Day 7 Flashcards

1
Q

Chickenpox features (4)

A

spread via the respiratory route

can be caught from someone with shingles

infectivity = 4 days before rash, until 5 days after the rash first appeared*

incubation period = 10-21 days

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2
Q

A 3-month-old boy is brought to surgery as his mother is concerned he is ‘floppy’.

Examination confirms a greater degree of hypotonia than would be expected at this age.

What could the possible diagnosis be?

A

Central causes

  • Down’s syndrome
  • Prader-Willi syndrome
  • hypothyroidism
  • cerebral palsy (hypotonia may precede the development of spasticity)

Neurological and muscular problems

  • spinal muscular atrophy
  • spina bifida
  • Guillain-Barre syndrome
  • myasthenia gravis
  • muscular dystrophy
  • myotonic dystrophy
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3
Q

A 9-month-old baby is brought to the emergency department by his father.

He has had a barking cough for the past 3 days and his father says he has been feeding poorly for the past 4 days.

On examination the child does not appear agitated and is easily distracted by his toys.

The barking cough is audible at rest and there is mild sternal retraction. Observations are otherwise stable.

What is the diagnosis?

What is the treatment?

A

Croup

A single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg) is to be taken immediately regardless of severity

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4
Q

A mother brings her 14-month-old son into surgery.

Since yesterday he seems to be straining whilst passing stools.

She describes him screaming, appearing to be in pain and pulling his knees up towards his chest.

These episodes are now occurring every 15-20 minutes.

This morning she noted a small amount of blood in his nappy. He is taking around 50% of his normal feeds and vomiting ‘green fluid’ every hour.

On examination, he appears irritable and lethargic but is well hydrated and apyrexial.

On examination, his abdomen seems distended but no discrete mass is found.

What is the most likely diagnosis?
(3)

A

Intususseption

Whilst constipation is common, it would not cause the bilious vomiting as described.

An abdominal ‘sausage-shaped’ mass, whilst classical, is only found in around 25% of cases.

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5
Q

Management of intususseption

(2)

A

the majority of children can be treated with reduction by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used first-line compared to the traditional barium enema

if this fails, or the child has signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed

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6
Q

Features of intususseption

(5)

A

paroxysmal abdominal colic pain

during paroxysm the infant will characteristically draw their knees up and turn pale

bilious vomiting

bloodstained stool - ‘red-currant jelly’ - is a late sign

sausage-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant

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7
Q

A 5-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with severe pain in their right hip and a sudden inability to weight-bear. His parents are very concerned about the possibility of an infection. He had a viral upper respiratory tract infection 1 week ago, from which he has recovered. He appears well. He has had no trauma to the hip.

Blood tests revealed normal WCC and ESR. An ultrasound scan of the hip shows a mild effusion in the joint capsule.

What is the most appropriate next step?

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Transient synovitis is self-limiting, requiring only rest and analgesia

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8
Q

An 15-day old baby presents to the emergency department with his mother. His mother states he has not been feeding or drinking well for the last two days. She believes he is not gaining much weight and his stools have been more pale than usual. On examination, you note the baby is visibly jaundiced and has hepatomegaly. Your team conducts a newborn jaundice screen, with one of the differentials being biliary atresia.

What finding would support this diagnosis most?

A

Conjugated bilirubin is elevated in biliary atresia

Biliary atresia can present with prolonged jaundice

(present > 14 days of age), hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, abnormal growth, cardiac murmurs if associated cardiac abnormalities are present.

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9
Q

Findings of billiary attresia

(4)

A

Conjugated bilirubin is elevated in biliary atresia and therefore this is the correct answer.

Biliary atresia can present with prolonged jaundice (present > 14 days of age),

hepatomegaly,

splenomegaly,

abnormal growth,

cardiac murmurs if associated cardiac abnormalities are present.

