CV Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

agonal rhythm

A
  • irregular heartbeat
  • below 20 bpm
  • near death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

atrial tachycardia

A
  • HR > 100 bpm

- usually associated w increased HR or product of exertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ventricular tachycardia

A
  • HR > 100 bpm

- usually a regular rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

when is ventricular tachycardia most common?

A

after acute MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which tachycardia is more pathologic?

A

ventricular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

atrial fibrillation (a-fib)

A
  • most common arrhythmia

- can lead to syncope bc no atrial kick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ventricular fibrillation (v-fib)

A

chaotic rate and rhythm, will lead to death if not treated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

multifocal VT (torsades de pointes)

A

irregular rhythm and rate > 150 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

AV blocks

A

rhythm disturbance where electrical conduction from atria to ventricles is partially or completely blocked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what amount of ST depression indicates ischemia?

A

1-2 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ST elevation indicates what?

A

MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

T-wave inversion indicates what?

A

MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

prominent Q-wave indicates what?

A

MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

wide QRS indicates what?

A

bundle branch block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is normal PaO2?

A

> 80 mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is normal PaCO2?

A

35-45 mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are 3 good functional outcome measures to assess endurance?

A
  • chair rise
  • 2MWT
  • 6MWT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how many PVCs should you see to stop and reassess vitals?

A

> 6/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what type of heart disease is cardiac tamponade?

A

pericardial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is an acute management strategy for pts experiencing MI?

A

thrombolytics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are 3 indications for thrombolytic therapy?

A
  • chest pain suggesting an MI
  • elevated ST segment
  • bundle branch block
22
Q

what is the timing of administration for thrombolytics?

A
  • within 3 hrs of onset of chest pain

- within 6-24 hrs of onset of symptoms

23
Q

what is a PTCA?

A
  • percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty

- endoluminal stent to open up occluded artery

24
Q

what is a CABG?

A
  • coronary artery bypass graft

- used to revascularize the myocardium when a coronary artery is occluded

25
what are the 3 vascular structures used for a CABG? (SIR)
- saphenous veins - internal mammary artery - radial artery
26
what is the standard approach for a CABG?
median sternotomy
27
what are 3 post-op possibilities to be seen with a CABG?
- mediastinal chest tube - external pacemaker - intravascular catheters
28
what 6 factors put a pt at risk for experiencing dehiscence after a median sternotomy?
- obestity - COPD - DM - smoking - PVD - repeat thoracotomy - pendulous breasts
29
what is the purpose of an ablation procedure?
to remove or isolate ectopic foci (abnormal pacemakers) in order to reduce rhythm disturbance
30
maze procedures are used to ablate ____ fibrillation
atrial
31
the leg used in an ablation procedure must remain straight and immobile for how many hours?
3-4
32
what is the purpose of cardioversion?
to restore normal heart rhythm in tachycardia arrhythmic conditions
33
what are the 2 types of cardioversion procedures?
- cardiac pacemaker implantation | - automatic implantable cardiac defibrillator (AICD)
34
what kind of arrhythmia does the AICD help with?
ventricular
35
what are 3 PT considerations for pts with pacemakers or AICDs?
- closely monitor activity response w HR and BP - know if device has rate modulation - pts can't do any lifting or resistive exercise on L side post-op
36
what type of pts would wear a life vest external defibrillator?
- high risk of sudden cardiac arrest | - need a heart transplant
37
what are 3 precautions for someone with an LVAD/RVAD?
- know emergency procedures in case battery dies - maintain patency of drive lines w external pump - monitor hemodynamics
38
what are the complications with LVAD/RVAD? (5)
- thrombus formation - CVA - hemorrhage - line infections - renal or hepatic insufficiency
39
what phase should a pt with an LVAD/RVAD be at in order for you to refer them to cardiac rehab to initiate exercise?
phase I-II
40
why would a pt have an LVAD/RVAD?
- if they need a heart transplant | - can also be a terminal treatment
41
what does the Marburg Heart Score predict?
likelihood of dx of CAD
42
what are the 3 goals for cardiac PT interventions?
- asses hemodynamic response during self-care and functional mobility - maximize activity tolerance - pt/caregiver edu for activity or behavior modifications
43
what are the 6 absolute indications to withhold tx for an unstable cardiac pt?
- decompensated CHF - 2nd degree heart block with PVCs - 3rd degree heart block - >10 PVCs/min at rest - chest pain w new ST segment changes - new onset of A-fib w rapid ventricular response at rest (HR > 100 bpm)
44
what are the 6 precautions to modify or withhold tx for an unstable cardiac pt?
- RHR > 100 - resting HTN > 160/90 - hypotension at rest (systolic < 80) - ventricular ectopy at rest - A-fib w rapid ventricular response at rest (HR > 100) - psychosis/unstable psych condition
45
if pt is on beta blockers, do not exceed ___ beats above their normal RHR
20
46
what is the target HR for someone with an AICD?
20-30 beats below threshold rate on defibrillator
47
if someone has had a heart transplant, can you use their HR to prescribe exercise?
no bc the nerves aren't connected the way they used to be
48
what should the HR recovery be with a cool down?
greater than 12 bpm
49
what is the normal systolic BP response to activity?
increase by 5-12 mm Hg
50
what are the 3 abnormal BP responses you might see during activity?
- systolic dec of 10 mm Hg below resting - systolic > 180 - diastolic > 110
51
use BP to gauge activity intensity for pts who have what?
pacemakers without rate modulation
52
what is the general guideline for mRPE and RPE when monitoring activity tolerance?
- mRPE: 5 or less | - RPE: 13 or less