Dash 1 Sxn 1 Flashcards
(142 cards)
1
Q
Gross weight fully serviced?
A
12,800 lbs
2
Q
What’s the wingspan?
A
25’ 3”
3
Q
What is SL std day thrust?
A
2200 lbs MIL; 3300 lbs MAX
4
Q
What does the T5 system do?
A
Modulate the nozzle area to change the exhaust gas to maintain EGR within limits at MIL and MAX
5
Q
What do engines require for starts?
A
DC to energize the ignition relay; AC to fire it; compressor motoring low px air supply
6
Q
Pushing an ENGINE START button does what?
A
Arms the ignition circuit for approximately 30 s
7
Q
What does moving the throttle to IDLE do?
A
Energizes the ignition exciter, firing the igniters, and starting FF to the engine
8
Q
True/false. Momentarily pressing the ENGINE START button again rests the ignition timer and starts another 30 s timer.
A
False. It does not. The relay is locked.
9
Q
Moving the throttle to MAX without an ENGINE START button ignition cycle does what?
A
Energizes the igniters for 30 s. Returning it below MIL resets the time for the relay. Any ENGINE START button usage disables the ignition relay reset function.
10
Q
What is responsible for a battery engine start?
A
AC power from the static inverter
11
Q
What is a throttle burst?
A
Movement in 1 s or less from idle to MIL RPM
12
Q
Where is the throttle cutoff gate?
A
FCP only. Engines can only be cutpff from the FCP
13
Q
What 3 things are powered by AC on the EED?
A
Oil px, fuel qty, fuel flow indicator. Can be shown with DC only power by putting the OXY/FUEL switch to Gage Test or QTY CHECK which gets the static inv working
14
Q
If the EED starts up below 32 deg F, what is the start time?
A
up to 5 min. Normally 15 s when warmer.
15
Q
If EGT exceeds 650 deg C what happens?
A
If it doesn’t exceed 665 deg C without an EGT OVERTEMP CAUTION, the mission may be continued and it is non latched
16
Q
What EED items run on DC power?
A
EGT, nozzle, and rpm
17
Q
If during INIT/M/S ops with the EED, if there is a 0 value on the display, what does this mean?
A
A sensor fail
18
Q
If during INIT/M/S ops with the EED, if there is a FAIL on the display, what does this mean?
A
internal EED failure
19
Q
What are aircraft FF limits at MIL power?
A
2100-2700 pph
20
Q
Is increased FF during afterburner shown by the fuel flow indicator?
A
No
21
Q
During engine shutdown the EED FF indicator should show no higher than what?
A
60 pph
22
Q
What must be present to get fuel quantity indications?
A
Right oil px autosyn (AC)
23
Q
When do you get the caution FUEL LOW light?
A
250 lbs or less for more than 7.5 s
24
Q
What does the display look like for fuel qty gages with fuel imbalance?
A
no change: 0-50 lbs
white: 60-190 lbs
red: >=200 lbs
25
If one fuel system works for the EED, will a magenta crossfeed indication still be drawn?
Yes, from the working side. There will be no indication if both indicators are failed
26
Turning on pitot heat or formation landing lights may do what to the fuel qty?
Make it jump +/- 100 lbs. Changes more than that indicate a fuel quantity probe fail.
27
An EED HOT indication will do what?
Drop that display brightness by 50% and eventually not power the backlight--however if it is the Master, it still supplies data to the Slave
28
If there's an OFF indication on a gage, what does that mean?
Sensor data is not available
29
What is part of the MFC system?
The Main Fuel Control, engine driven pump, overspeed governor
30
What does the MFC do?
It is a function of power lever angle (throttle position), T2, CP3, and RPM. It regulates engine speed, protects vs overtemps, stalls, flameouts, provides fuel, and positions the inlet guide vanes and air bleed valves
31
What is part of the Afterburner system?
Igniter plug, AFC, afterburner fuel pump, AB pilot manifold, AB main manifold
32
At full MAX position what might be total fuel flow?
7300 pph at rest, 11,400 pph at Mach 1
33
What does the AFC do?
Provides for consistent AB ops, and regulates the variable engine nozzle (VEN) unless overridden by the T5 amplifier
34
What is the purpose of the T5 amplifier?
Protects vs engine overtemps and prevents stalls. It overrides the VEN control to OPEN THE NOZZLE to maintain T5 at max allowable temp based on T2 and T5 sensors
35
What powers the T5 amplifier?
The engine TAC generator (above 75% rpm)
36
What is the oil system capacity and purpose?
