Dash 1 Sxn 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Gross weight fully serviced?

A

12,800 lbs

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2
Q

What’s the wingspan?

A

25’ 3”

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3
Q

What is SL std day thrust?

A

2200 lbs MIL; 3300 lbs MAX

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4
Q

What does the T5 system do?

A

Modulate the nozzle area to change the exhaust gas to maintain EGR within limits at MIL and MAX

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5
Q

What do engines require for starts?

A

DC to energize the ignition relay; AC to fire it; compressor motoring low px air supply

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6
Q

Pushing an ENGINE START button does what?

A

Arms the ignition circuit for approximately 30 s

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7
Q

What does moving the throttle to IDLE do?

A

Energizes the ignition exciter, firing the igniters, and starting FF to the engine

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8
Q

True/false. Momentarily pressing the ENGINE START button again rests the ignition timer and starts another 30 s timer.

A

False. It does not. The relay is locked.

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9
Q

Moving the throttle to MAX without an ENGINE START button ignition cycle does what?

A

Energizes the igniters for 30 s. Returning it below MIL resets the time for the relay. Any ENGINE START button usage disables the ignition relay reset function.

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10
Q

What is responsible for a battery engine start?

A

AC power from the static inverter

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11
Q

What is a throttle burst?

A

Movement in 1 s or less from idle to MIL RPM

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12
Q

Where is the throttle cutoff gate?

A

FCP only. Engines can only be cutpff from the FCP

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13
Q

What 3 things are powered by AC on the EED?

A

Oil px, fuel qty, fuel flow indicator. Can be shown with DC only power by putting the OXY/FUEL switch to Gage Test or QTY CHECK which gets the static inv working

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14
Q

If the EED starts up below 32 deg F, what is the start time?

A

up to 5 min. Normally 15 s when warmer.

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15
Q

If EGT exceeds 650 deg C what happens?

A

If it doesn’t exceed 665 deg C without an EGT OVERTEMP CAUTION, the mission may be continued and it is non latched

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16
Q

What EED items run on DC power?

A

EGT, nozzle, and rpm

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17
Q

If during INIT/M/S ops with the EED, if there is a 0 value on the display, what does this mean?

A

A sensor fail

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18
Q

If during INIT/M/S ops with the EED, if there is a FAIL on the display, what does this mean?

A

internal EED failure

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19
Q

What are aircraft FF limits at MIL power?

A

2100-2700 pph

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20
Q

Is increased FF during afterburner shown by the fuel flow indicator?

A

No

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21
Q

During engine shutdown the EED FF indicator should show no higher than what?

A

60 pph

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22
Q

What must be present to get fuel quantity indications?

A

Right oil px autosyn (AC)

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23
Q

When do you get the caution FUEL LOW light?

A

250 lbs or less for more than 7.5 s

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24
Q

What does the display look like for fuel qty gages with fuel imbalance?

A

no change: 0-50 lbs

white: 60-190 lbs
red: >=200 lbs

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25
Q

If one fuel system works for the EED, will a magenta crossfeed indication still be drawn?

A

Yes, from the working side. There will be no indication if both indicators are failed

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26
Q

Turning on pitot heat or formation landing lights may do what to the fuel qty?

A

Make it jump +/- 100 lbs. Changes more than that indicate a fuel quantity probe fail.

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27
Q

An EED HOT indication will do what?

A

Drop that display brightness by 50% and eventually not power the backlight–however if it is the Master, it still supplies data to the Slave

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28
Q

If there’s an OFF indication on a gage, what does that mean?

A

Sensor data is not available

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29
Q

What is part of the MFC system?

A

The Main Fuel Control, engine driven pump, overspeed governor

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30
Q

What does the MFC do?

A

It is a function of power lever angle (throttle position), T2, CP3, and RPM. It regulates engine speed, protects vs overtemps, stalls, flameouts, provides fuel, and positions the inlet guide vanes and air bleed valves

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31
Q

What is part of the Afterburner system?

