Day 4 Flashcards
A mother comes to surgery with her 6-year-old son. During the MMR scare she decided not to have her son immunised. However, due to a recent measles outbreak she asks if he can still receive the MMR vaccine.
What is the most appropriate action?
Give MMR with repeat dose in 3 months.
The Green Book recommends allowing 3 months between doses to maximise the response rate.
A period of 1 month is considered adequate if the child is greater than 10 years of age.
In an urgent situation (e.g. an outbreak at the child’s school) then a shorter period of 1 month can be used in younger children.
Contraindications to MMR
(5)
severe immunosuppression
allergy to neomycin
children who have received another live vaccine by injection within 4 weeks
pregnancy should be avoided for at least 1 month following vaccination
immunoglobulin therapy within the past 3 months (there may be no immune response to the measles vaccine if antibodies are present)
Adverse effects of the MMR
(2)
Malaise, fever and rash may occur after the first dose of MMR.
This typically occurs after 5-10 days and lasts around 2-3 days
When are children given the MMR?
(2)
Children in the UK receive two doses of the Measles, Mumps and Rubella (MMR) vaccine before entry to primary school.
This currently occurs at 12-15 months and 3-4 years as part of the routine immunisation schedule
You are asked to attend a preterm delivery. The neonate is born at 36 weeks gestation via emergency Caesarean section. The neonate has difficulty initiating breathing and requires resuscitation.
- They are dyspnoeic and tachypnoeic at a rate of 85 breaths/min.
- On auscultation of the chest, there is reduced breath sounds bilaterally.
- Heart sounds are displaced medially.
- The abdominal wall appears concave.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia presents with scaphoid abdomen, due to herniation of the abdominal contents into the cleft
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia can present with dyspnoea and tachypnoea at birth. The auscultation findings are due to pulmonary hypoplasia and compression of the lung due to the presence of abdominal contents in the thoracic cavity.
Prompt treatment and respiratory support are required.

A 2-month-old baby is rushed into the emergency department by her parents who discovered her limp and blue in her cot.
- On assessment, she is found to not be breathing and has no femoral pulses.
Paediatric life support is commenced and 5 rescue breaths are given.
What is the most appropriate technique for in-hospital chest compressions in a paediatric patient of this age?
The two-thumb encircling technique at a compression: breath ratio of 15:2 is the correct answer according to the paediatric life support algorithms.
In an in-hospital environment where intermediate/advanced life support is being used, a ratio of 15:2 should be used for compressions: breaths.
Once a definitive airway has been established, compressions should then be continuous.
A 2-year-old boy with meningococcal septicaemia arrests on the ward.
You are the first person to attend. After confirming cardiac arrest and following paediatric BLS protocol, what is the rate you should perform chest compressions at?
The UK Resuscitation Council’s Paediatric Basic Life Support guideline states that chest compressions for children of all ages must be performed at a rate of 100-120 per minute. Compressions should depress the sternum by at least a third of the depth of the chest.
A 6-year-old boy comes to see you with his mother.
He reports that he has pain in his knees and calves bilaterally at night which has been ongoing for the past 6 months.
These pains are worse if he has played football in the daytime. He describes that these pains can cause him to wake up at night time around 1-2 times per month.
Examination of the knee is unremarkable. He is otherwise fit and well.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Growing pains are a common complaint in children aged 3-12 years.
These usually present with children complaining of pains in their legs.
When seeing children who are presenting with these symptoms it is important to check that there are no ‘red flags’
Features of growing pains
(7)
- never present at the start of the day after the child has woken
- no limp
- no limitation of physical activity
- systemically well
- normal physical examination
- motor milestones normal
- symptoms are often intermittent and worse after a day of vigorous activity
Features of JRA
(4)
Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis usually presents as:
fever, rash, symmetrical joint pain and swelling
Features of Osteosarcoma
(3)
Features of osteosarcoma include:
an unexplained lump
unexplained bone pain
unexplained swelling.
Features of Osteochondritis
(4)
Osteochondritis dissecans is a joint disorder in which cracks form in the articular cartilage and underlying subchondral bone.
This results in joint pain, locking and swelling.
What is the triad of shaken baby syndrome?
(3)
Retinal haemorrhages
subdural haematoma
encephalopathy
What is shaken baby syndrome?
(2)
Subdural haematomas are the most common and classical intracranial feature of Shaken Baby Syndrome.
