Day 1 Flashcards

1
Q

A 3-month-old infant presents with vomiting and regurgitation following feeds. The child is gaining weight normally and no abnormalities are found on examination

A

gastro-oesophageal reflux disease

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2
Q

a 6-year-old girl who has sickle cell disease develops pallor and fatigue shortly after a viral illness characterized by an erythematous rash affecting her cheeks

A

Parvovirus B19

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3
Q

A two-year-old child is brought to the hospital. His parents are concerned as he has had a temperature of 39ºC for the last five days. They have also noted that his eyes are red, his neck is swollen and he has a new rash.

On examination, there is a generalised maculopapular rash and the child has bilateral conjunctivitis. There is unilateral cervical lymphadenopathy. The lips are cracked and erythematous and a strawberry tongue is present.

What is the diagnosis?

What treatment should this child receive initially?

A

This child has Kawasaki disease.

Kawasaki disease is a systemic vasculitis that generally presents in the under 5s.

Typical findings, as seen in this case, include an acute febrile illness lasting over 5 days, bilateral non-purulent conjunctivitis, unilateral cervical lymphadenopathy, a polymorphic rash, and mucosal erythema with a strawberry tongue.

Swelling of the hands and feet can occur in the acute stage with desquamation in the second week. Coronary aneurysms can develop in up to one-quarter of untreated patients.

THE MAIN GOAL OF TREATMENT IS TO REDUCE CARDIAC COMPLICATIONS.

The standard treatment in the UK is intravenous immunoglobulin and high dose aspirin (despite the fact that it is usually contraindicated in children) due to the additional anti-inflammatory effects this provides.

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4
Q
A

maculopapular rash

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5
Q

Define febrile

A

febrile

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6
Q

Define purulent

A

consisting of, containing, or discharging pus.

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7
Q
A

conjunctivitis

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8
Q

What is a polymorphic rash?

A
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9
Q

What are the characteristics of Kawasaki’s disease?

(6)

A

Typical findings

  1. acute febrile illness lasting over 5 days
  2. bilateral non-purulent conjunctivitis
  3. unilateral cervical lymphadenopathy
  4. polymorphic rash
  5. mucosal erythema
  6. strawberry tongue
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10
Q

What is vasculitis?

A

autoimmune inflammation, of the blood vessels

categorized by the size of the blood vessels

white blood cells confuse the normal antigens on the endothelial cells with the antigens of foreign invaders because they look similar—this is called molecular mimicry

This exposes the underlying collagen to intravascular coagulation (blood clots(

Fibrin is deposited into the walls as part of the healing process stiffening the vessels or aneurysms

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11
Q

What causes Kawasaki’s disease?

A

vasculitis affecting medium-size vessels supplying organs

it affects the coronary arteries

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12
Q

How is Kawasaki’s disease managed?

(4)

A

Management

  • high-dose aspirin
  • Kawasaki disease is one of the few indications for the use of aspirin in children. (Due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome aspirin is normally contraindicated in children)
  • intravenous immunoglobulin
  • echocardiogram (rather than angiography) is used as the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms
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13
Q

What is Reye’s syndrome

(2)

A
  • Encepalopaphy + liver damage following a viral infection
  • mitochondria become damaged within the liver and the liver is unable to filter nitrogenous compounds, causing hepatic encepaplopathy
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14
Q

A 5-week-old boy is brought into the GP by his mother with diarrhoea and vomiting for the past 4 days. He also has a new rash that is irritating him and has developed a runny nose.

There is no history of any weight loss, pyrexia, or other family members being unwell.

On further questioning, she reports that she has tried to wean him from breast to bottle this week as she is going away with work in 3 weeks time and is anxious about him not feeding well if there is a sudden change.

The GP suspects that the infant may have cow’s milk protein intolerance.

What is the next most appropriate feed to trial in this infant?

A

If a formula-fed baby is suspected of having mild-moderate cow’s milk protein intolerance then a extensively hydrolysed formula should be tried

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15
Q

When is extensively hydrolysed formula milk used?

A

severe cow’s milk protein intolerance

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16
Q

What are the features of cows milk intolerance in infants?

A

Features

  1. regurgitation and vomiting
  2. diarrhoea
  3. urticaria, atopic eczema
  4. ‘colic’ symptoms: irritability, crying
  5. wheeze, chronic cough
  6. rarely angioedema and anaphylaxis may occur
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17
Q

When is Amino acid-based formula used in infants?

A

Amino acid-based formula is appropriate for infants with severe cow’s milk protein intolerance (CMPI).

This formula is less palatable, however, it is appropriate for those with severe intolerance as it is composed of free amino acids only.

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18
Q

When is high protein formula used in infants?

(2)

A

High protein formula has been used to manage pre-term infants.

This is becoming an increasingly specialised use as there are increasing studies showing that high-protein feed (even in prematurity) is associated with increased long-term obesity risk.

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19
Q

When is a lactose-free formula used in infants?

A

Lactose-free formula would be appropriate if the child was considered to be lactose intolerant.

The features pointing towards cow’s milk protein intolerance are:

rash and runny nose

Infants with lactose intolerance will usually have GI symptoms only.

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20
Q

Cause of obesity in children

(5)

A

Cause of obesity in children

  1. growth hormone deficiency
  2. hypothyroidism
  3. Down’s syndrome
  4. Cushing’s syndrome
  5. Prader-Willi syndrome
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21
Q

What is Prader-Willi syndrome?