4 qts, 1 qt expansion, venting should not exceed 6 oz/hr, cooling and lubrication
37
Where does gearbox shift occur?
65-75% rpm range
38
What does the gearbox operate?
hydraulic pump and AC generator
39
What does the fire warning and detection system respond to?
Overall average temp or highly localized temps
40
What can cause a compressor stall?
nozzle mischeduling, throttle bursts, high AoA at low airspeed, FOD, low compressor inlet temps T2, ice, inlet guide vanes etc
41
What are indications of a compressor stall?
At low altitudes, rapid RPM drop, high EGT
| At high altitude, rapid RPM drop, low EGT
42
What's the response to a flameout or compressor stall?
Throttle IDLE and press ENGINE START button
43
What are the indications of a flameout?
Combustion ceases. Engine rpm and EGT rapidly decrease
44
What is engine nozzle misscheduling (hysteresis)?
Occurs when transitioning from T5 control at MIL power settings. The nozzle area reduces usually between 94-97% rpm. It can be corrected by bringing the throttle back to idle.
45
Where are the left system fuel cells?
forward fuselage, forward and aft dorsal cells
46
Where are the right fuel system tanks located?
center and aft fuselage cells
47
What is in each fuel system?
A fuel boost pump, a fuel filter and bypass, a shutoff valve, fuel px caution lt
48
What are the four primary fuels?
Jet A/JP 8, Jet B/JP 4
49
When refueling manually, make sure of what?
That the left system is fueled first to prevent the ac from sitting on its tail due to a cg imbalance
50
Without aid of boost pump the system can be gravity fuel fed up to what altitude?
MAX power up to 25,000' MSL normally but guaranteed only to 6,000 with flameouts as low as 7,000
51
When are LEFT FUEL PRESS/RIGHT FUEL PRESS lights valid ind of boost pump fail?
With crossfeed OFF, fuel shutoff switch normal, and throttle out of OFF
52
How long does it take for a fuel flow switch to OFF to shut off fuel flow to the respective engine?
approximately 1 sec
53
With either both boost pumps ON or OFF and crossfeed on what can occur?
A rapid fuel imbalance
54
If crossfeed ops is continued until the active system runs dry what may occur?
Dual engine flameout
55
Which cockpit has a CROSSFEED light?
The RCP
56
When do you get a FUEL LOW caution light?
One fuel indicator reads below 250 lbs after 7.5 sec
57
The fuel qty indicators should be monitored to keep the two systems within what fuel bal?
200 lbs to mx CG limits
58
Taxi ops with less than what gas in either system could cavitate the boost pump?
150 lbs
59
With a low fuel state (250 lbs in either), do not select CROSSFEED with both boost pumps operating. True/False.
True
60
What can reduce boost pump output?
Less than 650 lbs in either system reduces boost pump output by 40%
61
With a FUEL LOW light how should you fly?
With a slightly nose-up attitude, and stop during descents to refill the sump
62
With a low fuel state (250 lbs in either), do not select CROSSFEED with both boost pumps operating when single-engine. True/False
False
63
What is composition of the electrical system?
3 AC: 2 gen/engine at 115 V and a receptacle for ext pwr at 200 V
3 DC: 2 busses/engine powered by 2x50 A TRU and one noness powered by a 24 V battery
64
When do the generators come online?
43-48% RPM
65
The power protection systems allow sustained ops of either bus operating as low as what?
90 V
66
Auto transfer between power supplies with a gen fail may take up to how long?
2.5 s
67
Below 108+/-2 V AC, the TRU generates what message?
RECTIFIER FAILURE PFL
| AVIONICS on HUD/MFD
68
left AC BUS ops below voltage can trigger what errors?
AVIONICS in HUD/MFD
ADC FAILURE PFL
Loss of AoA info
69
right AC BUS ops below voltage can trigger what errors?
HUD anamolies, MDP shutdown
| RECTIFIER FAILURE PFL
70
True/false. If a TRU fails, the other will automatically cover the power supply for it.
True.
71
Failure of the left essential bus DC CB causes what?
Left essential and non-essential DC bus failure
72
When TRU output falls below what you get a RECTIFIER FAILURE PFL?
25.5 V for more than 2 s--might still get some voltage
73
When do you get a XMFR RECT OUT caution light?
When BOTH TRUs fail
Non-essential DC bus drops off
May see flicker with AB ops
74
What min V is needed for the battery relay to close?
| The battery will continue ops until what voltage?
18 V
| 10 V
75
In case of a dual TRU fail, the noness bus deenergizes and battery supplies how much time of power?