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10
Q

Complications of biliary atresia

(3)

A

unsuccessful anastomosis formation

progressive liver disease

cirrhosis with eventual hepatocellular carcinoma

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11
Q

Investigations for biliary atresia

(6)

A
  • Serum bilirubin including differentiation into conjugated and total bilirubin: Total bilirubin may be normal, whereas conjugated bilirubin is abnormally high
  • Liver function tests (LFTs) including serum bile acids and aminotransferases are usually raised but cannot differentiate between biliary atresia and other causes of neonatal cholestasis
  • Serum alpha 1-antitrypsin: Deficiency may be a cause of neonatal cholestasis
  • Sweat chloride test: Cystic fibrosis often involves the biliary tract
  • Ultrasound of the biliary tree and liver: May show distension and tract abnormalities
  • Percutaneous liver biopsy with intraoperative cholangioscopy
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12
Q

A 3-year-old boy presents with 6 days of fever, increasing irritability and a rash. His mother is worried because she has been giving him Calpol and ibuprofen for the last few days but has seen no improvement. On examination his temperature is 38.9°C, respiratory rate is 30 breaths/min, and heart rate is 136 beats/min. On further inspection, the child is noted to have bilateral conjunctivitis with no exudate, cervical lymphadenopathy, erythema of the oral mucosa, and a non-vesicular rash that is spreading from his hands and feet. What immediate treatment should be given?

(3)

A

High dose aspirin and a single dose of intravenous immunoglobulin

The child presents with at least five of the six diagnostic criteria for Kawasaki disease. Therefore the correct answer is high dose aspirin and a single dose of intravenous immunoglobulin.

Initial aspirin dose of 7.5-12.5 mg/kg 4 times a day for 2 weeks or until afebrile, then 2-5 mg/kg once daily for 6-8 weeks (source: BNF for Children)

Intravenous immunoglobulin 2 g/kg daily for 1 dose, treatment should be given within 10 days of onset of symptoms (source: BNF for Children)

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13
Q

A 5-month-old girl presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of cough and wheeze, on a background history of one week of mild fever and coryzal symptoms. She is otherwise well and has no past medical history of note. Respiratory examination identifies generalised wheeze. Observations show:

  • Respiratory rate 50/min
  • Blood pressure 90/50mmHg
  • Temperature 38.1ºC
  • Heart rate 122 bpm
  • Oxygen saturation 97% on room air

What is the most appropriate management for this infant?

A

Bronchiolitis does not require antibiotics, children require supportive management only

The correct answer is supportive management only. This child is presenting with cough and wheeze on a background history suggestive of a viral illness; this should raise suspicion of bronchiolitis. Bronchiolitis is a condition characterised by bronchiole inflammation in response to a recent viral illness, most commonly respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). As this patient’s observations show only a mild fever, the most appropriate management is supportive. Alternatively, if her oxygen saturation was persistently below 92% or her feeding was affected, admission would be considered.

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14
Q

A 4-year-old girl is brought to the GP surgery by her father. She has a one-year history of asthma which has previously been controlled with a salbutamol inhaler twice daily and beclometasone 50 micrograms bd.

She has an audible wheeze that has been gradually worsening over the last few weeks and has not responded to additional doses of salbutamol. Her father also reports that she has a night-time cough for the past 4 weeks.

What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A

Add a trial of a leukotriene receptor antagonist e.g. montelukast

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15
Q

A 25-days-old newborn presents to the emergency department with his parents. He has a distended abdomen and looks lethargic. The parents report that he has been feeding less during the last three days and vomited repeatedly. They describe the vomit as bilious. This morning he produced stools with blood in them but he has no fever. He was born at 35 weeks following premature rupture of membranes. Now he is otherwise healthy.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Which investigations should be performed?

A

an x-ray should be performed

the most likely diagnosis is necrotising enterocolitis

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16
Q

What would an x-ray of a child with necrotising enterocolitis show?

(7)

A

x-rays with necrotising enterocolitis;

  • dilated bowel loops (often asymmetrical in distribution)
  • bowel wall oedema
  • pneumatosis intestinalis (intramural gas)
  • portal venous gas
  • pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation
  • air both inside and outside of the bowel wall (Rigler sign)
  • air outlining the falciform ligament (football sign)
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17
Q

Which main feature is pyloric stenosis characterised by?

What is the test for confirmation of pyloric stenosis?

A

Projectile vomiting

confirmed with feeding test

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18
Q

Laparoscopy is the investigation of choice for which GI paeds condition

A

PERFORATION

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19
Q

What is the diagnostic method of choice for the diagnosis of GI perforation?

A

laparoscopy

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20
Q

What is the diagnostic method of choice for intussusception?

A

ultrasound

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21
Q

What is the classical presentation of intussusception?

(3)

A

red-current jelly stool

paroxsysmal abdominal pain

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22
Q

What are the hallmark symptoms of necrotising enterocolitis?

(5)

A

bloody stools

abdominal distention

abdominal discolouration

perforation

peritonitis

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23
Q

What is the diagnostic method of choice for necrotising enterocolitis?

