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Flashcards in CSCS Deck (491):
1

The length-tension relationship of muscle is based on the following fact:

As muscle lengthens, the tension changes and is highest at the middle length.

2

All of the following sections of the sarcomere shorten during a concentric muscle action EXCEPT the A-band distance between Z-lines H-zone I-band

A-band

3

All of these factors contribute to venous return EXCEPT the muscle pump the respiratory pump vasoconstriction venoconstriction

vasoconstriction

4

This ion, stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum, is released into the sarcoplasm to signal the beginning of the contraction process:

calcium

5

Which of the following will increase the dissociation between hemoglobin and oxygen? high partial pressure of oxygen increased pH increased temperature low partial pressure of CO2

increased temperature

6

All else being equal, this type of muscle fiber arrangement will be associated with higher forces:

bipennate

7

Internal rotation of the hip takes place in this plane:

transverse

8

The joint involving the femur and tibia is an example of this type of joint:

synovial

9

Josephine performs a biceps curl, lifting a weight from the extended arm position up to full flexion of the elbow. This movement provides an illustration of this type of lever system:

third-class

10

You meet up with your friend Heidi in the weight room. You haven’t seen her since she'd injured her leg during track practice. You observe that she’s performing progressive loading exercises with her injured leg. From this observation, you realize that she’s probably in this phase of healing:

remodeling

11

The primary substrate for a 50-meter sprint is

creatine phosphate

12

The general recommendation for dietary fat is

30% of total calories

13

At the beginning of aerobic exercise, before reaching steady state, an individual will be in this state:

oxygen deficit

14

The hormone used illegally by some athletes to enhance red blood cell production in the body is

erythropoietin

15

In order to lose 10 pounds, an individual will have to have a deficit of this many calories:

35,000 kilocalories

16

All of the following are examples of training adaptations for aerobic exercise EXCEPT increased blood volume increased capillary density increased heart rate at a given rate of exercise increased oxygen extraction at a given rate of exercise increased stroke volume at a given rate of exercise

increased heart rate at a given rate of exercise

17

All of the following are signs of overtraining EXCEPT decreased muscle glycogen decreased performance increased maximal oxygen uptake increased muscle soreness increased submaximal heart rate

increased maximal oxygen uptake

18

During maximal intensity activities (>90% of maximum) which fibers will be recruited?

Type I, Type IIa, and Type Iib

19

Which principle of training is based on the idea that one should target the sport-related energy pathways and muscle groups?

specificity

20

Exercise results in an increase in this system's activity:

Sympathetic

21

Adaptations in all of the following contribute to increases in VO2max with endurance training EXCEPT heart rate stroke volume mitochondrial density capillary density

Heart rate

22

Which of the following is NOT a training goal for an aerobic endurance athlete?

increase VO2submax

23

An application of the principle of overload for an aerobic endurance athlete would be to have the athlete train

above lactate threshold

24

Toni wants to increase the speed at the end of her endurance running performance. The best training method for achieving this goal is

Repetition

25

Sally spent her Spring break training in the heat in Florida. She pushed herself more than usual and refused to take off any days. On three days she doubled her workout by running her program in the morning and again in the evening. When she returned from break, she found that her resting heart rate was higher than normal. This increase in heart rate was likely due to this:

Overtraining syndrome

26

Which of the following is the most effective type of exercise for optimizing sport-specific muscular strength for well-trained athletes? assistance exercises core exercises structural exercises

Core exercises

27

An individual’s 1RM can be assessed in all of the following exercises EXCEPT Bicep curl Knee ext Shoulder press Calf raise

Shoulder press

28

This training goal requires the longest recovery time between sets:

Muscular strength and power

29

Which of the following statements is true about training to optimize muscular hypertrophy? It should be high volume with a moderate-to-low intensity load and short rest periods. It should be moderate volume with a moderate-to-low intensity load and short rest periods. It should be low volume with a high-intensity load and short rest periods. It should be low volume with a high-intensity load and long rest periods.

It should be high volume with a moderate-to-low intensity load and short rest periods.

30

Ian is training his quadriceps muscles for muscular endurance. The strength and conditioning coach has prescribed three sets of leg presses. What is the optimum amount of time between sets to help achieve his training goal?

30 seconds

31

Have athletes perform this type of recovery between 800 meter sprints for the quickest reduction in lactic acid.

Active recovery

32

To increase the runner’s stride frequency during the maximum speed of sprinting, use this type of training resisted sprinting assisted sprinting inverted sprinting converged sprinting

Assisted sprinting

33

Jake wants to begin a plyometrics training program, but his coach has advised him that in order to begin upper-body plyometric exercises, he must be able to bench press a minimum weight to be considered ready. Based on his personal information (height 6'2", weight 190 lbs., 22 years of age), what is the minimum weight that Jake must bench press in order to be considered ready for upper-body plyometrics training? 95 lbs. 190 lbs. 285 lbs. 380 lbs.

285 lbs

34

The ability to perform a quick change in direction of a movement such as that observed during a movement involving the stretch-shortening cycle is called contractility effort distribution reaction time reactive ability

reactive ability

35

Paula has several years of experience with resistance and plyometric training. Based on her training, what is the suggested plyometric training volume? 80 to 100 100 to 120 120 to 140 140 to 200

120 to 140

36

For most resistance training exercises, the athlete should be instructed to

Exhale through the sticking point

37

The correct order of the movement phases used in a power clean is beginning position, catch, first pull, scoop, second pull beginning position, first pull, catch, second pull, scoop beginning position, first pull, scoop, second pull, catch beginning position, first pull, second pull, scoop, catch beginning position, scoop, first pull, second pull, catch

beginning position, first pull, scoop, second pull, catch

38

Andrea finds that her athletes’ performance on the push-up test and the YMCA bench press test is not similar, even though both tests are designed to assess muscular endurance of the upper body. These tests appear to lack this type of validity. concurrent validity construct validity content validity convergent validity

concurrent validity

39

Barbara read a research article that reported the Jackson & Pollock skinfold equation provided body composition estimates that were consistent with results from underwater weighing, a method considered the "gold standard" for body composition analysis. What type of validity does the Jackson-Pollock equation have based on this study?

convergent validity

40

Of the options listed below, which test would be most appropriate to use to test the general strength necessary for a football offensive lineman? the 1 RM leg extension the 1.5-mile run the 1RM bench press skinfold measures

1 RM bench

41

Which of the following tests will provide the most pertinent information about an athlete who is trying out as a spiker on the volleyball team? the 1RM back squat the 1RM bench press the line drill the vertical jump

Vertical jump

42

Which description best fits a test of anaerobic capacity? The movement is at low speed but requires one maximum exertion by the muscle. The movement is fast and requires maximum effort for about 1 second. The movement requires maximal effort for a duration of between 30 and 90 seconds. None of the above.

