daily mix I Flashcards

(111 cards)

1
Q

In terms of urine output what constitutes an AKI

A

Urine output of <0.5 ml/kg/hr over 6 consecutive hours

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2
Q

What constitutes an AKI (3 things)

A

-rise in serum creatinine of 26 micromol/litre or greater within 48 hours
-50% or greater rise in serum creatinine known or presumed to have occurring within the past 7 days
-fall in urine output less than 0.5ml/if/gout more than 6 hours in adults

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3
Q

why does CKD commonly cause anaemia

A

Loss of kidney’s production of erythropoietin

Also poor iron absorption

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4
Q

Treatment of anaemia in CKD

A

1st = start oral iron replacement

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5
Q

Which disease gives a hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis ?

A

Renal tubular acidosis

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6
Q

what is the first-line screening test for adult poly cystic kidney disease

A

Renal ultrasounds

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7
Q

What can cause contrast-induced nephropathy ?

A

Iodine based CT and X-ray

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8
Q

What should be given to counter contrast-induced nephropathy ?

A

Volume expansion via 1L IV 0.9% sodium chloride

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9
Q

What is the most common extra-renal manifestation of ADPKD

A

Liver cysts

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10
Q

what causes subarachnoid haemorrhage in ADPKD

A

Pancreatic cyst and berry aneurysms (much less common than liver cysts)

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11
Q

Treatment of Minimal change glomerulonephritis

A

Prednisolone (steroids + ACEi)

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12
Q

When does Alports usually present ?

A

Childhood

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13
Q

Features seen in Alports

A

Microscopic haematuria
Progressive renal failure
Bilateral sensorineural deafness
Lenticonus
Retinitis pigmentosa
Splitting of lamina densa on electron microscopy
Presents at childhood

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14
Q

Investigation of Alports

A

Genetic testing
Renal biopsy

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15
Q

What is seen on renal biopsy for Alports

A

Splitting of the Lamina densa of the GBM - resulting in a basket weave appearance

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16
Q

*basket weave appearance on renal biopsy

A

Alports

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17
Q

what to do if a patient has < 0.5ml/kg/hr urine output post-operatively ?

A

Administer 500ml 0.9% sodium chloride over 15 minutes

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18
Q

What is the most likely cause of death in someone with CKD on HD

A

Ischaemic heart disease

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19
Q

What is acral lentiginous melanoma

A

Pigmentation of nail bed affecting proximal nail fold = melanoma

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20
Q
  • red or black lump / lump that bleeds or oozes
A

Nodular Malignant melanoma

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21
Q

What type of lesion is most commonly seen with renal transplantation

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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22
Q

What drug can cause patchy depigmentation in patients with darker skin

A

Topical steroids (ie clobetasone)

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23
Q

Steroid cream potency (eczema)