What might the investigation show?

(7)

A

dilated bowel loops

bowel wall oedema

portal venous gas

peneumo-peritooneum

inter-mural gas (pneumatosis intestenalis)

Rigler’s sign (air inside + outside the bowl wall)

football sign (air outlining the falciform ligament

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24
Q

Triad of cardiac malformations associated with Turner’s

(3)

A

coarctation of aorta

aortic root dilation

bicuspid aortic valve

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25
Q

A baby boy born 6 hours ago has an APGAR score of 10. He is not cyanosed, has a pulse of 140, cries on stimulation, his arms and legs resist extension and he has a good cry,

He appears jaundiced. What is the most appropriate action?

A

Measure and record the serum bilirubin level urgently (within 2 hours) in all babies with suspected or obvious jaundice in the first 24 hours of life since this is likely to be pathological rather than physiological jaundice. NICE CG98

Causes of jaundice in the first 24 hrs

  • rhesus haemolytic disease
  • ABO haemolytic disease
  • hereditary spherocytosis
  • glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase
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26
Q

Physiological causes of jaundice in the first 2-14 days

(3)

A

more RBCs

more fragile RBCs

less developed liver function

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27
Q

causes of jaundice within the first 24 hours

A

rheasus haemolytic disease

ABO hemolytic disease

hereditary spherocytosis

glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency

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28
Q

decribe the pathophysilogy of Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

A

a defect in an enzyme called glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase causes red blood cells to break down prematurely

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29
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of ABO haemolytic disease

(2)

A

maternal IgG antibodies with specificity for the ABO blood group system pass through the placenta to the fetal circulation

here they can cause hemolysis of fetal red blood cells which can lead to fetal anaemia and HDN.

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30
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis pathophysiology

(4)

A

most common hereditary haemolytic anaemia in people of northern European descent

autosomal dominant defect of red blood cell cytoskeleton

the normal biconcave disc shape is replaced by a sphere-shaped red blood cell

red blood cell survival reduced as destroyed by the spleen

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31
Q

A 2-day-old neonate born at term presents with tachypnoea, grunting and cyanosis. He is unable to feed. Oxygen saturation is at 70% on room air. On auscultation there is a loud S2 and systolic murmur that is loudest at the left sternal border. A diagnosis of transposition of the great arteries is suspected. He is started on intravenous fluids, antibiotics, and scheduled for surgery.

What is the diagnosis?

Which medications should be given?

A

should be given prostaglandin E1

In ductal dependent cyanotic heart diseases, prostaglandin E1 (alprostadil) is infused to prevent closure of the patent ductus arteriosus until a surgical correction can be carried out.

This will allow mixing of deoxygenated and oxygenated blood so as to provide adequate systemic circulation. Antibiotics should also be given as prophylaxis for bacterial endocarditis.

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32
Q

Anatomical changes seen in transposition of the great arteries

(2)

A

the right ventricle outputs to the aorta

the left ventricle outputs to the pulmonary trunk

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33
Q

What is the embryonic cause of TGA?

What increases the risk?

A

failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to spiral during septation

children of diabetic mothers are at increased risk

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34
Q

Which murmur is heard in patients with TGA?

Where is the murmur heard?

A

loud S2 and systolic murmur

at left sternal border

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35
Q

Which drug is used to keep at PDA open?

Which drug is used to close a PDA?

A

Prostaglandin E1

Indomethacin/ibuprofen

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36
Q

Causes of cyanotic congenital heart disease

(3)

A

tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)

transposition of the great arteries (TGA)

tricuspid atresia

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37
Q

What is a “nitrogen washout test”?

(3)

A

An infant is given 100 percent oxygen for 10 minutes

an ABG is then taken

if the oxygen is less than 15kPa, a congenital cyanotic heart disease is indicated

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38
Q

5 T’s for cyanotic congenital heart diseases (CHD):

A

It is useful to remember the Tetralogy of fallot

Transposition of great vessels (TGA)

Tricuspid atresia

Total anomalous pulmonary venous return

Truncus arteriosus

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39
Q

What is measured for an AGPAR score?

What is the highest possible AGPAR score?

A
  • Pulse
  • Respiratory effort
  • Colour
  • Muscle tone
  • Reflex irritability

Highest possible score of 10/10

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40
Q

You are working on the neonatal unit and examine a new-born baby. On examination you note a small left sided haematoma over the parietal bone.