The movement requires maximal effort for a duration of between 30 and 90 seconds.

43

Bundles of Muscle Fibers

Fasciculi

44

outer most layer of connective tissue that encloses the entire muscle

Epimysium

45

Tissue covering the outside of fiber bundles

perimysium

46

connective tissue surrounding each muscle fiber

endomysium

47

the cell membrane of a muscle cell

sarcolemma

48

other name for motor end plate

neuromuscular junction

49

a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates

motor unit

50

thick filaments

myosin

51

# of myosin molecules in a myosin filament

~200

52

thin filaments of two strands in a double helix that interact with myosin

actin

53

# of actin filaments that surround each myosin filament

6

54

# of of myosin filaments that surround each actin filament

3

55

The band that corresponds with the alignment of myosin filaments

A-band

56

band that contains the actin filaments

I-band

57

Area in the center of the sarcomere where only myosin filaments are present

H-zone

58

tubules surrounding each myofibril

sarcoplasmic reticulum

59

area in the middle of the i band that appears as a thin black line

z-line

60

in a stretched muscle, the I bands and h-zone _____________. and there is _______force potential due to the reduced cross bridge alignment

elongate; low

61

troponin is situated along ________ filaments

actin

62

a protein that has a high affinity for calcium ions.

troponin

63

protein that runs along the actin filament in the groove of the double helix.

tropomyosin

64

fusing of high frequency muscles twitches

tetanus

65

kinesthesis

position of body parts with respect to gravity

66

modified muscle fibers that are part of a muscle spindle that run parallel to the normal, or extrafusal fibers.

intrafusal fibers

67

example of a muscle spindle test

knee jerk test

68

example of GTO reflex

PNF stretches

69

reduced muscle size and strength

sarcopenia

70

loss of function in older sedentary individuals is seen most prevalent in which muscles?

weight bearing extensors (lower limb and trunk extensors)

71

what area of the body does the right side of the heart pump blood?

through the lungs

72

what parts of the body does the left side of the heart pump blood to?

everywhere but the lungs.

73

each heart pump has two chambers _______and _______

atrium and ventricles

74

other name for the AV valves

tricuspid and mitral ( bicuspid) valves

75

ventricular contraction also known as________.

systole

76

other name for the semilunar valves

aortic and pulmonary valve

77

role of semilunar valves

prevent backflow from aorta and pulm arteries into ventricles during relaxation.

78

ventricular relaxation

diastole

79

role of the AV valves

prevent blood from flowing from ventricles into atria during contraction.

80

pacemaker of the heart

SA (sinoatrial node)

81

heart conduction order AV Bundle AV node left and right bundle branches SA node internodal pathways from SA node to AV

SA node > Internodal path > AV node > AV bundle > left and right branches

82

Growth hormone

stimulates IGF-1, protein synthesis and metabolism.

83

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

Stimulates glucocorticoids in the adrenal cortex

84

Analgesia

Loss of sense of pain

85

Beta endorphin

Stimulates analgesic response

86

Follicle stimulating hormone

Stimluates ovum and sperm production

87

Luteinizing Hormone

Stimulates ovulation and secretion of sex hormones in ovaries and testes

88

Prolactin

Stimulates milk production in mammary glands and maintains secretion of progesterone.

89

Melanocyte stimulating hormone

Stim. Melanocytes that have dark melanin

90

Anti diuretic hormone

Increased smooth muscle contraction and reabsorption of water by the kidneys.

91

Oxytocin

Stim uterine contractions andrelease of milk by mamm glands

92

Thyroxine

Stimulates oxidative metabolism in mitochondria and cell growth

93

Calcitonin

Reduces calcium phosphate levels in blood

94

Parathyroid hormone

Increase blood calcium, decrease blood phosphate, stimulates bone formation

95

Insulin

Stores glycogen, promotes glucose entry into cells, involved in protein syntheses

96

Glucagon

Increases blood glucose levels

97

Glucocorticoids (cortisol, cortisone)

Inhibit amino acid incorporation into proteins, stimulate breakdown of protein to carbs. promote use of fat

98

Mineralocorticoids

Increase body fluids via sodium potassium metabolism

99

Insulin like growth factors

Increase protein synthesis in cells

100

Epinephrine

Increases cardiac output, increases blood sugar and glycogen breakdown and fat metabolism.

101

Norepinephrine

Like epinephrine

102

Proenkephalin fragments

Enhance immune cell function, analgesia effects

103

Estrogens

Female sex characteristics

104

Progesterone

Female sex characteristics and mammary glands

105

Testosterone

Stimulates growth, increases protein anabolism, development of male sex characteristics.

106

Atrial peptide

Regulates sodium, potassium and fluid volume

107

Renin

Regulates kidney function,permeability and solute concentrations.

108

Antagonist

A muscle that can slow down or stop the movement.

109

What does antagonist protect against

Joint hyper extension at end range

110

Agonist

Prime mover

111

Muscle that assists indirectly in a movement. Example: scaps shoulder movement.

Synergist

112

what does the axial skeleton consist of:

skull, vertebral column, ribs and sternum

113

what does the appendicular skeleton consist of?

shoulder, arm, wrist, legs pelvic girdle. (everything else basically)

114

uniaxial joint example

elbow

115

biaxial joint example

ankle and wrist

116

fibrous joint? what is its role and an example of it

allow no movement; sutures of the skull

117

cartilaginous joints? purpose and role?

allow limited movement; intervertebral disks

118

multiaxial joint example

shoulders, hips

119

synovial joints? role and example?

considerable movement, elbow and knee

120

first class lever. muscle force and resistive force act on __________ sides.

opposite

121

flat barbell bench coaching technique 3 common errors

1. feet on top (5 point body contact) 2. bring bar below nipples on negative 3. spotter using anything other than alternating grip

122

incline bench barbell coaching tips common error

taking low back and butt off of seat and pushing up with legs ( 5 point contact)

123

flat bench dumbbell bench technique errors

1. feet on top of bench (5 point contact) 2. spotter spotting at forearms- (spotter needs to have hands by forearms)

124

incline db bench press error

1. spotter spots at elbows instead of close to forearms

125

flat barbell smith bench press errorss

1. body adjusted so that the bar falls too high- close to neck level 2. lifter locks out elbows on positives