The bridging cerebral veins are fragile in infants and the theory is that these vessels are torn when a child is shaken, leading to subdural haematomas.
A 9-year-old boy is diagnosed as having Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder and started on methylphenidate.
What is monitored during treatment?
(2)
Growth
ECG at the start of treatment
At what age would the average child acquire the ability to sit without support?
The answer (6-8 months) includes the 6 months as stated in the MRCPCH Development Guide. Most other sources suggest a slightly later age of 7-8 months.
A 3-year-old boy, Lionel, is brought into the general practitioner by his mother.
She is worried about an umbilical hernia which Lionel has had since birth.
She was advised that this would likely self-resolve, however, it has not yet resolved.
The general practitioner performs an examination which identifies a 1cm umbilical hernia which is easily reducible.
His mother would like to know how this should be managed. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management plan?
(2)
Umbilical hernias: Usually self-resolve, but if large or symptomatic perform elective repair at 2-3 years of age.
If small and asymptomatic peform elective repair at 4-5 years of age.
A 2-day-old baby is brought to the Emergency Department after his mum noticed that he has became floppier, more irritable, and not feeding properly over the past 24 hours.
Lumbar puncture confirms meningitis.
Which is the most likely causative organism in this case?
Group B streptococcus
Neonates are at a greater risk of meningitis, with greater risks associated with low birth weight, prematurity, traumatic delivery, fetal hypoxia and maternal peripartum infection.
A 2-year-old child has a history of chronic constipation for the past year and chronic abdominal distention with vomiting for three months. It is suspected that the child may have Hirschsprung’s disease.
Which investigation from the list below offers the most definitive diagnosis for this condition?
Rectal biopsy is the gold standard for diagnosis of Hirschsprung’s disease
A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. Since this morning, he has developed a fever (38.3ºC) and become progressively short of breath. On examination, he appears unwell with stridor and drooling. His past medical history is otherwise unremarkable.
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most likely causative organism?
(2)
Acute epiglottitis is characterised by rapid onset fever, stridor and drooling
Haemophilus influenzae B
A 13-month-old girl is referred to paediatrics by her GP due to concerns that she is still not attempting to ‘pull to stand’. She was born at 29 weeks by emergency cesarean section due to foetal bradycardia and weighed 1.1kg at birth.
On examination, she appears healthy and engaged. She responds to her name and has 7 meaningful words. She can drink from a cup using both hands. When put on the floor, she commando crawls to move around. Upper limb tone is normal however lower limb tone is significantly increased.
Based on this patient’s symptoms, in which part of the brain/nervous system has damage occurred?
(2)
Spastic cerebral palsy results from damage to upper motor neurons
Upper motor neurons in the periventricular white matter
A neonate is born at 32 weeks gestation via spontaneous vaginal delivery. There was no meconium staining of the liquor. Shortly after delivery he develops cyanosis, tachypnoea, grunting and sternal recession.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
It is important to be aware of risk factors when answering questions like these. Prematurity is the major risk factor for NRDS. Caesarean section is the major risk factor for tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN). Meconium staining is the major risk factor for aspiration pneumonia.
A 6-year-old boy attends the emergency department with acute shortness of breath. His parents report that he has had a cold for a few days but today has been struggling more with his breathing. He has had several prior admissions for wheeze and has had exertional breathlessness and nighttime cough for the past year.
His observations show a respiratory rate of 30/min, heart rate 130/min, saturations 94% and temperature of 37.4ºC. He has intercostal and subcostal recession and a global expiratory wheeze but responds well to salbutamol.
What acute medication/medications should he be prescribed on discharge?
Steroid therapy should be given to all children who have an asthma attack
While a formal diagnosis has not been made, this acute presentation combined with interval symptoms (exertional breathlessness and nighttime cough) suggests that this patient has suffered an acute exacerbation of asthma. For this, a salbutamol inhaler + 3 days prednisolone PO are the correct acute medications to prescribe on discharge. For all children suffering an acute exacerbation of asthma 3-5 days of oral prednisolone should be given. It is important to ensure that all patients have an adequate supply of their salbutamol inhaler with advice on when and how to use it.
A 4-day-old girl who was diagnosed prenatally with Down’s syndrome and born at 38 weeks gestation presents with bilious vomiting and abdominal distension. She is yet to pass meconium.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Failure or delay to pass meconium is common presentation of Hirschprung’s disease