It does not extend beyond the margins of the parietal bone and is soft to touch. The baby is otherwise well.

The baby was born by spontaneous vaginal delivery at term. There were no problems prenatally or during labour.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

A cephalhaematoma can often be confused by medical students with a caput succedaneum.

Distinguishing features of a cephalhaematoma are that they usually develop after birth and do not cross the suture lines of the skull as the blood is confined between the skull and periosteum.

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41
Q

How can cephalohematoma be differentiated from caput secundum?

(2)

A

In cephalohematoma, the swelling develops after birth

it also doesn’t cross the suture lines of the skull as blood is arrested between the skull and periosteum

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42
Q

You are called to theatres for the forceps delivery of a baby of 38 week gestation who developed fetal distress during labour.

The obstetrician hands you the baby for resuscitation. What is the first step?

A

Dry the baby

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43
Q

A 4-year-old boy is brought to the clinic.

He gives a history of difficult, painful defecation with bright red rectal bleeding.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Anal fissure

Painful rectal bleeding in this age group is typically due to a fissure. Treatment should include stool softeners and lifestyle advice.

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44
Q

A 2-year-old has a history of rectal bleeding.

The parents notice that post defecation, a cherry red lesion is present at the anal verge.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Juvenile polyps

These lesions are usually hamartomas and this accounts for the colour of the lesions.

Although the lesions are not themselves malignant they serve as a marker of an underlying polyposis disorder.

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45
Q

A 12-year-old is brought to the colorectal clinic with a history of rectal bleeding, altered bowel habit, weight loss and malaise.

Abdominal examination is normal.

A

Ulcerative colitis

The systemic features in the history are strongly suggestive of inflammatory bowel disease rather than the other causes.

46
Q

What is the first sign of puberty in girls?

(4)

A

first sign is breast development at around 11.5 years of age (range = 9-13 years)

height spurt reaches its maximum early in puberty (at 12) , before menarche

menarche at 13 (11-15)

there is an increase of only about 4% of height following menarche

BOOBS, PUBES, GROW, FLOW

47
Q

What is the first sign of puberty in boys?

(4)

A

first sign is testicular growth at around 12 years of age (range = 10-15 years)

testicular volume > 4 ml indicates onset of puberty

maximum height spurt at 14

GRAPES, DRAPES, GROW, BLOW

48
Q

You are working in a district general hospital and are asked to perform a new-born baby check on an infant born earlier that day. You’re part of the paediatric team and haven’t had any access to the antenatal notes.

On inspection, the infant has a notable cleft palate but otherwise appears well.

He is of appropriate weight for gestational age and has a strong cry.

He has a clear chest and no murmurs on cardiac auscultation.

Which agents can cause this deformity?

A

Orofacial clefts are a common malformation with many associated risk factors:

  • smoking
  • benzodiazepine use
  • anti-epileptic use
  • rubella infection

and syndromic disorders affecting the baby:

  • trisomy 18
  • trisomy 13
  • trisomy 15
49
Q

A 4-month-old infant is brought into GP with a lump in the groin, it is lateral to the pubic tubercle.

The parents state that they are able to push it in and it goes away but it pops back out when the child cries.

What is the diagnosis?

What is the most appropriate definitive management?

A

Inguinal hernias require urgent treatment whereas umbilical hernias spontaneously resolve

Surgical reduction within 2 weeks

50
Q

How are inguinal hernias treated based on age group?

What is the danger of an inguinal hernia in children?

A

An inguinal hernia in a child is pathological, with a significant risk of incarceration and so requires surgical correction following the six/two rule:

< 6 weeks old = correct within 2 days

< 6 months = correct within 2 weeks

< 6 years = correct within 2 months

51
Q

What causes umbilical hernias?

How are they treated?

A

Due to delayed closure of the passage through which the umbilical veins reached the foetus in utero.

Umbilical hernias usually resolve by 3-years-old and rarely require surgical correction.

52
Q

A 10-day-old neonate presents with sudden onset bilious vomiting. These episodes of vomiting are occurring frequently. On examination, he has a swollen, firm abdomen, is pale and appears dehydrated. He has not passed stool in the last 48 hours. He was born at term and there were no complications around the time of his delivery.

What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

A

Malrotation most commonly affects neonates in the first 30 days of life and is most commonly bilious

53
Q

How would you differentiate between pyloric stenosis and malrotation of the gut?