A

Igniter plug, AFC, afterburner fuel pump, AB pilot manifold, AB main manifold

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32
Q

At full MAX position what might be total fuel flow?

A

7300 pph at rest, 11,400 pph at Mach 1

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33
Q

What does the AFC do?

A

Provides for consistent AB ops, and regulates the variable engine nozzle (VEN) unless overridden by the T5 amplifier

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34
Q

What is the purpose of the T5 amplifier?

A

Protects vs engine overtemps and prevents stalls. It overrides the VEN control to OPEN THE NOZZLE to maintain T5 at max allowable temp based on T2 and T5 sensors

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35
Q

What powers the T5 amplifier?

A

The engine TAC generator (above 75% rpm)

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36
Q

What is the oil system capacity and purpose?

A

4 qts, 1 qt expansion, venting should not exceed 6 oz/hr, cooling and lubrication

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37
Q

Where does gearbox shift occur?

A

65-75% rpm range

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38
Q

What does the gearbox operate?

A

hydraulic pump and AC generator

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39
Q

What does the fire warning and detection system respond to?

A

Overall average temp or highly localized temps

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40
Q

What can cause a compressor stall?

A

nozzle mischeduling, throttle bursts, high AoA at low airspeed, FOD, low compressor inlet temps T2, ice, inlet guide vanes etc

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41
Q

What are indications of a compressor stall?

A

At low altitudes, rapid RPM drop, high EGT

At high altitude, rapid RPM drop, low EGT

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42
Q

What’s the response to a flameout or compressor stall?

A

Throttle IDLE and press ENGINE START button

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43
Q

What are the indications of a flameout?

A

Combustion ceases. Engine rpm and EGT rapidly decrease

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44
Q

What is engine nozzle misscheduling (hysteresis)?

A

Occurs when transitioning from T5 control at MIL power settings. The nozzle area reduces usually between 94-97% rpm. It can be corrected by bringing the throttle back to idle.

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45
Q

Where are the left system fuel cells?

A

forward fuselage, forward and aft dorsal cells

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46
Q

Where are the right fuel system tanks located?

A

center and aft fuselage cells

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47
Q

What is in each fuel system?

A

A fuel boost pump, a fuel filter and bypass, a shutoff valve, fuel px caution lt

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48
Q

What are the four primary fuels?

A

Jet A/JP 8, Jet B/JP 4

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49
Q

When refueling manually, make sure of what?

A

That the left system is fueled first to prevent the ac from sitting on its tail due to a cg imbalance

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50
Q

Without aid of boost pump the system can be gravity fuel fed up to what altitude?

A

MAX power up to 25,000’ MSL normally but guaranteed only to 6,000 with flameouts as low as 7,000

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51
Q

When are LEFT FUEL PRESS/RIGHT FUEL PRESS lights valid ind of boost pump fail?

A

With crossfeed OFF, fuel shutoff switch normal, and throttle out of OFF

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52
Q

How long does it take for a fuel flow switch to OFF to shut off fuel flow to the respective engine?

A

approximately 1 sec

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53
Q

With either both boost pumps ON or OFF and crossfeed on what can occur?

A

A rapid fuel imbalance

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54
Q

If crossfeed ops is continued until the active system runs dry what may occur?

A

Dual engine flameout

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55
Q

Which cockpit has a CROSSFEED light?

A

The RCP

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56
Q

When do you get a FUEL LOW caution light?

A

One fuel indicator reads below 250 lbs after 7.5 sec

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57
Q

The fuel qty indicators should be monitored to keep the two systems within what fuel bal?

A

200 lbs to mx CG limits

58
Q

Taxi ops with less than what gas in either system could cavitate the boost pump?

A

150 lbs

59
Q

With a low fuel state (250 lbs in either), do not select CROSSFEED with both boost pumps operating. True/False.

A

True

60
Q

What can reduce boost pump output?

A

Less than 650 lbs in either system reduces boost pump output by 40%

61
Q

With a FUEL LOW light how should you fly?

