remember not everyone has a radio

270
Q

ATC has instructed you to line up and wait on the departure runway due to crossing traffic on an intersecting taxiway. What is a reasonable amount of time to wait for a T/O clearance before calling ATC

A

90 seconds or if you see or hear a conflict

271
Q

What are several actions you can take to enhance A/C security

A

Lock A/C
Keep track off door and ignition keys and don’t leave them unattended
Use secondary locks or A/C disabler if available
Lock hangar when unattended

272
Q

What type of airport security procedures should you review regularly to prevent unauthorized access to aircraft at your airport

A
Limit ramp access
Standard for securing A/C on the ramp
Auxiliary security items (prop locks)
After-hours or weekend access procedures
273
Q

Give some examples of what you would consider suspicious activity at an airport

A

unusual modifications such a N-number
People loitering for extended period of time near A/C
Anyone making threats
Events that do not fit the normal pattern of airport activity
Pilots appearing to be under the control of others

274
Q

When witnessing suspicious or criminal activity, what are three basic ways for reporting the suspected actrivity

A

Contact local law enforcement
866-GA-SECURE hotline

275
Q

What is the purpose of hte 866-GA-SECURE phone number

A

TSA hotline to take reports of suspicious or criminal activity happening at GA airports. This does not dispatch local law enforcement

276
Q

What are several sources of information available to pilots interested in additional guidance on aviation secuirty

A

Security Guidelines for General Aviation Airports

Flight School Security Awareness Training for Aircraft and Simulators