126

machine vertical chest press errors

1. seat being too low, hands should be aligned with chest at nipple level 2. lifters head comes off seat, (5 point body contact)

127

single joint chest shoulder transverse adductors prime movers

pectoralis major; anterior deltiod

128

single joint chest shoulder girdle abductors prime movers

serratus anterior; pectoralis minor

129

Pec Deck errors

1. Seat is too low. shoulders and elbows should be perpendicular to chest in respect to nipples

130

Flat dumbbell fly errors

1. lifter has too much elbow flexion on negatives 2. Spotter needs hands on forearms instead of on elbows

131

multi joint chest shoulder transverse adductors prime movers are:

pectoralis major; anterior deltoid

132

multi joint chest shoulder girdle abductors:

serratus anterior; pec minor

133

multi joint back exercise prime movers: scapular adductors

middle trapezius; rhomboids

134

shoulder extensors for prime movers for multijoint back exercises:

lats; teres major; posterior deltoid

135

shoulder adductors:

Lats; teres major

136

Elbow flexors are:

biceps brachii; brachialis; brachioradialis

137

Lat pulldown errors

1. lifter using bar attached with "s" hook ( should use caribiner hook or D hook) 2. bar is lowered behind the head.

138

bent over barbell row error

1. lifters back is rounded during exercise

139

shoulder press shoulder abductors:

anterior deltoid; medial deltoid

140

shoulder girdle abductors:

upper trapezius; serratus anterior

141

Machine shoulder press error:

Seat is situated too low.

142

seated barbell shoulder press error

1. lifter lowers bar behind head. (should lightly touch clavicles)

143

Front shoulder db raise error

1. the lifter raises dumbbell too high (should be parallel and no higher than the floor 2. lifter raises both DB at same time...other should be at side (stationary)

144

side dumbbell raise errors

1. the lifter raises DB too high 2. lifter externally rotates wrists and elbows at the end range of the positive.

145

Barbell biceps curl errors

1. lifter flexes the shoulders during the upper movement ( no shoulder movement) 2. lifter flexes the elbows too far (elbows should not move forward towards end range)

146

low pulley biceps curl (machine) error

1. lifter rounds back during exercise ( back extended backwards and shoulders up)

147

machine biceps curl error

1.lifter sets seat too high (thighs should be parallel to floor)

148

lying barbel triceps extensions error

1. elbows flare outwards during the negative (elbows should point towards feet)

149

seated overhead barbell triceps extension error

1. lifter sets arms away from head (arms should be situated next to the ears)

150

machine triceps pushdown errors

1. lifter flexes torso forwards slightly during positive 2. lifter moves upper arms upward and brings elbows away from side of body

151

wrist flexors:

flexor carpi ulnaris flexor carpi radialis palmaris longus

152

wrist extensors:

extensor carpi ulnaris extensor carpi radialis extensor carpi longus

153

torso flexor:

rectus abdominus

154

bent knee situp errors

1. lifters knees are fully extended 2. lifter curls torso up until it is perpendicular with ground (upper back should come off ground only until elbow point to thighs)

155

bench assisted ab crunch error

1.lifter raises butt on negative (butt stays on floor whole time)

156

prime movers for hip extensors

hamstrings; glutes

157

knee extensors prime movers for quadriceps group

quads

158

ankle plantar flexors prime movers

soleus ; gastrocnemius

159

three parts of the snatch

1. first pull 2. scoop phase 3. second pull (power phase) 4. catch

160

snatch errors

1. bar is too far away from the lifter throughout the range 2. lifter jumps outwards instead of upward on triple extension

161

power clean order

1. first pull 2. scoop phase 3. second pull (power phase) 4. catch

162

power clean errors

1. lifter preforms a reverse curl to bring the bar up. 2. lifter drops weight forcefully back down.

163

hang clean error

lifter begins pull in too-erect position. needs to be slightly bent over.

164

Push press/ push jerk error

1. jumping too high

165

front squat errors

1. lifter hold bar with elbows pointed towards ground. 2. the lifter takes the heels off the floor on the negative

166

back squat error

1. lifter lets trunk fall forward

167

Hack Squat errors

1. lifter goes lower than parallel on negative 2. lifter raises hips and butt off pad on positves

168

Leg press (hip sled) error

1. lifter bows their knees inward during the range

169

Step up errors

1. lifter pushes off with the trailing leg during lift. 2. lifter only steps foot partially onto box 3. lifter incorrectly steps off of box with same leg (should use same trailing leg)

170

barbell forward lunges error

1. lifter takes too short of a step, letting knee extend over foot

171

Good morning errors

1. lifters knees are fully extended and locked out. 2. lifters back is rounded and neck flexes over trunk

172

cori cycle involves converting __________ to _________ _____.

pyruvate ; lactic acid

173

Krebs cycle involves shuttling of pyruvate into ___________.

mitochondria

174

Primary source of ATP at rest and during Low intensity

Oxidative (aerobic) system

175

primary energy system used for moderate to high intensity activities

glycolytic

176

system used for low intensity activities

oxidative

177

range of phosphagen energy systems (exercise time and work to rest ratios)

exercise time 5-10 seconds work to rest 1:12-20

178

range of fast glycolysis exercise time and rest ratio

ex time: 15-30 seconds rest 1:3

179

range of oxidative system and exercise and work to rest ratios

ex time >3 minutes work rest 1:1

180

exercise high in volume, muscle groups number and short in rest time increases this hormone level.

cortisol

181

testosterone is an example of a __________ hormone.

steroid

182

insulin is an example of a ___________ hormone.

polypeptide

183

hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary (8)

GH beta endorphin adrenocorticotropic thyroid-stimulating follicle stimulating luteinizing hormone prolactin melanocyte-stimulating

184

hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland (2)

antidiuretic hormone oxytocin

185

thyroid gland hormones (2)

thyroxine calcitonin

186

parathyroid gland hormones (1)

parathyroid hormone

187

pancreas hormones (2)

insulin glucagon

188

adrenal cortex hormones (2)

glucocorticoids mineralocoritcoids

189

Liver hormones (1)

insulin like growth factor

190

adrenal medulla hormones (3)

epinephrine norepinephrine proenkephalin fragments

191

Ovaries hormones (2)

estrogens progesterone

192

testes hormone (1)

testosterone

193

heart hormone (1)

atrial peptide

194

kidney hormone (1)

Renin

195

factors that can increase serum testosterone levels in young men (5)

short rests moderate to high volume two or more years of experience heavy resistance (85-90%) large muscle group exercises

196

diurnal variations are:

normal fluctuations in hormones throughout the day.