15 min
76
What does the static inv do?
It is batt bus powered and converts DC voltage to AC
77
What does the static inv provide power to?
1) . First engine start
2) . Ops of right AC instr--oil px, fuel flow and BOTH fuel qty
3) . Oxygen qty ind
78
How can the static inv be powered on the ground?
Engine start button pressed, OXY/FUEL check switch held in GAGE TEST or QTY check
79
How can the static inv be powered in flight?
Engine start button pushed, throttle moved into MAX range, OXY/FUEL check switch moved into GAGE TEST or QTY CHECK
80
What is on the L AC bus?
```
SAS/rudder trim
TRU
AOA heat
Left hydr/FF/boost pump
Lights
```
(STALL)
81
What is on the R AC bus?
```
right boost pump/fuel flow/hydr/
Anti ice
WCA and lts (dim)/MDP
Lights (flood), light off (ign exc), HUD, flaps
Seat adj/seal
Boost pump (right)/FF/hydr/oil
AC
TAT probe/TRU/Trim
```
82
What is on the battery 24 V bus?
SEA
Static inv
Engine start ctrl
AB ign ctrl
83
What is on the non-ess DC bus?
TCAS processor
UFCP
VHF/video recorder/video camera (HUD)
(TUV)
84
What is on the left essential DC bus?
```
AIU/AOA/AAP
Crossfeed
Flap control
Fuel shutoff
IFF
XPDR
Oxy qty
SB
Standbys
VOR/ILS
WCA lights (bright)
```
85
What is on the right essential DC bus?
```
ADC/AIU
EED
EGI
Fire det/flap pos ind
gen ctrl
ldg gr control/lts
MFD
NWS
RALT
TACAN/TCAS
UHF
```
Lose computers on right essential DC. Alt ext needed.
No flaps, no HUD, no trim no fun on right AC.
86
What does the utility (left sys) hydr sys power?
```
FANGS
Flt controls
Augmentor (YSAS)
NWS
Gr/gr doors
SB
```
87
What do you get either UTILITY HYDRAULIC or FLIGHT HYDRAULIC lights for?
1) . Low px condition-1500 psi or less
2) . Fluid overtemp
***nothing for fluid lvls or overpx
88
When do the caution lts go out?
When overtemp condition is alleviated.
| When hydr px restored to 1800 psi or more
89
Ldg gr ext/retraction takes approximately how long?
6 s
90
When can you hear the GEAR tone/see the HUD ind/red light in handle?
210 KCAS or less
10,000' or below AND
Both throttles below 96% rpm
***With single eng ops may never get the to e bc need engine rpm higher to fly
91
When does the gr warning tone go silent? What about light in handle?
Nose gr down and locked
| All gr down and locked
92
Red light in the gr handle may not go out until what as?
240 KCAS
93
In gr retraction a light in handle indicates what?
gear doors not completely retracted
94
When do you get a "GEAR, GEAR" voice warning?
nose Gr down and locked with as<240 KCAS
| nose gr down and locked with as b/w 220-240 KCAS and increasing at 2 kt/sec
95
With DC failure what light will not illiminate in the ldg gr?
RCP nose gr lt
96
What does the alt ext do?
Allow gr ext without hydr or elec power
97
How long does alt gr ext take?
May take up to 35 s, normally approximately 15 s
98
How do you reset the alt system?
With LG handle DOWN then UP
99
What are some negatives about staying on alt gr ext?
Striker plate in nose well will be down, main gr doors stay on, NWS not operational
100
What will be gr ind with alt ext?
No warning horn, 3 greens, red doors, red lt in handle
101
What does the landing gr door switch do?
Operate the landing gr doors
102
How do you deactivate NWS?
1) . Release the switch on the HOTAS
| 2) . One or both throttles to MAX
103
How do you know brakes require mx?
Can't see the nut--it's less than flush with the cylinder rim
104
How does the flight control system work?
Cannot feel airloads--artificially gen by springs and bob weights. Each control sys has 2 hydraulic cylinders, one powered by utility and one by hydraulic system
105
Rudder deflection is controlled by linkage to what and how does this change the rudder?
3/4 nose gr extension or less, 6 deg deflection; more nose gear extension 30 deg deflection
RUDDER IS DANGEROUS WITH GR DOWN
106
Ground operation of the YSAS results in what on the ground?
Chatter of the rudder pedals 5-10 s after NWS activation during turns, 1-2 s after turns
107
How does the YSAS work?