A

With a slightly nose-up attitude, and stop during descents to refill the sump

62
Q

With a low fuel state (250 lbs in either), do not select CROSSFEED with both boost pumps operating when single-engine. True/False

A

False

63
Q

What is composition of the electrical system?

A

3 AC: 2 gen/engine at 115 V and a receptacle for ext pwr at 200 V
3 DC: 2 busses/engine powered by 2x50 A TRU and one noness powered by a 24 V battery

64
Q

When do the generators come online?

A

43-48% RPM

65
Q

The power protection systems allow sustained ops of either bus operating as low as what?

A

90 V

66
Q

Auto transfer between power supplies with a gen fail may take up to how long?

A

2.5 s

67
Q

Below 108+/-2 V AC, the TRU generates what message?

A

RECTIFIER FAILURE PFL

AVIONICS on HUD/MFD

68
Q

left AC BUS ops below voltage can trigger what errors?

A

AVIONICS in HUD/MFD
ADC FAILURE PFL
Loss of AoA info

69
Q

right AC BUS ops below voltage can trigger what errors?

A

HUD anamolies, MDP shutdown

RECTIFIER FAILURE PFL

70
Q

True/false. If a TRU fails, the other will automatically cover the power supply for it.

A

True.

71
Q

Failure of the left essential bus DC CB causes what?

A

Left essential and non-essential DC bus failure

72
Q

When TRU output falls below what you get a RECTIFIER FAILURE PFL?

A

25.5 V for more than 2 s–might still get some voltage

73
Q

When do you get a XMFR RECT OUT caution light?

A

When BOTH TRUs fail
Non-essential DC bus drops off
May see flicker with AB ops

74
Q

What min V is needed for the battery relay to close?

The battery will continue ops until what voltage?

A

18 V

10 V

75
Q

In case of a dual TRU fail, the noness bus deenergizes and battery supplies how much time of power?

A

15 min

76
Q

What does the static inv do?

A

It is batt bus powered and converts DC voltage to AC

77
Q

What does the static inv provide power to?

A

1) . First engine start
2) . Ops of right AC instr–oil px, fuel flow and BOTH fuel qty
3) . Oxygen qty ind

78
Q

How can the static inv be powered on the ground?

A

Engine start button pressed, OXY/FUEL check switch held in GAGE TEST or QTY check

79
Q

How can the static inv be powered in flight?

A

Engine start button pushed, throttle moved into MAX range, OXY/FUEL check switch moved into GAGE TEST or QTY CHECK

80
Q

What is on the L AC bus?

A
SAS/rudder trim 
TRU 
AOA heat 
Left hydr/FF/boost pump 
Lights 

(STALL)

81
Q

What is on the R AC bus?

A
right boost pump/fuel flow/hydr/
Anti ice 
WCA and lts (dim)/MDP
Lights (flood), light off (ign exc), HUD, flaps
Seat adj/seal 
Boost pump (right)/FF/hydr/oil
AC
TAT probe/TRU/Trim
82
Q

What is on the battery 24 V bus?

A

SEA
Static inv
Engine start ctrl
AB ign ctrl

83
Q

What is on the non-ess DC bus?

A

TCAS processor
UFCP
VHF/video recorder/video camera (HUD)

(TUV)

84
Q

What is on the left essential DC bus?

A
AIU/AOA/AAP
Crossfeed
Flap control 
Fuel shutoff 
IFF 
XPDR 
Oxy qty 
SB 
Standbys 
VOR/ILS 
WCA lights (bright)
85
Q

What is on the right essential DC bus?

A
ADC/AIU
EED 
EGI
Fire det/flap pos ind
gen ctrl 
ldg gr control/lts 
MFD 
NWS 
RALT 
TACAN/TCAS 
UHF 

Lose computers on right essential DC. Alt ext needed.
No flaps, no HUD, no trim no fun on right AC.