197

another name for growth hormone

somatotropin

198

in order to elicit more GH, _________ rest times and ________ intensities must be used.

short; high

199

IGF-1 synthesis takes about ________ hours

8-29

200

after a bout of resistance training, acute hormonal secretions provide all of the following info to the body EXCEPT amount of physio stress metabolic demands type of physio stress energy expended

energy expended

201

which of the following hormones enhance muscle tissue growth? GH Coritsol IGF-1 progesterone

Gh and IGF-1

202

all of the following are functions of GH except increase lipolysis decrease collagen synth increase amino acid transport decrease glucose utilization.

decrease collagen synthesis

203

which of the following hormones has the greatest influence on neural changes? GH Testosterone cortisol IGF-1

testosterone

204

which of the following hormone levels is higher in women at rest? cortisol insulin testosterone GH

growth hormone

205

anatomical/practical example of first class lever.

prac- see saw ana- the forearm

206

anatomical/practical 2nd class lever

wheelbarrow- prac plantar flexion of the foot- ana

207

fulcrum/force theory for 1st class levers

force is opposite sides of fulcrum

208

fulcrum/force theory for 2nd class levers

force on same side of fulcrum, muscle force has bigger lever than the resistive force

209

fulcrum/force theory for 3rd class levers

force on same side of fulcrum, muscle force has a shorter lever than the resistive force

210

radiate muscle example

deltoid

211

longitudinal muscle example

rectus abdominus

212

fusiform muscle example

biceps brachii

213

multipennate muscle example

deltoid

214

bipennate muscle example

rectus femoris

215

unipennate muscle example

tibialis posterior

216

muscle generates the greatest force at its _________ length.

resting

217

body size classic formula

load lifted __________ body weight to the 2/3 power.

218

surface drag results from

the friction of a fluid passing along a surface

219

form drag results from

the way in which a fluid presses against the front or rear of an object passing through it.

220

lordotic back meaning

slightly arched

221

kyphotic back meaning

naturally s shaped slightly rounded back

222

muscles of the rotator cuff.

supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, and teres minor

223

sagittal plane:

slices body into left and right planes

224

frontal plane:

slices body into front and back

225

transverse plane:

upper and lower body sections

226

which of the following best describes a knee joint? synovial cartilaginous ball and socket pivot

synovial

227

which of the following is the definition of power? force x velocity mass x acceleration torque x time force x distance

force x veloctiy

228

to compare performances of olympic weights lifters of different body weights, the classic formula divides the load lifted by the athletes: body weight body weight squared lean body weight body weight to the two-thirds power

body weight to the two-thirds power

229

during a free weight exercise, muscle force varies with which of the following? perp. distance from the weight to the body point joint angle movement acceleration movement velocity squared

perp distance / movement acceleration

230

a vertical jump involved knee hip and should movement primarily in which plane? sagittal perpendicular frontal transverse

sagittal

231

An athlete is performing concentric isokenetic elbow flexion and extension. which of the following types of levers occur at the elbow during this exercise? 1st 2nd 3rd

1st and 3rd

232

muscle renegeration

myogenisis

233

hyperplasia

an increase in the number of actual muscle fibers

234

osteoblasts:

migrate to bone surface and begin remodeling

235

trabecular bone

other name for spongy bone

236

cortical bone

other name for compact bone

237

which bone responds more rapidly to stimuli trabecular cortical

trabecular

238

which of the following is layer of connective tissue enveloping a single muscle fiber? endomysium perimysium epimysium myomysium

endomysium

239

which of the following is the first phase of periodization training? power hypertrophy strength plan

hypertrophy

240

which of the following lever classes has the fulcrum at one end and the effort is applied between the fulcrum and the load? I II III IV

class III

241

in a myofibril, in cross section ___ actins can interact with each myosin. 2 3 4 6

6

242

which of the following is an example of a penniform muscle? transverse abdominis abductor longus supraspinatus peroneus terius

transverse abdominis

243

which of the following is an example of a hinge joint elbow shoulder hip atlas and axis

elbow

244

which of the following is the correct formula for calculating target heart rate?

% intensity X heart rate reserve + resting heart rate

245

which of the following is not a characteristic of using growth hornomone? induces precursor cells to differentiate cause secretion of IGF-1 directly stimulates ATP production stimulates protein synthesis

directly stimulates ATP production

246

how many amino acids must be found in your diet and cannot be manufactured by your own body? 5 7 9 11

9

247

which of the following is not a byproduct of protein breakdown? Nitrogen Hydrogen Uric Acid Enzymes

enzymes

248

which of the following is not true about isometric exercise? capable of increasing muscle strength at specific joint angles no corresponding increase at other joint angles always produce spikes in systolic blood pressure could cause life threatening cardiovascular accident

always produces spikes in systolic blood pressure

249

the threshold stimulus that initiates new bone formation is ______ ________ ________ (MES)

minimal essential strain

250

Quantity of mineral deposited in a given area of bone.

Bone Mineral Density

251

hyaline cartilage is found on ___________.

articulating surfaces of bones

252

fibrous cartilage is tough and found in ___________ and ___________.

intervertebral disks and junctions of tendons.

253

rate pressure product formula

Heart rate x systolic blood pressure

254

ventilation equivalent is defined as the ratio of __________.

ratio of air ventilated to oxygen used by the tissues

255

which of the following muscle fiber types has the GREATEST potential to, when trained in a specific way, CHANGE into a more oxidative aerobic form? IIa IIx IIc

IIx

256

A weightlifter adds 30 minutes of intense stationary bicycle riding every other day to her resistance training program. which of the following describe the GREATEST effect this addition will have on her performance? power will be compromised power will be enhanced aerobic capacity improvements will be compromised aerobic capacity improvements will be enhanced

power gains will be compromised

257

A 50 year old female triathlete is concerned about osteoporosis. which of the following exercises is the most beneficial for improving her bone mineral density? front squat leg extension bench press lat pulldown

front squat

258

which of the following muscle fiber types are "bypassed" as a result of selective recruitment that allows and olympic weightlifter to generate maximum power during the 1RM snatch? I IIa IIx IIc

Type I

259

which of the following are the most effective stimulants of growth hormone production from resistance training workout? large muscle mass exercises small muscle mass exercises high intensity and volume low intensity and volume

large muscle mass; high intensity and volume

260

The initial decrease in in muscular strength caused by detraining is due to the undesired changes in which of the following systems? cardiovascular connective muscular nervous

nervous

261

cardiac output is __________.

amount of blood pumped out by the heart in liters per minute

262

stroke volume is ___________

the quantity of blood ejected with each heart beat

263

cardiac output equation is ________ x _________.

stroke volume X heart rate

264

maximal heart rate equation

220- age in years.