A

Prader-Willi syndrome is an example of genetic imprinting where the phenotype depends on whether the deletion occurs on a gene inherited from the mother or father:

  • Prader-Willi syndrome if gene deleted from father
  • Angelman syndrome if gene deleted from mother
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22
Q

NICE recommendations for clinical obesity in children

(2)

A

NICE recommend

consider tailored clinical intervention if BMI at 91st centile or above

consider assessing for comorbidities if BMI at 98th centile or above

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23
Q

Eight-year-old. He has dysmorphic features with:

  • macro-dolichocephaly,
  • down-slanting palpebral fissures pointed chin
  • Parents note that he has rapid growth and challenging behaviours

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Sotos syndrome: a rare disorder characterised by excessive physical growth and learning disabilities

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24
Q

Define dolichocephaly

A

Dolichocephaly

The most common form of craniosynostosis, where premature closure of the sagittal suture results in an impediment to the lateral growth of the skull while anteroposterior growth continues, producing a classic elongated, yet narrow, skull.

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25
Q

What is Sotos syndrome?

(2)

A

Sotos syndrome is a rare genetic disorder characterised by excessive physical growth during the first 2 to 3 years of life

It is caused by a mutation in the NSD1 (Nuclear receptor-binding SET domain containing protein) gene and is inherited with in an autosomal dominant fashion

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26
Q

What are the characteristics of Patau syndrome?

(4)

A

Trisomy 13

Microcephalic, small eyes
Cleft lip/palate
Polydactyly
Scalp lesions

survival beyond the neonatal period is rare

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27
Q

What are the features of Edward’s syndrome?

(4)

A

Trisomy 18

Micrognathia
Low-set ears
Rocker bottom feet
Overlapping of fingers

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28
Q

Marie is a 14-year-old who has come to her GP for contraception advice. She explains she has been sexually active with a 14-year-old male partner for the last 2 months.

She has researched various methods of contraception and would like to try the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP).

She has previously had depression after being abused as a child and remains under the care of the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services.

However, she says her mood has been much better since meeting her partner. Her parents do not know about the situation and she can not be convinced to tell them.

What is the right course of action?

A

Prescribe the COCP, providing there are no contraindications

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29
Q

When can you provide contraceptive, abortion and STI advice and treatment, without parental knowledge or consent?

A

a. they understand all aspects of the advice and its implications
b. you cannot persuade the young person to tell their parents
c. the young person is very likely to have sex with or without such treatment
d. their physical or mental health is likely to suffer unless they receive such advice or treatment
e. it is in the best interests of the young person to receive the advice and treatment without parental knowledge or consent.

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30
Q

A 2-day-old baby has not passed meconium yet.

Your consultant tells you they believe that the child has Hirschsprung’s disease, and asks you what your initial management would be.

Until a firm diagnosis can be made and more definite treatment given, which of these is the best initial treatment for this child?

A

The initial management in Hirschprung’s disease is rectal washouts/bowel irrigation

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31
Q

What is the cause of Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

Hirschsprung’s disease is caused by an aganglionic segment of bowel due to a developmental failure of the parasympathetic Auerbach and Meissner plexuses.

Thus a segment of the bowl is paralysed.

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32
Q

Possible presentations of Hirschsprung’s

(2)

A

Possible presentations

neonatal period e.g. failure or delay to pass meconium

older children: constipation, abdominal distension

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33
Q

Hirschsprung’s investigations

(2)

A

Investigations

abdominal x-ray

rectal biopsy: gold standard for diagnosis

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34
Q

Hirschsprung’s management

A

Management

initially: rectal washouts/bowel irrigation

definitive management: surgery to affected segment of the colon

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35
Q

A mother comes in saying that she thinks her 6-month-old son has colic.

She shows you a video on her phone.

The video shows a 6-month-old baby crying, which stops abruptly and the child draws his chin into his chest, throws his arms out.

The child then relaxes and starts crying again, and over the course of the minute long video this is repeated around 10 times.

The mother also reports that the child has been referred to the community paediatric clinic due to slight delay in reaching developmental milestones.

Which one test is most appropriate for you order to help confirm your diagnosis?

A

In infantile spasms the child will become distressed between spasms, whereas in colic the child will become distressed during the ‘spasms’

EEG is needed, as hypsarrhythmia is commonly found in West’s syndrome.

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36
Q

Define colic

A

Colic is when a healthy baby cries for a very long time, for no obvious reason.

It is most common during the first 6 weeks of life.

It usually goes away on its own by age 3 to 4 months. Up to 1 in 4 newborn babies may have it.

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37
Q

Define Hypsarrhythmia

A

Hypsarrhythmia is very chaotic and disorganized brain electrical activity with no recognizable pattern, whereas a normal brain electrical activity

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38
Q

An 11-week-old boy started with a runny nose and mild fever.

He was better for 2 days, and then now has begun coughing often, is struggling to breathe and is not taking to feeds.

On examination, there is evidence of nasal flaring.

On chest auscultation, there are bilateral crackles and an expiratory wheeze. His temperature is 38.2ºC (normal: 36.1-38.0ºC), oxygen saturations are 98% on air (normal: >96%), the heart rate is 130 beats per minute (normal: 115-160), and he has a respiratory rate of 48 breaths per minute (normal: 25-45).

What is the most likely diagnosis?

What is the most appropriate treatment?

A

Bronchiolitis does not require antibiotics

children require supportive management only

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39
Q

Bronchiolitis features

(5)

A

Features

  • coryzal symptoms (including mild fever) precede:
  • dry cough
  • increasing breathlessness
  • wheezing, fine inspiratory crackles (not always present)
  • feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea are often the reason for hospital admission
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40
Q

Investigation of bronchiolitis

A

Investigation

immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV

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41
Q

Management of Bronchiolitis

(3)

A

Management is largely supportive

  • humidified oxygen is given via a head box and is typically recommended if the oxygen saturations are persistently < 92%
  • nasogastric feeding may be needed if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth
  • suction is sometimes used for excessive upper airway secretions
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42
Q

Epidemiology of bronchiolitis

(3)

A

respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is the pathogen in 75-80% of cases

most common cause of a serious lower respiratory tract infection in < 1yr olds (90% are 1-9 months, with a peak incidence of 3-6 months). Maternal IgG provides protection to newborns against RSV

higher incidence in winter

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43
Q

A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder. What is the most appropriate dietary advice to give to his parents?