A
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24
Q

Where are keloid scars most commonly found

A

Sternum

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25
What is used to treat dermatophyte infection
Oral terbafine
26
What fungus is responsible for pityriasis versicolor
Malassezia furfur
27
*central dimple, 2mm in diameter, multiple raised lesions
Molluscum contagiosum
28
What medication can cause toxic epidermal necrolysis
Penicillins ie co-amoxiclav
29
What is nikolsky’s sign
Epidermis separates with mild lateral pressure
30
Skin lesion associated with UC
Pyoderma gangrenosum
31
Most common cause of cauda equina syndrome
Central disc prolapse at L4/5 or L5/S1
32
Investigation for suspected cauda equina syndrome
Urgent MRI
33
Management of Cauda equina syndrome
Urgent decompression
34
Late sign of cauda equina syndrome
Urinary incontinence
35
What do the Ottawa rules apply to ?
When to use an X-ray for ankle / knee injury
36
MAIN ASSOCIATION for adhesive capsulitis
Diabetes !!
37
Dermatomyositis associated antibody
Anti-Jo-I and ANA
38
what needs to be done after confirmed diagnosis of Dermatomyositis
Screen for underlying malignancy ie breast or lung (typically)
39
Main side effect of hydroxychloroquine
Bull’s eye retinopathy
40
*BULLS EYE RETINOPATHY
Hydroxychloroquine use
41
What do you have to check in a patient before commencing them on azathioprine
Thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency If they have a deficiency then they are predisposed to azathioprine toxicity
42
S1 compression symptoms
Sensory loss in posterolateral aspect of leg Lateral aspect of foot Weakness in the plantar flexion of the foot
43
What does S1 innervate
Gastrocnemius and soleus = responsible for plantar flexion
44
L3 compression symptoms
Sensory loss over anterior thigh Weak hip flexion (iliopsoas) Knee extension (quadriceps) Hip adduction (Adductor) Reduced knee reflex
45
L4 compressions
Sensory loss over anterior aspect of knee and medial malleolus Weak knee extension Hip adduction Reduced knee reflex
46
L5 compression
Foot dorsiflexion weakness Sensory loss over the lateral lower leg And normal reflexes
47
S2 nerve root compression
Sensory loss over posterior thigh and calf Weakness in knee flexion Reduced or absent ankle reflex
48
*sensory loss over dorsum of foot
L5 nerve root compression
49
*metaphyseal tumour of long bone with a ‘sunburst’ pattern
Osteosarcoma
50
Most common primary malignant bone tumour in children and adolescents ?
Osteosarcoma
51
Protein associated with Ewings
EWS-FLI1
52
4-year-old girl with a three month history of a limp. Her parents report that she has 'not been right' for a few weeks now. She typically complains of pain in her left hip and right knee in the morning which gets better during the day. What’s going on here ?
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis >more than three months
53
X-ray of Perthes disease
Widening of joint space and decrease femoral head size/flattening
54
what’s going on here
SUFE - on the left side
55
what’s going on here
Perthes - see the destruction of the femoral head / flattening
56
Should high dose prednisone be given before or after investigation in clinical suspicion of GCA
Before
57
*pain and tenderness over the lateral side of thigh / hip in a woman 50-70years
Greater trochanteric pain / trochanteric bursitis
58
*burning sensation over anterio-lateral aspect of the thigh
Meralgia paraesthetica
59
What is meralgia paraesthetica
Caused by compression of lateral cutaneous nerve
60
What is pubic symphysis dysfunction
Common in pregnancy Ligament laxity increases in response to hormonal changes of pregnancy Get pain over pubic symphysis with radiation to the groins and medial aspects of the thigh
61
AC joint injury treatment Grade I - II
Conservative management with sling and immobilisation
62
AC joint injury treatment Grade III, IV , V
Surgery
63
Sensory loss over anterior thigh, weak hip flexion, knee extension, hip adduction, reduced knee reflex = what nerve root compression
L3
64
*reduced knee reflex
L3
65
What is this
Bakers cyst
66
What is Bakers Cyst
Popliteal cyst - aren’t actually cysts but a distension of the gastrocnemius - semimembranous bursa
67
Treatment of bakers cyst in a child
Self-resolving
68
*reduced sensation over left anterior knee and medial malleolus
L4 nerve root compression
69
management of acute renal colic
IM diclofenac 75mg
70
Management of communicating hydrocele
These are common in newborn males and usually will resolve within the first few months of life Surgical repair if does not resolve within 1-2 years
71
*soft, non-tender swelling of the hemi-scrotum, transilluminates with a pen torch in baby
Hydrocele
72
Communicating vs non-communicating hydrocele
Non-communicating = excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis Communicating = latency of the processes vaginalis allowing peritoneal fluid to drain down into the scrotum
73
Painful swollen testes - relieved by lifting testes
= epididymo - orchitis
74
Most common causative organism for epididymo-orchitis
Chlamydia trachomatis
75
STI but of unknown organism - what is the recommended treatment
500mg IM ceftriaxone + doxycycline 100mg by mouth 2D for 2 weeks
76
STI treatment for enteric organism ie E.coli
Oral quinolone for 2 weeks
77
How long do you have to wait to test PSA after doing certain things …
78
Indications for circumcision
Phimosis Recurrent balanitis Balanitis xerotica obliteratans Paraphimosis
79
How long does it take a perforated eardrum to heal ?
6-8 weeks
80
*unexplained hoarseness in a patient aged >45
Urgent referral to ENT
81
What type of audiogram pattern would Cholesteatoma show ?
Conductive pattern
82
What mode of inheritance is otosclerosis
Autosomal dominant
83
T/F there is hearing loss in vestibular neuronitis
F - there is no loss of hearing Features = recent viral infection, recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days
84
*absent corneal reflex, hearing loss, vertigo, tinnitus
Acoustic neuroma
85
What disease is acoustic neurome associated with ?
Neurofibromatosis type 2
86
*pain on palpating of tragic, itching, discharge, and hearing loss
Otitis externa
87
Management of otitis externa
Topical antibiotic / topical antibiotic + steroid
88
What is Adies tonic pupil
When aniscoria is greater in bright light There is an issue with the dilated pupil adn its inability to constrict This could be due a problem with the parasympathetic nervous system
89
what is this
Acute otiis media
90
What is entropion
In Turning of the eyelids
91
What can happen if entropion is left untreated
Corneal ulcer
92
What is extropion
Out-turning of the eyelids
93
*persistent mouth ulcer
Clinical suspicion of squamous cell carcinoma —> urgent referral to oral and max fax
94
*red patches on fundoscopy
Intra-retinal or sub-retinal fluid leakage or haemorrhage (wet ARMD)
95
What are the ototoxic drugs
Quinine, gentamicin, furosemide, aspirin
96
*bilateral renal artery stenosis
Fibromuscular dysplasia
97
Where does epidermal proliferation happen
C - the basal layer
98
Where is vitamin D metabolism carried out
B - by keratinocytes at the basal layer
99
Where is energy storage
E - subcutaneous fat
100
Where is tensile strength provided
G - where collagen is found
101
Which are the common sweat glands on the face
Eccrine glands
102
Which is the nail matrix
E
103
Which is the nail bed
F
104
Which is the lunula
B
105
Name :
A = keratin layer B = granular layer C = prickle cell layer D = basal layer E = dermo-epidermal junctions F = dermis
106
*dinner fork appearance on x-ray
Distal radius fracture / Colles
107
*garden spade deformity
Smith fracture
108
What are the 2 FOOSH injuries
Smiths Colles
109
What nerve causes wrist drop
Radial nerve compression
110
Monteggia fracture
Proximal ulnar fracture
111
Galeazzi fracture
Proximal radial