265

1 MET = how many ml of oxygen per kg body weight per minute?

3.5

266

fick equation: V02 = ____ X _______

q (cardiac output); a V02 difference.

267

arteriovenous oxygen difference is ____________

the difference in oxygen content between arterial and venous blood

268

tidal volume is the total amount of air ______ and ________ with each breath.

inhaled; exhaled

269

functional unit of the pulmonary system where gas exchange occurs:

alveoli

270

bradycardia

slow heart rate

271

what is myoglobin?

a protein that transports oxygen within the cell

272

Two adaptation that occur at higher altitudes

Hyperventilation Increased cardiac output at rest due to higher heart rate

273

hyperoxic breathing:

breathing oxygen enriched gas mixtures during rest periods or following exercise

274

blood doping (mechanism)

running your blood through EPO and then shuttling it back into your body.

275

A 17 year old high school cross country runner has been training aerobically for 6 months in preparation for the upcoming season. Which of the following adaptations will occur in the muscle during that time. increased concentration of glycolytic enzymes hyperplasia of type II fibers transformation from type I to Type II fibers hypertrophy of type I fibers

hypertrophy of type I fibers

276

The amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle during each beat is the ___________

stroke volume

277

All of the following normally increase during an aerobic exercise bout EXCEPT end diastolic volume cardiac contractility cardiac output diastolic blood pressure

diastolic blood pressure

278

Primary training adaptations of elite aerobically trained athletes include which of the following? increased maximal oxygen uptake decreased blood lactate concentration increased running economy decreased capillary density

I, II, III

279

The mean arterial pressure is defined as the:

average blood pressure throughout the cardiac cycle

280

which of the following is an early adaptation to acclimatizing to high altitude? decreased tidal volume decreased respiration rate increased resting cardiac output increased stroke volume

increased resting cardiac output

281

menarche is _____________.

the onset of initial menstruation in girls

282

peak height velocity is also known as the ________ __________.

growth spurt

283

the central shaft of a long bone is known as the __________.

diaphysis

284

growth cartilage is located in 3 sites in the young adult:

epiphyseal plate, the joint surface, the apophyseal insertions

285

When males and females are compared relative to muscle cross-sectional area, it appears that the potential for force production is greater in males greater in females equal in males and females dependent upon body weight

equal in males and females

286

Which of the following is the MOST significant adaptation to chronic resistance training for an older adult? increased cardiovascular fitness improved blood lipid profile increased muscle mass improved flexibility

increased muscle mass

287

An eight-year-old boy dramatically increased his upper body strength after following a six month resistance training program. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this gain? increased # of muscle fibers enhanced cross sectional area greater muscle density improved neuromuscular functioning

improved neuromuscular functioning

288

Growth cartilage in children is located at all of the following locations except diaphysis epiphyseal plate joint surface apophyseal insertion

diaphysis

289

all of the following are likely outcomes of preadolescent resistance training EXCEPT increased: resistance to injury strength hypertrophy bone density

hypertrophy

290

the condition characterized by a bone mineral density more than 2.5 SD below the young adult mean is called:

osteoporosis

291

Which of the following should be evaluated FIRST when designing a training program for a 68 year old competitive female tennis player? cardiovascular fitness lower body strength balance and agility medical history

medical history

292

Deconditioned female college athletes who participate in sports such as basketball and and soccer appear to be at an increased risk for developing injuries to the: back knee wrist neck

knee

293

state anxiety is anxiety _________.

confined to an instance in time.

294

trait anxiety is a personality characteristic that makes the person:

perceive situations as threatening

295

anxiety relating to psychological processes:

cognitive anxiety

296

anxiety relating to physical symptoms:

somatic anxiety

297

negative stress also known as ________.

distress

298

positive stress also known as __________.

eustress

299

process goals:

goals in which the athlete has control over

300

outcome goals:

goals in which the athlete has no control over.

301

successive approximation is __________.

short term goals that progress in difficulty

302

reciprocal inhibition is the principle that ________________.

a relaxed body will promote a relaxed mind.

303

somatic desensitization is ____________.

allowing an athlete to replace a fear response to various cues with a relaxation response.

304

During the closing seconds of a basketball game, an athlete's team is down by one point and he has been awarded two free throw shots. The player is apprehensive about the outcome of the game. Which of the following best describes the athletes situation? He will not be able to make the free throws He is experiencing state anxiety He is in control of his arousal His anxiety will improve his performance

He is experiencing state anxiety

305

An olympic wieghtlifter attempting a personal record is able to ignore the audience to concentrate solely on her performance. Which of the following abilities is this athlete most likely using to perform the exercise? selective attention somatic anxiety successive approximation dissociation

selective attention

306

Prior to performing the long jump, an athlete reviews and concentrates on the technique required to jump as far as possible. Which of the following strategies is the athlete using to prepare for the jump? focus on task relevant cues reliance on experience association trait anxiety

focus on task relevant cues

307

Which of the following is MOST important to achieve the ideal performance state? fear of failure analyzing performance broad focus on the activity and the environment personal control

personal control

308

An athletes desire to perform to his or her potential is an example of the motive to avoid failure dissociation intrinsic motivation achievement motivation

Intrinsic motivation

309

For a high school american football team, if any player squats two time his body weight, his name is placed on the wall. This is an example of positive reinforcement negative reinforcement negative punishment positive punishment

positive reinforcement

310

How does an athletes optimal level of arousal change with limited skill and ability to perform the activity? it increases it decreases it has no effect it is not related to the activity

it decreases because he has less confidence in himself.

311

muscle dysmorphia:

reverse anorexia that body builders struggle with where they see themselves as small and weak.

312

acromegaly is __________.

excess secretion of growth hormone resulting in a disfiguring disease.