A

NICE recommend a normal balanced diet unless a food diary has demonstrated a link between behaviour and certain foods.

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44
Q

What is Croup?

A
  • Croup is a form of upper respiratory tract infection seen in infants and toddlers.
  • It is characterised by stridor which is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions.
  • Parainfluenza viruses account for the majority of cases.
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45
Q

What is the Epidemiology of croup?

(2)

A

What is the Epidemiology

peak incidence at 6 months - 3 years

more common in autumn

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46
Q

What are the features of croup?

(4)

A

Features

  • stridor
  • barking cough (worse at night)
  • fever
  • coryzal symptoms
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47
Q

What is Laryngomalacia?

(2)

A

Congenital abnormality of the larynx.

Infants typical present at 4 weeks of age with: stridor

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48
Q

What is Acute epiglottitis?

What ages does it affect?

A

Acute epiglottitis is rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B.

Prompt recognition and treatment is essential as airway obstruction may develop.

Epiglottitis generally occurs in children between the ages of 2 and 6 years.

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49
Q

What are the features of acute epiglottitis?

(4)

A

Features

  1. rapid onset
  2. unwell, toxic child
  3. stridor
  4. drooling of saliva
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50
Q

An 11-year-old boy presents to his general practitioner with unilateral hip and knee pain of 2 weeks after being involved in a tackle whilst playing football.

He has a marked limp that has recently worsened.

On examination, there is the loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. He has no fever and his observations are stable.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

There is often the loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion in slipped capital femoral epiphysis

typically age group is 10-15 years

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51
Q

Epidemiology of slipped capital femoral epiphysis

(4)

A
  • typically age group is 10-15 years
  • More common in obese children and boys
  • Displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly
  • May present acutely following trauma or more commonly with chronic, persistent symptoms
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52
Q

Features of Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

(3)

A

Features

hip, groin, medial thigh or knee pain

loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion

bilateral slip in 20% of cases

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53
Q

What are the investigations and management of Slipped capital femoral epiphysis?

A

Investigation

AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views are diagnostic

Management

internal fixation: typically a single cannulated screw placed in the center of the epiphysis

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54
Q

What is Transient synovitis?

(4)

A

Transient synovitis is sometimes referred to as irritable hip. It generally presents as acute hip pain associated with a viral infection.

The typical age group is 2-10 years.

A low-grade fever is present in a minority of patients but high fever should raise the suspicion of other causes such as septic arthritis.

It is the commonest cause of hip pain in children.

Transient synovitis is self-limiting, requiring only rest and analgesia.

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55
Q

What is Perthes’ disease?

What is the typical age range?

Where does it affect?

(3)

A

Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition affecting the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years.

It is due to avascular necrosis of the femoral head, specifically the femoral epiphysis.

Impaired blood supply to the femoral head causes bone infarction.

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56
Q

What are the features of Perthes’s disease?

(4)

A

Features

  • hip pain: develops progressively over a few weeks
  • limp
  • stiffness and reduced range of hip movement
  • x-ray: early changes include widening of joint space, later changes include decreased femoral head size/flattening
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57
Q

What is the epidemiology of Perthes’ disease?

(3)

A

children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years

Perthes’ disease is 5 times more common in boys.

Around 10% of cases are bilateral

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58
Q

How is Perthes’ disease diagnosed?

What are the complications?

A

Diagnosis

  • plain x-ray
  • technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging if normal x-ray and symptoms persist

Complications

  • osteoarthritis
  • premature fusion of the growth plates
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59
Q

You see the mother of a 6-month-old baby who was born premature (at 32 weeks) and has recently been discharged from hospital following an admission with ‘breathing problems’.

Whilst he was in the hospital he was given an injection called palivizumab, however, the mother cannot recall what this medication is for.

What is this medication and its indication?

A

Palivizumab is a monoclonal antibody which is used to prevent respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) in children who are at increased risk of severe disease.

Those at risk of developing RSV include

  • Premature infants
  • Infants with lung or heart abnormalities
  • Immunocompromised infants
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60
Q

A 32-year-old G1P0 woman, who is 32-weeks pregnant, attends her GP surgery complaining of dysuria.

The GP arranges a urine dip and culture. The urine culture grows, a Gram-positive, beta-haemolytic cocci, described in the report as ‘Group B’.

What is the most likely effect on the foetus, from the bacteria identified in the mother’s urine culture?

A

Maternal Group B Streptoccocus is a risk factor for neonatal sepsis

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61
Q

Prenatal rubella infection is associated with which birth defect?

A

Congenital cataracts and Hearing impairment

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62
Q

Congenital cataracts and Hearing impairment is associated with which prenatal infection?

A

Rubella infection

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63
Q

What are the risk factors for neonatal sepsis?

A

low birth weight

Prolonged rupture of membranes (≥18 hours)

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64
Q

A 26-year-old primiparous woman gives birth to her first child at 39 weeks.

The child is delivered via caesarean section.

The baby and mother are well post-delivery. Observations are normal and there are no postoperative complications noted.

During routine post-birth checks, a sample of umbilical cord blood is taken and analysed.

Glucose is recorded as 2.4 mmol/L.

What should the management be?

A

Encourage early feeding and monitoring blood glucose is the correct answer. Transient hypoglycaemia is common in newborns, and if asymptomatic is not a cause for concern.

In these cases, as in the situation above, encouraging early feeding (either bottle or breast) and monitoring blood glucose until normalised is all that is required.

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65
Q

A 16-year-old girl with cystic fibrosis is being reviewed for her annual check-up. She was diagnosed with cystic fibrosis 15 years ago.

She has a good exercise tolerance, minimal gastrointestinal symptoms and has not been hospitalised in the past year.

Her recent investigations show an iron-deficient anaemia on her blood work, and multiple positive sputum cultures for Burkholderia species.

Her latest FEV1 is 60% of her predicted.

What feature of her history confers the greatest increase in mortality?