It is AC powered and moves the rudder to reduce oscillations. It is powered by the EGI switch. Gen Xover can cause it to kick off as does downloading DTS ICAO to MDP
108
What does the takeoff trim system do?
It moves the horizontal tail for optimum TO setting with a motor and light to green. It cuts off if there is control stick pressure in the wrong direction to what is being trimmed
109
How do the flaps work?
Electrically DC controlled, operated by AC motors, interconnected by a rotary shaft. If one motor breaks, the flaps can both still deploy bc of this
110
What does the flap-slab interconnect do?
The horizontal tail auto repositions to minimize pitch changes, more horizontal tail available for nose down, more horizontal tail deflection per inch stick travel
111
If the flap-slab interconnect fails, what will happen?
AC will always pitch up with heavy stick forces, AC will try and settle (sink) when flaps go up, normal handling qual only with flaps UP
112
When operating the emergency mode how can the flaps be stopped?
By placing the lever at the 60% detent
113
Which switch overrides the other for the SB?
The RCP. To regain ctrl the FCP must move their switch to HOLD
114
From where does the pneumatic system get air?
```
8th stage compressor. It is used for DCGAP.
Defog
Canopy seal
G-suit
Anti-icing/A/C
Press
```
115
How is the canopy defog controlled?
Pneumatically. All other pneumatic systems are AC.
116
What is the cabin press scheduling?
0-8000: at altitude
8000-23,000: 8000+/-1000
Above 23,000: diff of 5 PSI above ambient px +/-2000
117
Selecting RAM DUMP turns off what systems?
```
Defog
Canopy seal does not get air
G-suit will not inflate
Air conditioning
Pressurization
```
Does not affect anti-ice. Seal remains inflated for an undetermined amount of time
118
What should you do if you have vibrations accompanied by fumes or odors?
Gangload, descend below 25,000' and select RAM DUMP
119
What is expected with engine anti-ice on?
A CAUTION light saying the switch is on, EGT 15 deg C increase at engine speeds 94-98% rpm
120
What happens to the engine anti-ice system with a complete loss of AC power?
Fails to ON position.
121
Below what engine speed is the anti-ice valve always open?
65%
122
What loss of thrust can be expected with anti-ice on?
180+/-10 lbs (8.5% loss MIL, 5.5% loss at MAX)
123
What else does the Air Data Computer (ADC) supply info to?
Landing gr warning circuits
124
What info does the standby altimeter and VVI get?
Static pressure only
125
What 3 items does the PITOT HEAT switch operate?
1) pitot boom
2) AOA txmitter vane heater
3) Total Air Temp (TAT) probe heater
126
What may occur when pitot heat ops on the ground exceed 30 s?
1) YSAD disengage until 25 kt airflow
2) Can get an ADC PFL and 3 AOA index lights due to vibration
3) TAS not available
127
What is the TAT probe's temp range?
+/-60 deg C
128
What does the AOA system do?
Approximate AOA for max range, max endurance, optimum AOA for final approach, AOA when approach to stall buffet and stall will occur
129
Where is the AOA vane?
Right side of the AC
130
What if the ADC detects txmitter or flap position outputs are out of tolerance or missing?
You'll lose all AOA info, get an ADC FAIL PFL, and AOA indexer lts will illuminate
131
When should you write up all 3 AOA indexer lights/heat mtr fail?
When it doesn't go out for 2 consec minutes
132
Any time the aircraft has been pressurized, what must be done to open the canopy?
RAM DUMP. Also make sure px has equalized
133
The front canopy is designed to withstand what bird impact?
4 lb bird at 125-400 kts
134
Avoid opening the canopy with what relative wind?
GS plus winds exceed 30 kts
135
When should you pull the MOR handle?
When aircrew/seat separation is desired above 14,000'
136
What force is needed to activate the emergency oxygen? What is it charged to?
16-40 lbs; 1800-2500 psi
137
Do not operate the seat adjust switch for more than what?
1 min in an 8 min period
138
When will the barostatic time release unit operate?
Above 15,000' and b/w 12,000 and 15,000' until g-load less than 3.25 gs, below 12,000' until g-load less than 6.20 gs
139
How do you emer ground egress?
```
Dump
Radio call
Safe
Throttles-off
Unstrap-2122
Battery
```
140
What type of oxygen system?
LOX.
141
When do you get an OXYGEN low-level light?
Oxygen qty ind reads 1 L or less. could be caused by sloshing with less than 3 L
142
How can you check oxygen qty?
GAGE TEST with AC power
| QTY CHECK with only DC power (static inv works)