313

The Essential Amino Acids include:

isoleucine, leucine, methione, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan

314

All of the following are ingredients that qualify as dietary supplements in the US except: EAA's vitamin c milk iodine

milk

315

All of the following describe caffeine's role in improving athletic performance except: increased power production decreased glycogen depletion increased fat oxidation decreased urine production

decreased urine production

316

Which of the following are most closely linked in a logarithmic relationship? intake of anabolic steroids intake of androstenedione increase lean body mass increase in endogenous androgen production

I and III

317

Which of the following substances has been shown by multiple research studies to improve strength performance? androstenedione creatine L-carnitine chromium

creatine

318

Which of the following is the best reason for aerobic endurance athletes to avoid erythropoietin use? hematocrit and hemoglobin levels may decrease it may cause an unregulated increase in RBC production resistance to infectious disease may be impaired it may reduce the ability of blood to carry oxygen.

may cause an unregulated increase in RBC production

319

Protein recommended intake for males and females per kg body weight:

0.8 g per kg body weight

320

Daily protein recommendation percentage:

10-15%

321

protein requirement of aerobic endurance athlete is Higher/Lower than other athlete: (___g/kg body weight)

higher; 1.4g/kg

322

dietary recommendation of fiber for men and women respectively: (g/day)

38; 25

323

daily percentage recommendation of carbs: in % and minimal grams # of carbs:

45-65 % ; 50 to 100g

324

how much fluid per pound of body weight lost should be replaced post workout:

1 pint

325

Daily calorie needs of light activity level in kcal per pounds for male and female:

17 kcal/pound - male 16 kcal/pound- female

326

daily calories needs of moderate activity level in kcal/pound for men and women:

19kcal/ pound - male 17 kcal/ pound - female

327

daily calorie needs in kg/pound of heavy activity male and female

23 kcal/pound- male 20 kcal/pound- female

328

kcal increase per day in a week needed to support 1 pound of weight gain in average athlete

350-700 kcal above maintenance

329

extra calories in kcal needed for every one pound of weight gain in athlete:

2500 kcal

330

the maximal rate of fat loss per week in terms of body fat percentage possible is ______%.

1

331

daily caloric deficit in kcal needed to lose the standard 1.1 to 2.2 pounds per week

500-1000 kcal.

332

anorexia nervosa is characterized by ___________.

a self imposed starvation in an effort to achieve weight loss

333

bulimia nervosa is characterized by _______________.

Consuming a ton of food and puking it up

334

body mass index calc.

weight (kg)/height (meters)^ 2

335

underweight BMI class

336

normal BMI class

18-25

337

overweight BMI class

25-29

338

obese BMI class

30-39 (different levels)

339

Which of the following proteins has an amino acid profile MOST similar to the body's needs? soy egg wheat rice

egg

340

Which of the following best explains the requirement for increased protein intake by athletes? decreased protein oxidation during aerobic exercise increased need for tissue repair restriction of calories to lose weight the quality of protein consumed.

increased need for tissue repair

341

Which of the following has the greatest influence on an athletes dietary carb requirement? current fat intake body size and fat % type, duration and freq of exercise resting blood sugar levels

type, duration, and freq of exercise

342

Which of the following best describes dietary fat consumption? should be less that 15% of total kcal for healthy individuals should never be higher than 40% of total kcal its restriction can be harmful to health and performance it is not an essential nutrient

restriction can be harmful to health and performance

343

Which of the following is a characteristic of anorexia nervosa? normal body weight very low dietary fat intake preoccupation with food secretive eating

preoccupation with food

344

When an eating disorder is suspected, the strength and conditioning professional should: monitor the athletes daily food intake require frequent weigh ins encourage further assessment by a specialist provide nutritional information.

encourage further assessment by a specialist.

345

The degree to which a test measures what it is supposed to measure _________.

Validity

346

___________ validity is the ability of a test to actually measure what it is designed to measure.

Construct validity

347

________ validity is the appearance to the athletes and others that the test measures what its supposed to measure.

Face Validity

348

_______ validity is the assessment by experts that the testing covers all relevant abilities.

Content Validity

349

____________ validity is the extent to which test scores are associated with those of other accepted scores that measure the same ability.

Concurrent Validity

350

_________ validity is evidenced by high positive correlation between results of the tested and the "gold standard"

Convergent Validity

351

__________ validity is the extent to which the test score corresponds with future behavior or performance.

Predictive Validity

352

________ validity is the ability of a test to distinguish between two different constructs and is evidenced by little correlation.

Discriminant Validity

353

__________ is a measure of the degree of consistency

reliability

354

_____ variability is between subjects

intra- subject

355

________ variability is between different test admins.

Intrarater variability

356

Correct order of sequencing for test types based on energy systems used: Sprint Anaerobic capacity Muscular Endurance Non Fatiguing Aerobic capacity Agility Maximum Power and Strength

Non-Fat Agil. Power/Strength Sprint Mus. Endurance Anaerobic Capacity Aerobic Capacity

357

A college basketball coach would like to know which one of her players has the most muscular power. Which of the following is the MOST valid test for measuring muscular power? Vertical Jump 1RM bench press 5RM squat 100 M sprint

vertical jump (basketball sport specific ****remember that****)

358

When measuring maximal strength of an American Football lineman, which of the following could potentially adversely affect the test-retest reliability of the results? using multiple sets retesting at a different time of day an athletes inexperience with the tested exercise using an established testing protocol

an athletes inexperience with the tested exercise

359

All of the following procedures should be followed when testing an athlete's cardiovascular fitness in the heat EXCEPT: perform the test in an indoor facility use salt tablets to retain water schedule the test in the morning drink fluids during the test

use salt tablets to retain water

360

The bench press, vertical jump, and 10m sprint are the MOST valid tests for which of the following American football positions? QB DB WR DL

DL (**** 10 m to QB and power to tackle******)

361

Which of the following sequences will produce the MOST reliable results? t-test 1RM bench 1RM power clean 1-minute sit up test 3,1,4,2 1,3,2,4 4,2,1,3 2,3,1,4

1,3,2,4

362

__________ is the ability to stop, start and change direction rapidly.

Agility

363

_______ is movement distance per unit in time. Quantified as the time taken to cover a fixed distance.

Speed

364

_________ is the range of motion about a body joint.

Flexibility

365

____ __________ is the proportions by weight of fat and lean tissue.

Body Composition.