A

Chronic infection with Burkholderia species is known to increase mortality

This infection is an opportunistic infection which can cause loss of lung reserve, hospitalisation and disseminated infection. All of these features contribute to the increase in mortality it confers.

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66
Q

A 3-month-old baby girl is diagnosed as having developmental dysplasia of the left hip following an ultrasound examination.

Clinical examination of the hip was abnormal at birth.

What treatment is she most likely to be given?

A

Pavlik harness (dynamic flexion-abduction orthosis)

most unstable hips will spontaneously stabilise by 3-6 weeks of age

older children may require surgery

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67
Q

Developmental dysplasia of the hip

Clinical examinations (2)

A

Clinical examination

Barlow test: attempts to dislocate an articulated femoral head

Ortolani test: attempts to relocate a dislocated femoral head

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68
Q

A 9-day-old pre-term neonate stops tolerating his cow’s milk feeds given by the nurses in the special care baby unit.

He vomited after the most recent feed and the nurse noticed bile in the vomit. Stools are normal consistency but the last stool contained fresh red blood.

On examination, he is well hydrated but his abdomen is grossly distended and an urgent abdominal x-ray is requested.

X-ray shows distended loops of bowel with thickening of the bowel wall. What is the next best step in management?

A

This scenario describes a case of necrotising enterocolitis.

Given the history and examination along with the age and prematurity of the infant, bacterial necrotising enterocolitis is the most likely diagnosis.

Due to the seriousness of this, broad-spectrum antibiotics must be commenced immediately. For this reason, answer 2 is the correct answer.

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69
Q

You are performing a newborn baby check and discover during your examination that the neonate has ambiguous genitalia.

What is the most likely cause of ambiguous genitalia?

A

congenital adrenal hyperplasia is most common cause in newborns

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70
Q

What is Klinefelter’s syndrome also known as?

What is the karyotype of Klinfleter’s?

What are the features? (6)

How is it diagnosed?

A

What is Klinefelter’s syndrome also known as?

primary hypogonadism

What is the karyotype of Klinfleter’s?

Karyotype 47, XXY

What are the features?

  • often taller than average
  • lack of secondary sexual characteristics
  • small, firm testes
  • infertile
  • gynaecomastia - increased incidence of breast cancer
  • elevated gonadotrophin levels

How is it diagnosed?
chromosomal analysis

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71
Q

Why are patients with Klinefelter’s normally diagnosed during puberty?

(2)

A

Individuals with Kallman’s syndrome do not have ambiguous genitalia

They are phenotypically and genotypically male, but have hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.

This is often diagnosed at puberty.

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72
Q

During routine post-birth checks, a sample of umbilical cord blood is taken and analysed. Glucose is recorded as 2.4 mmol/L.

What should the management be?

A

Neonatal hypoglycaemia: if asymptomatic then encourage normal feeds and monitor glucose

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73
Q

A 9-day-old pre-term neonate stops tolerating his cow’s milk feeds given by the nurses in the special care baby unit. He vomited after the most recent feed and the nurse noticed bile in the vomit. Stools are normal consistency but the last stool contained fresh red blood. On examination he is well hydrated but his abdomen is grossly distended and an urgent abdominal x-ray is requested. X-ray shows distended loops of bowel with thickening of the bowel wall.

What is the diagnosis?

What is the next best step in management?

A

Given the history and examination along with the age and prematurity of the infant, bacterial necrotising enterocolitis is the most likely diagnosis.

Due to the seriousness of this, broad-spectrum antibiotics must be commenced immediately.

74
Q

Feverish illness in children Red Flags

A

• Pale/mottled/ashen/blue

  • No response to social cues
  • Appears ill to a healthcare professional
  • Does not wake or if roused does not stay awake
  • Weak, high-pitched or continuous cry
  • Grunting
  • Tachypnoea: respiratory rate >60 breaths/minute
  • Moderate or severe chest indrawing

• Reduced skin turgor

  • Age <3 months, temperature >=38°C
  • Non-blanching rash
  • Bulging fontanelle
  • Neck stiffness
  • Status epilepticus
  • Focal neurological signs
  • Focal seizures
75
Q

A 6-year-old boy is brought to the GP by his mother.

He has been experiencing coryza accompanied by a fever of 37.8C for the last 3 days.

This morning his mother noticed a red rash on both cheeks and pallor surrounding his mouth.

Which is the most likely causative organism?

A
  • In this scenario, the boy presents with slapped-cheek syndrome, also known as erythema infectiosum.
  • He has a typical presentation of coryza and fever followed by a red rash.
  • This infection is caused by parvovirus b19
76
Q

Define coryza

A

runny nose

77
Q

Features of chickpox

(3)

A
  • Fever initially
  • Itchy, rash starting on head/trunk before spreading. Initially macular then papular then vesicular
  • Systemic upset is usually mild
78
Q

Which disease presents with a fever initially, then developed into an itchy rash on the head/trunk before spreading.

The rash is initially macular, then papular, then vesicular.

A

Fever initially

Itchy, rash starting on head/trunk before spreading. Initially macular then papular then vesicular

Systemic upset is usually mild

79
Q

Features of measles

A
  • Early symptoms: irritable, conjunctivitis, fever
  • Koplik spots: white spots (‘grain of salt’) on buccal mucosa
  • Rash: starts behind ears then to whole body, discrete maculopapular rash becoming blotchy & confluent
80
Q

Which childhood disease initially presents with irritability, conjunctivitis, fever.

Koplik spots are also present on the buccal mucosa

A maculopapular rash then develops behind the ears, spreading to the whole body.

A

Measles

81
Q

Features of rubella

(2)

A
  • Rash: pink maculopapular, initially on face before spreading to whole body, usually fades by the 3-5 day
  • Lymphadenopathy: suboccipital and postauricular
82
Q

Which common childhood disease presents with:

Lymphadenopathy: suboccipital and postauricular and pink maculopapular rash, initially on face before spreading to whole body, which usually fades by the 3-5 day

A

Rubella

83
Q

What are the features of Erythema infectiosum infection?