Pyloric stenosis (6)

Malrotation (4)

A

Pyloric stenosis

  • onset 4-8 weeks
  • projectile vomiting
  • weight loss and dehydration are common
  • visible peristalsis
  • olive-sized mass during feeding
  • can typically pass stool, no distention

Malrotation of the gut

  • onset younger than 30 days
  • no passing faeces
  • abdomen is initially soft and non-tender but becomes distended
  • eventually, strangulation of the gut occurs
54
Q

GROSS MOTOR

Developmental milestones for 3 months

(3)

A
  • Little or no head lag on being pulled to sit
  • Lying on abdomen, good head control
  • Held sitting, lumbar curve
55
Q

GROSS MOTOR

Developmental milestones for 6 months

(5)

A
  • Lying on abdomen, arms extended
  • Lying on back, lifts and grasps feet
  • Pulls self to sitting
  • Held sitting, back straight
  • Rolls front to back
56
Q

GROSS MOTOR

Developmental milestones for 7-8 months

(1)

A

Sits without support (Refer at 12 months)

57
Q

GROSS MOTOR

Developmental milestones for 9 months

(2)

A

Pulls to standing
Crawls

58
Q

GROSS MOTOR

Developmental milestones for 12 months

(2)

A

Cruises

Walks with one hand held

59
Q

GROSS MOTOR

Developmental milestones for 13-15 months

(2)

A

Walks unsupported

(refer at 18 months if they can’t)

60
Q

GROSS MOTOR

Developmental milestones for 18 months

(1)

A

Squats to pick up a toy

61
Q

GROSS MOTOR

Developmental milestones for 2 years

(2)

A

Runs

Walks upstairs and downstairs holding on to rail

62
Q

GROSS MOTOR

Developmental milestones for 3 years

(2)

A

Rides a tricycle using pedals

Walks up stairs without holding on to rail

63
Q

GROSS MOTOR

Developmental milestones for 4 years

(1)

A

Hops on one leg

64
Q

A 10-year-old boy is found to have haemophilia A following investigation for a hemarthrosis.

What is the inheritance pattern of haemophilia A

Which one of his relatives is most likely to have the condition?

A

mother’s brother

X-linked recessive conditions are only seen in males which therefore excludes two of the options. As male to male transmission is not seen this means the answer is mother’s brother.

haemophilia A is x-linked recessive

65
Q

A 6-week old infant is reviewed in the GP surgery.

He was delivered vaginally in breech position at 38+4 weeks gestation. There were no intrapartum complications.

Two days after birth, he was noticed to be jaundice and had phototherapy which appeared to resolve the symptoms.

The newborn physical examination (NIPE) was otherwise unremarkable.

His mother has a history of anaemia, asthma, and coeliac disease.

Today, the infant appears happy and is progressing well along the 45th centile.

What investigation should the GP refer the infant for due to his history?

A

All breech babies at or after 36 weeks gestation require USS for DDH screening at 6 weeks regardless of mode of delivery

66
Q

Risk factors for DDH

(7)

A

Risk factors

  • female sex: 6 times greater risk
  • breech presentation
  • positive family history
  • firstborn children
  • oligohydramnios
  • birth weight > 5 kg
  • congenital calcaneovalgus foot deformity
67
Q

What age are infants screened for DDH?

Which tests are used?

(3)

A

all infants are screened at both the newborn check and also the six-week baby check using the Barlow and Ortolani tests

however, if the infant is > 4.5 months then x-ray is the first line investigation

68
Q

How are Barlow and Ortolani tests performed?

A

Barlow test: attempts to dislocate an articulated femoral head

Ortolani test: attempts to relocate a dislocated femoral head

69
Q

An 18-year-old male presents to his local GP surgery. He is due to start university in two months time and has been told by his friends that he should ‘have a vaccine’ before he starts. He identifies himself as ‘White British’, has no past medical history of note and is due to study history at the University of Birmingham.

Which one of the following vaccines should he be offered as part of routine NHS immunisation?

A

The NHS now recommends the meningitis ACWY for all new students due to an outbreak of meningitis W in the past few years.

70
Q

What are the risk factors for meconium aspiration?

A

Meconium aspiration: post-term delivery is a risk factor

71
Q

Risk factors for meconium aspiration syndrome

(5)

A

smoking

substance abuse

pre-eclampsia

chorioamnionitis

maternal hypertension

72
Q

A 2-month-old infant was brought into the emergency department two days ago with a purpuric rash, fever, vomiting, and reduced wet nappies.