86
Q

What does the utility (left sys) hydr sys power?

A
FANGS 
Flt controls 
Augmentor (YSAS)
NWS 
Gr/gr doors 
SB
87
Q

What do you get either UTILITY HYDRAULIC or FLIGHT HYDRAULIC lights for?

A

1) . Low px condition-1500 psi or less
2) . Fluid overtemp

***nothing for fluid lvls or overpx

88
Q

When do the caution lts go out?

A

When overtemp condition is alleviated.

When hydr px restored to 1800 psi or more

89
Q

Ldg gr ext/retraction takes approximately how long?

A

6 s

90
Q

When can you hear the GEAR tone/see the HUD ind/red light in handle?

A

210 KCAS or less
10,000’ or below AND
Both throttles below 96% rpm

***With single eng ops may never get the to e bc need engine rpm higher to fly

91
Q

When does the gr warning tone go silent? What about light in handle?

A

Nose gr down and locked

All gr down and locked

92
Q

Red light in the gr handle may not go out until what as?

A

240 KCAS

93
Q

In gr retraction a light in handle indicates what?

A

gear doors not completely retracted

94
Q

When do you get a “GEAR, GEAR” voice warning?

A

nose Gr down and locked with as<240 KCAS

nose gr down and locked with as b/w 220-240 KCAS and increasing at 2 kt/sec

95
Q

With DC failure what light will not illiminate in the ldg gr?

A

RCP nose gr lt

96
Q

What does the alt ext do?

A

Allow gr ext without hydr or elec power

97
Q

How long does alt gr ext take?

A

May take up to 35 s, normally approximately 15 s

98
Q

How do you reset the alt system?

A

With LG handle DOWN then UP

99
Q

What are some negatives about staying on alt gr ext?

A

Striker plate in nose well will be down, main gr doors stay on, NWS not operational

100
Q

What will be gr ind with alt ext?

A

No warning horn, 3 greens, red doors, red lt in handle

101
Q

What does the landing gr door switch do?

A

Operate the landing gr doors

102
Q

How do you deactivate NWS?

A

1) . Release the switch on the HOTAS

2) . One or both throttles to MAX

103
Q

How do you know brakes require mx?

A

Can’t see the nut–it’s less than flush with the cylinder rim

104
Q

How does the flight control system work?

A

Cannot feel airloads–artificially gen by springs and bob weights. Each control sys has 2 hydraulic cylinders, one powered by utility and one by hydraulic system

105
Q

Rudder deflection is controlled by linkage to what and how does this change the rudder?

A

3/4 nose gr extension or less, 6 deg deflection; more nose gear extension 30 deg deflection
RUDDER IS DANGEROUS WITH GR DOWN

106
Q

Ground operation of the YSAS results in what on the ground?

A

Chatter of the rudder pedals 5-10 s after NWS activation during turns, 1-2 s after turns

107
Q

How does the YSAS work?

A

It is AC powered and moves the rudder to reduce oscillations. It is powered by the EGI switch. Gen Xover can cause it to kick off as does downloading DTS ICAO to MDP

108
Q

What does the takeoff trim system do?

A

It moves the horizontal tail for optimum TO setting with a motor and light to green. It cuts off if there is control stick pressure in the wrong direction to what is being trimmed

109
Q

How do the flaps work?

A

Electrically DC controlled, operated by AC motors, interconnected by a rotary shaft. If one motor breaks, the flaps can both still deploy bc of this

110
Q

What does the flap-slab interconnect do?

A

The horizontal tail auto repositions to minimize pitch changes, more horizontal tail available for nose down, more horizontal tail deflection per inch stick travel

111
Q

If the flap-slab interconnect fails, what will happen?

A

AC will always pitch up with heavy stick forces, AC will try and settle (sink) when flaps go up, normal handling qual only with flaps UP

112
Q

When operating the emergency mode how can the flaps be stopped?

A

By placing the lever at the 60% detent

113
Q

Which switch overrides the other for the SB?