(4)

A
  • Also known as fifth disease or ‘slapped-cheek syndrome
  • Caused by parvovirus B19
  • Lethargy, fever, headache
  • Slapped-cheek’ rash spreading to proximal arms and extensor surfaces
84
Q

A child has slapped cheek syndrome, lethargy, fever and headache.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

(2)

A

Erythema infectiosum Caused by parvovirus B19

85
Q

What are the features of scarlet fever?

(4)

A
  • Reaction to erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci
  • Fever, malaise, tonsillitis
  • ‘Strawberry’ tongue
  • Rash - fine punctate erythema sparing the area around the mouth (circumoral pallor)
86
Q

A young patient has fever malaise, tonsilitis and strawberry tongue.

There is also a punctate rash around the body, sparing the area around the mouth.

A

Scarlet fever

87
Q

define punctate

A

studded with or denoting dots or tiny holes.

88
Q

Which conditions present with “strawberry tongue”?

(3)

A

Kawasaki disease

Strawberry naevus

Scarlet fever

89
Q

What are the features of Hand, foot and mouth disease?

A
  • Caused by the coxsackie A16 virus
  • Mild systemic upset: sore throat, fever
  • Vesicles in the mouth and on the palms and soles of the feet
90
Q

A 4-year-old boy is reviewed in the Paediatric Admissions Unit. He has had a fever for the past week.

On examination, he has red, sore lips and conjunctival injection. He also has swollen, red hands.

A

High fever lasting >5 days, red palms with desquamation and strawberry tongue are indicative of Kawasaki disease

91
Q

Which immunisations are included in the 6 in 1 vaccine?

At what age is this vaccine given?

A
  1. Diphtheria
  2. tetanus
  3. pertussis
  4. polio
  5. Haemophilus influenzae Type B Infection
  6. hepatitis B

Current guidelines suggest giving it at 8 weeks

92
Q

What is Vesicoureteral reflux?

A

abnormal flow of urine from your bladder back up the tubes

93
Q

What is a Micturating cystourethrogram?

A

a contrast x-ray of the urethra+bladder+ureters

94
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Vesicoureteric reflux (VUR)

A

Pathophysiology of VUR

  • ureters are displaced laterally, entering the bladder in a more perpendicular fashion than at an angle
  • therefore shortened intramural course of the ureter
  • vesicoureteric junction cannot, therefore, function adequately
95
Q

You are running a Thursday afternoon clinic and a father comes in with his 12-year-old son who has developed new pustular, honey-coloured crusted lesions over his chin.

You diagnose localised non-bullous impetigo.

What is your management plan?

A

Prescribe topical hydrogen peroxide 1% cream and advise them that the child should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed.

A child with impetigo should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment

96
Q

What is Impetigo?

How is it managed?

A

Impetigo is a superficial bacterial skin infection usually caused by either Staphylcoccus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes

  • NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries now recommend hydrogen peroxide 1% cream for ‘people who are not systemically unwell or at a high risk of complications’
97
Q

Which conditions require no time off school?

(7)

A
  1. Conjunctivitis
  2. Fifth disease (slapped cheek)
  3. Roseola
  4. Infectious mononucleosis
  5. Head lice
  6. Threadworms
  7. Hand, foot and mouth
98
Q

How long should patients with scarlet fever stay off school?

A

24 hours after commencing antibiotics

99
Q

How long should patients with Whooping cough stay off school?

A

24 hours after commencing antibiotics

100
Q

How long should patients with measles stay off school?

A

4 days after commencement of the rash

101
Q

How long should patients stay off school with rubella?

A

5 days from the onset of the rash

102
Q

When can patients with chickenpox go back to school?

A

When all the lesions have crusted over

103
Q

How long should patients with mumps

A

5 days from the onset of swollen glands

104
Q

How long should patients with impetigo wait before going back to school?

A

Until lesions are crusted and healed,

or

48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment

105
Q

When can patients with diarrhoea and vomiting go back to school

A

48 hours after the previous episode

106
Q

How long should patients with scabies wait before returning to school?

A

until treated

107
Q

How long should patients with Influenza wait before returning to school?

A

until recovered

108
Q

What is fragile X syndrome?

What are the clinical features?

A

Fragile X syndrome is a trinucleotide repeat disorder.

Features in males

  • learning difficulties
  • large low set ears, long thin face, high arched palate
  • macroorchidism
  • hypotonia
  • autism is more common
  • mitral valve prolapse
109
Q

How is fragile x syndrome diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis

  • can be made antenatally by chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis
  • analysis of the number of CGG repeats using restriction endonuclease digestion and Southern blot analysis
110
Q

A 12-hour old baby is reviewed on the neonatal intensive care unit after his nurse noticed tremors movements of his limbs.

He’s been noted to be taking poorly to feeds, more irritable and more drowsy than usual.

He was born at 34 weeks, by emergency caesarean section for reduced foetal movements and foetal bradycardia. His mother has a relatively healthy pregnancy, apart from needing to take carbamazepine for epilepsy.

On examination, he was notably bigger than expected, adjusted for prematurity. He is visibly jittery on arm movements when moving around.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Which part of his history puts him at risk for this?

A

Preterm birth (< 37 weeks) is a key risk factor for neonatal hypoglycaemia

This baby has the classical signs of neonatal hypoglycaemia, with the autonomic features of irritability and jitteriness, and the neuroglycopenic features of drowsiness and poor feeding. Neonatal hypoglycaemia has various risk factors, which can be thought of as due to the inability to regulate glucose or reduced glycogen stores.

A pre-term infant will not yet have developed the same glycogen reserve that a term infant will have done.

Therefore, prematurity is an important risk factor for the development of neonatal hypoglycaemia.