366

__________ is the science of measurement.

Anthropometry

367

_________ statistics allows one to draw conclusions about a pop. from info collected in a pop. sample.

Inferential Statistics

368

Anaerobic Capacity is quantified as the maximal power output achieved during activity lasting 5 minutes

30-90 seconds

369

All of the following tests are used to measure maximum muscular power EXCEPT the margaria-kalamen test vertical jump 40 yard sprint 1RM power clean

40 yard sprint

370

Flexibility of these muscle groups or body areas is assessed during the sit and reach test: hamstrings erector spinae lumbar spine hip flexors

I,II,III

371

Which of the following is a reason for a trial of the T-test to be disqualified? touching the base of cone D shuffling from cone C to cone D crossing the feet from cone B to cone C Running forward from cone A to cone B

crossing the feet from cone B to cone C

372

Which of the following is the correct arm position when measuring the girth of the upper arm? neutral should with elbow flexed to 90 degrees elbow extended with forearm pronated should abducted to 90 degrees with elbow extended elbow flexed to 90 degrees with forearm supinated

shoulder abducted to 90 degrees with elbow extended

373

Of the locations measured in the 3-site skin fold protocols, which of the following are only measured on women? thigh supra iliac abdomen triceps

supra iliac; triceps

374

When compiling results from the volleyball team's vertical jump testing, the strength and conditioning professional notices that most scores are similar, but there are three scores that are much higher than the rest. Which of the following measures of central tendency is most appropriate for this group? mean median mode variance

median

375

maximum strength is also known as _____ speed strength.

low

376

maximum power is also known as ____ speed strength.

high

377

maximum strength test examples (2)

1 RM bench 1 RM back squat

378

maximum power test examples (4)

1 RM power clean Standing Long jump Vertical Jump margaria-kalamen

379

anaerobic capacity example test:

300- yard shuttle

380

Local muscle Endurance Tests (3):

Sit ups (partial curl ups); pushup test; YMCA bench press test

381

Aerobic capacity tests (2)

1.5 mile run 12 minute run

382

Agility tests examples (3):

T-test Hexagon test Pro agility (20 yard shuttle)

383

T-test reasons for disqualification: (3)

athlete fails to touch any of the bases of the cones; crosses feet instead of shuffling; fails to face forward during the test

384

hexagon test disqualification:

loses balance lands on the tape changes direction

385

speed test:

40 yard sprint

386

power in watts calculation:

P (watts)= (w*h)/t w=newtons h=meters t=seconds

387

weight in pounds to weight in newtons

1lb * 4.45

388

height in inches to height in meters:

1 in * .0254

389

The Bohr effect states that:

higher temperatures can facilitate oxygen release from hemoglobin and myoglobin

390

_________ flexibility requires no voluntary activity and uses gravity or a partner as external force.

static

391

_________ flexibility is the ROM during active muscular movements.

dynamic

392

_________ joints have the greatest ROM

ball and socket joints

393

_________ joints allow movement in the sagittal and frontal plane

ellipsoidal joint

394

ellipsoidal joint example

the wrist

395

_______ joints allow movement primarily in the sagittal plane

hinge

396

which type of joint has the least ROM? ellipsoidal ball and socket hinge joint

hinge

397

What is fibrosis?

replacement of muscle fibers with connective tissue

398

autogenic inhibition is________.

the active contraction of of a muscle immediately before a passive stretch of that same muscle. Tensions built up in the contraction stimulates relaxtion.

399

reciprocal inhibition is _________.

relaxation occurring in the muscle opposing the muscle experiencing increased tension.

400

When stimulated during PNF stretching, golgi tendon organs allow the relaxation of -stretched muscle by contracting the recip. muscle -recip. muscle by contracting the stretched muscle -reciprocal muscle by its own contraction -stretched muscle by its own contraction

stretched muscle by its own contraction

401

Which of the following stretching techniques decreases muscle spindle stimulation? -dynamic -ballistic -static -passive

static

402

Dynamic stretching is the MOST similar to which of the following? -sport specific warm-up -general warm-up -low-intensity stretch -static stretch

specific warm up

403

Stimulation of muscle spindles induces a -relaxation of GTO's -relaxation of the stretched muscle -contraction of the stretched muscle -contraction of the reciprocal muscle

contraction of the stretched muscle

404

After performing the hold-relax-with-agonist-contraction PNF stretch for the hamstrings, which of the following explains the resulting increase in flexibility? -autogenic inhibition -stretch inhibition -reciprocal inhibition -cross-extensor inhibition A I/III B II/IV C I,II,III D II,III,IV

I and III only

405

All of the following exercises require a spotter except the flat dumbbell fly overhead triceps extension forward step lunge lat pulldown

lat pulldown

406

During which of the following exercises should a spotters hands be placed on the athlete's wrists? bench press incline dumbbell bench press upright row lying barbell triceps extensions

incline dumbbell bench press

407

Which of the following grips should be used during the deadlift? overhand closed pronated allternated

closed/alternated

408

Which of the following is the correct foot pattern in the step up exercise? up left, up right, down left, down right up right, up left , down left, down right up left, down left, up right, down right up right, up left, down right, down left

up right, up left, down left, down right

409

The primary movement during the second pull phase of the power clean exercise is -hip flexion -hip extension -knee flexion -dorsiflexion

hip extension

410

3 most important attributes to consider during the needs analysis

body and limb movement patterns strength,power,hypertrophy and endurance priorities common injury sites

411

off season resistance training priority:

hypertrophy and muscular endurance

412

Pre-season resistance training goals:

Sport specific movements, strength/power

413

In season resistance training goals

Maintenance of preseason goals

414

________ exercises are more applicable to the sport movements, and thus more important. assistance core

core

415

_______ and ________ are considered single primary joints.

glenohumeral spine

416

example of indirect spine loading:

power clean

417

Core exercises that emphasize spine loading are also termed _______ exercises.

structural

418

The best type of exercises for rehabilitation are ________.

assitance

419

what exercise is most specific and preferred to jumping?

the power clean

420

When determining a baseball players resistance training program needs, all of the following factors should be considered EXCEPT. programs of other players past medical history training status position on the field

programs of other players

421

The basketball coach says his starting center needs to jump higher. In addition to beginning a plyometric program, which of the following resistance training exercises are MOST specific to this goal? power clean leg (knee) curl front squat seated calf raise

power clean and front squat

422

The soccer team is transitioning from off-season to preseason training. How should the team resistance training frequency be altered? increase frequency to improve muscular endurance do not change frequency and add plyometrics decrease frequency to allow increased sport skill practice design a split routine with three days on and one day off

Decrease frequency

423

An american football lineman has difficulty driving into defensive linemen and believes he has lost his explosive ability. Which of the following is the BEST exercise order to help this athlete improve his performance? back squat, hip sled, leg curl, power clean power clean, back squat, hip sled, leg curl leg curl, back squat, power clean, hip sled hip sled, power clean, leg curl, back squat

B

424

What percentage of the 1RM typically allows an individual to perform 6 repetitions with that load? 92 90 85 80

85

425

Which of the following volumes has the potential to increase muscular strength the MOST? 5 sets of 5 1 set of 5 5 sets of 15 1 set of 15

5 sets of 5

426

A female triathlete needs to improve the muscular endurance of her upper body. Using 3 sets of 15 reps per exercise, which of the following rest period lengths will maximize her goal? 3 min 1.5 min 45 sec 30 sec

30 sec

427

estimated percentage of 1RM when 10 reps are achieved

75%

428

percentage of 1Rm estimated when 8 reps achieved

80%

429

percentage of 1RM estimated when 4> reps are achieved

90% and above

430

typical recommended recovery time in hours after each plyometrics session

48-72 hours

431

beginning plyometric training volume in points of contact

80-100

432

advanced plyometric training volume in points of contact

120-140

433

height that an athlete above 220 lbs should not do depth jumps above:

18 inches

434

minimum celling height for indoor plyo drills (in feet):

9-13 feet

435

Minimum landing surface allowed for plyo boxes ( ? X ?)