A

The RCP. To regain ctrl the FCP must move their switch to HOLD

114
Q

From where does the pneumatic system get air?

A
8th stage compressor.  It is used for DCGAP.  
Defog
Canopy seal 
G-suit 
Anti-icing/A/C
Press
115
Q

How is the canopy defog controlled?

A

Pneumatically. All other pneumatic systems are AC.

116
Q

What is the cabin press scheduling?

A

0-8000: at altitude
8000-23,000: 8000+/-1000
Above 23,000: diff of 5 PSI above ambient px +/-2000

117
Q

Selecting RAM DUMP turns off what systems?

A
Defog
Canopy seal does not get air 
G-suit will not inflate 
Air conditioning 
Pressurization 

Does not affect anti-ice. Seal remains inflated for an undetermined amount of time

118
Q

What should you do if you have vibrations accompanied by fumes or odors?

A

Gangload, descend below 25,000’ and select RAM DUMP

119
Q

What is expected with engine anti-ice on?

A

A CAUTION light saying the switch is on, EGT 15 deg C increase at engine speeds 94-98% rpm

120
Q

What happens to the engine anti-ice system with a complete loss of AC power?

A

Fails to ON position.

121
Q

Below what engine speed is the anti-ice valve always open?

A

65%

122
Q

What loss of thrust can be expected with anti-ice on?

A

180+/-10 lbs (8.5% loss MIL, 5.5% loss at MAX)

123
Q

What else does the Air Data Computer (ADC) supply info to?

A

Landing gr warning circuits

124
Q

What info does the standby altimeter and VVI get?

A

Static pressure only

125
Q

What 3 items does the PITOT HEAT switch operate?

A

1) pitot boom
2) AOA txmitter vane heater
3) Total Air Temp (TAT) probe heater

126
Q

What may occur when pitot heat ops on the ground exceed 30 s?

A

1) YSAD disengage until 25 kt airflow
2) Can get an ADC PFL and 3 AOA index lights due to vibration
3) TAS not available

127
Q

What is the TAT probe’s temp range?

A

+/-60 deg C

128
Q

What does the AOA system do?

A

Approximate AOA for max range, max endurance, optimum AOA for final approach, AOA when approach to stall buffet and stall will occur

129
Q

Where is the AOA vane?

A

Right side of the AC

130
Q

What if the ADC detects txmitter or flap position outputs are out of tolerance or missing?

A

You’ll lose all AOA info, get an ADC FAIL PFL, and AOA indexer lts will illuminate

131
Q

When should you write up all 3 AOA indexer lights/heat mtr fail?

A

When it doesn’t go out for 2 consec minutes

132
Q

Any time the aircraft has been pressurized, what must be done to open the canopy?

A

RAM DUMP. Also make sure px has equalized

133
Q

The front canopy is designed to withstand what bird impact?

A

4 lb bird at 125-400 kts

134
Q

Avoid opening the canopy with what relative wind?

A

GS plus winds exceed 30 kts

135
Q

When should you pull the MOR handle?

A

When aircrew/seat separation is desired above 14,000’

136
Q

What force is needed to activate the emergency oxygen? What is it charged to?

A

16-40 lbs; 1800-2500 psi

137
Q

Do not operate the seat adjust switch for more than what?

A

1 min in an 8 min period

138
Q

When will the barostatic time release unit operate?

A

Above 15,000’ and b/w 12,000 and 15,000’ until g-load less than 3.25 gs, below 12,000’ until g-load less than 6.20 gs

139
Q

How do you emer ground egress?

A
Dump
Radio call
Safe
Throttles-off 
Unstrap-2122
Battery
140
Q

What type of oxygen system?

A

LOX.

141
Q

When do you get an OXYGEN low-level light?

A

Oxygen qty ind reads 1 L or less. could be caused by sloshing with less than 3 L

142
Q

How can you check oxygen qty?

A

GAGE TEST with AC power

QTY CHECK with only DC power (static inv works)