111
Q

A four-year-old child with poorly controlled asthma attends GP surgery with his mother due to increasing frequency of his asthma exacerbations. He is already on salbutamol inhaler as required and beclometasone inhaler 200mcg/day. He uses these devices with a spacer and has good technique.

What is the next best step in his management?

A

Child aged < 5 years with asthma not controlled by a SABA + paediatric low-dose ICS - asthma management in children < 5 years - add a leukotriene receptor antagonist

112
Q

What are leukotrienes?

(2)

A
  • Leukotrienes are inflammatory chemicals the body releases after coming in contact with an allergen or allergy trigger.
  • Leukotrienes cause tightening of airway muscles and the production of excess mucus and fluid.
113
Q

You see a worried mum with her 6 month old baby boy. She is concerned that his skull shape is not normal.

His occiput is flattened on the left, his left ear mildly protruding forward and his left forehead more prominent than the right.

No other abnormality is detected. What is the most appropriate management?

A

Reassurance

Plagiocephaly

  • parallelogram shaped head
  • the incidence of plagiocephaly has increased over the past decade. This may be due to the success of the ‘Back to Sleep’ campaign
114
Q

A 6-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department after fever for 6 days and has not been himself. He has given him paracetamol but this has had no effect.

On examination, the boy has bright red cracked lips, injection of the conjunctiva, palpable lymph nodes in the cervical region and the palms of his hands and soles of his feet are red.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

What medication should be administered?

A

High dose aspirin is indicated in Kawasaki disease, despite it usually being contraindicated in children

115
Q

How are patients with scarlet fever treated?

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V)

116
Q

What is Benzylpenicillin (penicillin G) used to treat?

A

Benzylpenicillin (penicillin G) is indicated for patients with various infections, including meningitis and endocarditis.

117
Q

At what age should a child be able to sit without support?

A

7-8 months

118
Q

At what age should a child be able to crawl?

A

9 months

119
Q

At what age should a child be able to walk unsupported?

A

12-15 months

120
Q

At what age should a child be able to squat to pick up a toy?

A

18 months

121
Q

At what age should a child be able to run?

A

two years

122
Q

At what age should a child be able to walk upstairs without a rail?

A

3 years

123
Q

At what age should a child be able to hop on one leg?

A

4 years

124
Q

A 2-month-old girl is brought to surgery with poor feeding and vomiting.

The mother reports that her urine has a strong smell.

A urinary tract infection is suspected.

What is the most appropriate management?

A

Refer immediately to hospital

  • infants less than 3 months old should be referred immediately to a paediatrician
125
Q

A 6-week-old boy presents to the paediatric emergency department with fever, vomiting and reduced appetite for the last 48 hours. There are no concerns regarding his growth and development so far.

On examination, the patient appears to be lethargic and unsettled. He is tachypnoeic and his temperature is 39ºC. His blood pressure and pulse rate are within the normal range. There are no signs suggesting raised intracranial pressure.

  1. What test should be performed?
  2. What is the likely diagnosis?
  3. What is the likely treatment?
A
  1. Lumbar puncture
  2. Bacterial meningitis
  3. Empirical antibiotics
126
Q

A 6-week old boy has meningitis.

What are the likely causative organisms for his age?

A

Group B streptococcus

E.coli

Listeria monocytogenes

127
Q

A 6-year old boy has meningitis.

What are the likely causative organisms for his age?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

Streptococcus pneumoniae

128
Q

A 7-year-old boy has a diagnosis of asthma which has been treated with salbutamol as and when required.

His mother feels that his symptoms have worsened and he now has a night time cough which is keeping him awake and affecting him at school.

The examination is unremarkable. How should you manage this?

A

In this question, as is currently common in clinical practice, the child is not taking an inhaled corticosteroid.

129
Q

You review a 10-year-old girl with increasing constipation over the past 4 years, having normal bowel habits beforehand. The rest of the history and examination are normal. She is on no medication at present.

What would be an appropriate next step in the management?

A

Osmotic laxative

An osmotic laxative should be prescribed initially as the stool is likely to be hard.

A stimulant laxative may also be required, but only once the stools are soft.

130
Q

A 4-month-old baby is brought to the Emergency Department with vomiting for the past 3 days.

His mother describes the vomiting as projectile that occurs after every feed and is not settling.

Heart rate is 140bpm, respiratory rate is 36/min, blood pressure is 90/60mmHg, capillary refill is 3 seconds and mucous membranes are slightly dry. He is afebrile.

The paediatric registrar comes down to review the baby and decides to admit him for further investigation. Which of the following investigations would be most useful to determine the diagnosis?

A

The infant in this scenario demonstrates classical signs of pyloric stenosis.

Projectile vomiting after every feed in a young baby should increase the index of suspicion for possible pyloric stenosis.

131
Q

Pyloric stenosis epidemiology

(4)

A

incidence of 4 per 1,000 live births

4 times more common in males

10-15% of infants have a positive family history

first-borns are more commonly affected

132
Q

Pyloric stenosis features

(4)

A

Features

‘projectile’ vomiting, typically 30 minutes after a feed

constipation and dehydration may also be present

a palpable mass may be present in the upper abdomen

hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis due to persistent vomiting

133
Q

How is pyloric stenosis diagnosed and managed?

A

Diagnosis is most commonly made by ultrasound.

Management is with Ramstedt pyloromyotomy.

134
Q

A 4-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his concerned mother.

She says that she first noticed he had a mild fever and runny nose around 5 days ago, and over the last few days, he appears to have become more breathless and is grunting when he breathes.

She is particularly concerned because she struggles to get him to feed and reports that his nappies are not as wet as normal.

On examination, you notice chest recessions, wheeze and bilateral inspiratory crackles.

Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate treatment?

A

Bronchiolitis does not require antibiotics, children requires supportive management only

135
Q

A 2-year-old boy is taken to his GP with a 1 day history of right-sided limp.

His parents report him being otherwise fit and well apart from a recent cold and his nursery deny observing any physical trauma.