18 X 24 inches

436

recommended range for depth jump height in inches:

16-42 inches

437

All of the following are phases of stretch shortening cycle EXCEPT amortization concentric eccentric isometric

isometric

438

which of the following structures detects rapid movement and initiates the stretch reflex? GTO's muscle spindle extrafusal fibers pacinian corpuscle

muscle spindles

439

Which of the following is a primary component of the series elastic component? tendon muscle fiber actin ligament

tendon

440

Which of the following is BEST surface on which to perform lower body plyometric drills? trampoline exercise mat asphalt suspended wood floor

suspended wood floor

441

Which of the following should be assessed before beginning a lower body plyometrics training program? balance strength speed lean body mass

balance strength and speed only

442

Which of the following types of plyometrics drills is generally considered to be the MOST intense? jumps in place bounds depth jumps box jumps

depth jumps

443

Which of the following work-to-rest ratios is the MOST appropriate to assign to a plyometric training workout? 1:5 1:2 1:3 1:4

1:5

444

The ability to achieve high movement velocities is termed _________.

speed

445

The ability to change movement velocities rapidly is _________.

Agility

446

The ability to maintain maximal velocities or accelerations is __________.

speed endurance

447

Ability to repeatedly perform maximal or near maximal efforts in competition specific exercise.

special endurance

448

mass X acceleration = ________.

force

449

force X velocity = _________.

power

450

force X time = _______

impulse

451

Complex training is defined as _______:

alternating SSC tasks are mixed with heavy resistance exercises within the same session.

452

________ _________ is a characteristic of explosive strength exhibited in SSC actions that CAN me improved.

Reactive ability

453

________ _______ is relatively untrainable and correlates poorly with movement action time.

reaction time

454

Stride ______ is more important in determining final velocity

frequency

455

Stride ______ is more trainable than stride _______

frequency; length

456

The flight phase of running includes _______ and ________.

recovery and ground preparation

457

The support phase of running includes _______ and _______.

eccentric braking and concentric propulsion

458

hip angle in stagger stance is smaller in: elite subelite

elite

459

During the push off in sprinting, the rear leg produces ______ force but the front leg must exert force for a _______ period.

greater initial; longer.

460

An upright sprinting position is usually achieved by around _______ meters.

20 meters

461

Early flight checkpoints (2):

eccentric hip flexion eccentric knee extension

462

Mid-flight checkpoints (2)

Concentric hip flexion eccentric knee extension

463

late flight checkpoints (2)

concentric hip extension eccentric knee flexion

464

early support checkpoints (3)

concentric hip extension concentric knee flexion eccentric plantarflexion

465

late support checkpoints (3)

eccentric hip flexion concentric knee extension concentric plantar flexion

466

_______ _______ is the modification of action sequences upon observation or anticipation of novel or changing conditions.

adaptive ability

467

_______ is static and dynamic equilibrium

balance

468

__________ __________ is the coordination of body movements into a given action

combinatory ability

469

_________ is the accurate economical adjustments of body movements

differentiation

470

________ is the spatial and temporal control of body movements

orientation

471

__________ is the quick, well directed response to stimuli

reactiveness

472

_________ is the observation of dynamic motion patterns

rhythm

473

general agility tasks target _______:

the development of one or more basic coordinative abilities

474

_____ skills have programmed assignments and predictable environments.

Closed

475

______ skills have non programmed assignments and unstable environments

open skills

476

Sprint RESISTANCE works on: Stride ______ includes gravity-______ running Examples are:

stride length gravity resisted examples: harness, shute, sled, uphill, upstairs

477

Sprint ASSISTANCE works on: gravity-_____ running Improving stride _____. Working on achieving an _______ effect Examples:

gravity assisted running improving running stride frequency working on achieving an overspeed effect examples: harness and stretch cord downhill sprint

478

Long response plyometrics such as a _____ jump, transfer directly to _______ and _______ performance.

Squat; start; acceleration

479

Short response plyometrics such as a ______ jump, transfer to ______ .

depth jump; maximum velocity running.

480

Supramaximal competitive trial methods involve intensity ______ than competition and duration ______ than competition.

higher; less

481

Maximal competitive trial methods are done at intensity ______ competition at a duration _______ competition.

equal to; equal to.

482

Sub-maximal competitive trial methods use intensity _______ than competition and a duration ______ than competition.

less; longer

483

Intermediate training stage is from years _ to_ and incorporates training to _____.

5-6; training to train

484

Advanced training stage is from years _ to _ and emphasizes training to _______.

7-8; training to compete

485

The ability to maintain maximal velocity for longer than 6 seconds is referred to as which of the following types of endurance? special speed strength cardiovascular

Speed

486

Which of the following is the most influential factor to determine a sprinters maximum velocity? reaction time stride length leg length stride frequency

stride frequency

487

During the ground support phase of linear sprinting, which of the following muscles are responsible for storing and recovering elastic energy? gastroc hamstrings quads anter tibialis

gastroc and quads

488

All of the following actions during the ground support phase contribute to optimal stride length and frequency EXCEPT: -minimizing horizontal braking force -contacting the ground ahead of the center of gravity -maximizing backward velocity of the leg -limiting the range of motion at the ankle

contacting the ground ahead of the center of gravity

489

An athlete just completed a training cycle that focused on speed training. When applying the sequenced training strategy, which of the following training goals or exercise modes is the MOST appropriate to choose or prioritize for the NEXT training cycle? agility plyometrics SSC strength

strength

490

Which of the following describe how maximal backward sprinting is different from maximal forward sprinting? shorter stride length greater stride frequency longer ground support time earlier application of peak GRFs I,II,III,IV

I,II,III only

491

Which of the following elements of agility technical skills requires spatial and temporal control of body movements? differentiation rhythm balance orientation

orientation