On examination, he is afebrile and evidently in pain however has a normal range of movement in the right hip.

What would be the most appropriate management at this stage?

A

Urgent assessment should be arranged for a child < 3 years presenting with an acute limp

Nice Clinical Knowledge Summaries advise that all children with an acute limp < 3 years of age should be urgently assessed in secondary care because they are at higher risk of septic arthritis and child maltreatment.

136
Q

You are asked to review a neonate on the labour ward.

They were born at 40 weeks gestation with no complications.

Parents are reluctant to administer vitamin K to the baby, stating they prefer a more natural approach.

What advice would you give to the parents regarding best practice in neonatal vitamin K?

A

Both oral and IM routes of vitamin K are licensed for neonates, but IM should be recommended to parents due to reduced concerns about compliance and shorter (one-off) treatment duration

Vitamin K is very important in preventing haemorrhagic disease of the newborn. It can be given either intramuscularly or orally.

137
Q

Why are newborns given vitamin K?

(3)

A
  • Newborn babies are relatively deficient in vitamin K.
  • This may result in impaired production of clotting factors which in turn can lead to haemorrhagic disease of the newborn (HDN).
  • Bleeding may range from minor brushing to intracranial haemorrhages

NB: Breast-fed babies are particularly at risk as breast milk is a poor source of vitamin K. Maternal use of antiepileptics also increases the risk

138
Q

A 7-year-old with a one day history of a painful right hip. Just about able to walk but painful. Looks flushed and has a temperature of 38.7ºC

A

Septic arthritis/osteomyelitis

139
Q

An 8-month-old child is noted to have a discrepancy between the skin creases behind the right and left hips

A

Development dysplasia of the hip

140
Q

An obese 13-year-old boy presents with a two week history of right sided knee pain associated with a stiff right hip. There is no history of trauma

A

Slipped upper femoral epiphysis

141
Q

A 2-month-old boy is brought to the general practitioner by his mother.

Since birth he has been feeding poorly, is often agitated and has a blue-tinge to his lips after prolonged episodes of crying.

He was born at term, weighing 2400 grams at delivery.

Examination reveals an ejection systolic murmur at the left sternal edge.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot: Cyanosis or collapse in first month of life, hypercyanotic spells. Ejection systolic murmur at left sternal edge

142
Q

What are the four features of tetralogy of fallot

(4)

A

ventricular septal defect (VSD)

right ventricular hypertrophy

right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, pulmonary stenosis

overriding aorta

143
Q

Secondary features of tetralogy of Fallot

(4)

A

cyanosis

causes a right-to-left shunt

ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis (the VSD doesn’t usually cause a murmur)

chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy

144
Q

A 16-year-old girl comes to your GP surgery worried that she has not yet started her periods.

She is quite short, has a webbed neck, low set ears and widely spaced nipples.

A heart murmur is heard on auscultation.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

What type of murmur are you most likely to hear?

A

Turner’s syndrome is associated with an ejection systolic murmur due to bicuspid aortic valve

145
Q

Which murmur is associated with Turner’s syndrome?

(2)

A

ejection systolic murmur due to bicuspid aortic valve

146
Q

A 6-year-old girl presents with her mother who notices that her daughter often gets out of breath when climbing the stairs at home. .

On examination, small multiple bruises, of varying ages are seen on both her lower legs.

Cardiac examination reveals a soft systolic murmur heard on the left sternal edge. Examination of her abdomen reveals a palpable mass in the left and right hypochondriac regions.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Hepatosplenomegaly and the presence of bruising together with the symptoms of anaemia (soft systolic murmur and shortness of breath on exertion) suggest ALL.

Acute lymphoid leukaemia

147
Q

The parents of a 14-month-old girl present to their GP. They have noticed that in some photos there is no ‘red eye’ on the left hand side. When you examine the girl you notice an esotropic strabismus and a loss of the red-reflex in the left eye. There is a family history of a grandparent having an enucleation as a child. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

A congenital cataract may cause a loss of the red-reflex but is likely to have been detected at birth or during the routine baby-checks. It would also not explain the family history of enucleation.

148
Q

How would you differentiate from acute epiglottitis and croup?

A

Acute epiglottitis

  • 2 and 6 years
  • rapid onset
  • unwell, toxic child
  • stridor
  • drooling of saliva

Croup

  • 6 months - 3 years
  • more common in autumn
  • stridor
  • barking cough (worse at night)
  • fever
  • coryzal symptoms
149
Q

Meconium ileus is a common neonatal feature of what?

A

cystic fibrosis

150
Q

When is the neonatal blood spot screening test typically performed in the United Kingdom

A

Neonatal blood spot screening (previously called the Guthrie test or ‘heel-prick test’) is performed at 5-9 days of life

151
Q

Neonatal blood spot screening tests

(9)

A
  1. congenital hypothyroidism
  2. cystic fibrosis
  3. sickle cell disease
  4. phenylketonuria
  5. medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD)
  6. maple syrup urine disease (MSUD)
  7. isovaleric acidaemia (IVA)
  8. glutaric aciduria type 1 (GA1)
  9. homocystinuria (pyridoxine unresponsive) (HCU)
152
Q

A 2-year-old boy presents with a harsh cough and pyrexia. His symptoms worsened overnight and on examination stridor is noted. Which one of the following interventions may improve his symptoms?

A

Croup - A single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg) is to be taken immediately regardless of severity

153
Q

A 38-year-old foster parent brings in her 5-year-old foster child to the GP. He has been complaining of pain when going to the toilet.

The foster mother explains that he often has pain when urinating and as a younger child often cried when passing urine.

He has only recently developed pain while defecating, however, the foster mother is clearly concerned and consents to the GP examining the child.

Which clinical finding is most likely to be indicative of child sexual abuse?

A

Anal fissures and recurrent UTIs in children can be indicative of sexual abuse

154
Q

Features of childhood sexual abuse can include:

(8)

A
  1. pregnancy
  2. sexually transmitted infections, recurrent UTIs
  3. sexually precocious behaviour
  4. anal fissure, bruising
  5. reflex anal dilatation
  6. enuresis and encopresis
  7. behavioural problems, self-harm
  8. recurrent symptoms e.g. headaches, abdominal pain
155
Q

A 7-week-old baby boy is brought to his GP surgery as his mum is concerned that his feeding has been poor over the last 24hours.

She has noticed he feels warm but hasn’t noticed any cough or coryzal symptoms. He is due to have his immunisations next week.

He has had a wet and dirty nappy today and she noticed his urine smelt very strongly.

On examination, he has a raised temperature at 38.9ºC. He is irritable but examination of his chest and abdomen is otherwise normal.

What is the most appropriate management for this child?

A

Children under 3 months with a suspected UTI should be referred to specialist paediatrics services

156
Q

Why do neonates have a greater risk of hyperbilirubinaemia?

A

Neonatal blood cells have a life cycle of 70 days, compared to adult red blood cells’ 120 days

there is also less efficient hepatic metabolism

157
Q

What is Kernicterus?

A

deposition of bilirubin into the brain parenchyma

about half of free bilirubin is free circulating

this can cross into the blood-brain barrier

bilirubin should be conjugated

158
Q

Which parts of the brain are particularly affected by bilirubin?

(2)

A

basal ganglia

responsible for the coordination of movement

159
Q

Why would a baby with neonatal jaundice not respond to light therapy?

A

if the bilirubin is conjugated, usually intrahepatic:

bile duct obstruction

galactosaemia

alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency

160
Q

Which of the following is a cause of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia in infants?

Choledochal cyst

Physiologic jaundice

Bile duct obstruction

Cystic fibrosis

Neonatal hepatitis

A

Physiologic jaundice

it is the only non-intrahepatic cause of hyperbilirubinaemia

161
Q

How might you measure neonatal jaundice?

A

blood sample

transcutaneous meter

162
Q

How does age factor into neonatal jaundice?

A

if the baby is <24 hours old, more likely to be haeomolysis

if the child is >2 weeks old (3 weeks if preterm, the problem is more likely to be an unconjugated syndrome

163
Q

Risk factors for neonatal jaundice

A
  • haemolysis? if the mother is type O blood group
  • if the Mediterranean, far east or afro, G6PD deficiency
164
Q

in a foetus, what is the direction of blood flow?

A

right to left

pulmonary artery to the aorta

n.b. pulmonary pressure is high, keeping the ductus arteriosis open

165
Q

ina a neonate which direction of shunt is found in patent ductus arteriosis?

A

left to right shunt

aorta to pulmonary artery

166
Q

What is the PaO2 in uterus?

What is the PaO2 in at birth?

A

25mmHg

60-80mmHg

it changes as the lungs fill with air

167
Q

What week does surfactant synthesis occur?

A

28 weeks

168
Q

Name the three main types of newborn respiratory pathologies:

(3)

A

Transient tachypnea of newborn (TTN)

Respiratory Distress Syndrom (RSD)

Persistent pulmonary hypertension (PPHT)

169
Q

Describe the mechanism of Transient tachypnea of newborn (TTN)

Which age baby is likely to get it?

What is the Mechanism

A
  • tachypnoea (fast breathing)
  • GRUNTING
  • caused by failure to clear lung fluid
  • use of accessory muscles
  • nasal flaring

frequently seen in “late preterms” 34-37 weeks

Mechanism

decreased expression of amioloride-sensitive airway epithelial cell Na+ ion channels, delaying lung fluid clearance

170
Q

Describe the mechanism of Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)

Which age baby is likely to get it?

What is the Mechanism

A

Features include:

  • hypoxaemia
  • blue-coloured lips, fingers and toes
  • rapid, shallow breathing
  • flaring nostrils
  • a grunting sound when breathing

almost always seen in premature ~28 weeks babaies

caused by insufficient surfactant production; treated with steroids and CPAP

171
Q

What are the side effects of giving oxygen to a neonate?

(3)

A

O2 produces free radicals which cause

retinopathy of prematurity

and brochodysplasia

172
Q

What is port wine stain also known as?

A

Sturge–Weber syndrome

173
Q

Name three vascular birthmarks

A

port wine stain (Sturge–Weber syndrome)

salmon patches

Strawberry naevus

174
Q

What are Salmon patches?

(4)

A

Salmon patches are a kind of vascular birthmark which can be seen in around half of newborn babies they are also known as stork marks or stork bites.

They are pink and blotchy, and commonly found on the forehead, eyelids and nape of the neck.

They usually fade over a few months, though marks on the neck may persist.

175
Q

What are Strawberry naevi?

(4)

A

Strawberry naevi (capillary haemangioma) are usually not present at birth but may develop rapidly in the first month of life. They appear as erythematous, raised and multilobed tumours.

Typically they increase in size until around 6-9 months before regressing over the next few years (around 95% resolve before 10 years of age).

Common sites include the face, scalp and back. Rarely they may be present in the upper respiratory tract leading to potential airway obstruction

Capillary haemangiomas are present in around 10% of white infants.

176
Q

What is the epidemiology of strawberry naevi?

(2)

A

Female infants, premature infants and those of mothers who have undergone chorionic villous sampling are more likely to be affected

they rarely appear at birth and grow during the first month

177
Q

Potential complications of strawberry naevus

(4)

A

mechanical e.g. Obstructing visual fields or airway

bleeding

ulceration

thrombocytopaenia

178
Q

When would treatment of strawberry naevus be required?

How would it be treated?

A

If treatment is required (e.g. Visual field obstruction)

propranolol is increasingly replacing systemic steroids as the treatment of choice.

Topical beta-blockers such as timolol are also sometimes used.

179
Q

What is a cephalohematoma?

A

A cephalohematoma is an accumulation of blood under the scalp.

During the birth process, small blood vessels on the head of the fetus are broken as a result of minor trauma.

180
Q
A