In the department, he had an episode of seizure activity which self-resolved spontaneously.

He was admitted and was investigated for meningitis.

Lumbar puncture was performed and a non-turbid sample was sent to the laboratory which showed increased protein levels, raised white cells, and a gram positive organism.

What is the correct management for this infant?

A

IV amoxicillin and IV cefotaxime

Do not use corticosteroids in children younger than 3 months with suspected or confirmed bacterial meningitis

73
Q

What is a turbid CSF sample?

A

a turbid sample is cloudy

74
Q

An 8-year-old boy comes to see you with his parents. He has a three year history of nocturnal enuresis.

Toileting, reducing fluid intake before bed and a reward system for agreed behaviour have had little effect, the introduction of an enuresis alarm six months ago has also proved unsuccessful.

He is still having four to five wet nights a week.

Both you and his parents feel a pharmacological intervention is appropriate now and will be used in conjunction with the other measures.

What is the most appropriate first line treatment?

(5)

A

Desmopressin is a synthetic replacement for vasopressin or antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

Treatment can be considered in children over 5 years, though this has to be considered in line with the child’s maturity, motivation, frequency of bedwetting.

75
Q

Which drugs can be used in the treatment of nocturnal enuresis?

(4)

A

Desmopressin The BNF for children state’s - ‘Treatment should be assessed after 4 weeks and continued for 3 months if there are signs of response. Desmopressin should be withdrawn at regular intervals (for 1 week every three months) for full assessment.

Imipramine - This is a tricyclic antidepressant. It can be used in nocturnal enuresis in children who have failed to respond to all other treatments and have undergone specialist assessment.

Oxybutynin - This is an anticholinergic medication that is used for nocturnal enuresis associated with overactive bladder. It is also used for urinary frequency, incontinence and neurogenic bladder instability.

Tolterodine - This is an antimuscarinic drug that is used for symptomatic treatment of overactive bladder associated nocturnal enuresis. Though is not licensed for use in children.

76
Q

What does the BNF advise when using desmpressin?

(4)

A

The BNF for children state’s - ‘Treatment should be assessed after 4 weeks and continued for 3 months if there are signs of response.

Desmopressin should be withdrawn at regular intervals (for 1 week every three months) for full assessment.

Particular care is needed to avoid fluid overload by restricting fluid intake from 1 hour before taking desmopressin until 8 hours after.

When stopping treatment with desmopressin, gradual withdrawal should be considered.’

77
Q

A 38-year-old woman who has a 3-month old baby comes to see you as her friend’s baby has had a hip ultrasound and she believes it is unfair that this has not been offered to her child.

You explain to her that only babies who have risk factors for hip dysplasia are offered an ultrasound.

What are the risk factors for DDH?

(3)

A

Ultrasound screening for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is done at 6 weeks of age for newborns with specific risk factors.

These include

  1. A first-degree family history of hip problems in early life.
  2. Breech presentation at or after 36 weeks gestation (irrespective of presentation at delivery)
  3. Breech presentation at delivery if this is earlier than 36 weeks.
78
Q

Which vaccination is given at birth?

A

BCG

79
Q

Which vaccinations are given at 2 months?

(3)

A
  • ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B)
  • Oral rotavirus vaccine
  • Men B
80
Q

Which vaccinations are given at 3 months?

(3)

A

‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B)

Oral rotavirus vaccine

PCV

81
Q

Which vaccinations are give at 4 months?

(2)

A

6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B)

Men B

82
Q

Which vaccinations are given at 12-13 months

(4)

A

Hib/Men C

MMR

PCV

Men B

83
Q

Which vaccintion is given from 2-8 years?

A

Flu vaccine (annual)

84
Q

Which vaccinations are given from 2-4 years?

(2)

A

‘4-in-1 pre-school booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio)

MMR

85
Q

Which vaccination is given from 12-13 years?

A

HPV vaccination

86
Q

Which vaccinations are given from 13-18 years?

(2)

A

‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio)

Men ACWY

87
Q

A newborn is delivered at 40 weeks gestation. Following delivery, the infant demonstrates poor muscle tone, gasping respirations, cyanosis and a heart rate of 80bpm. APGAR score is 3 and the newborn is placed in the sniffing position for airway maintenance. On reassessment, no changes are noted. Following positive pressure ventilation for 30 seconds the newborn is now showing shallow respirations and a heart rate of 50bpm. Chest compressions are initiated. What is the recommended compression: ventilation ratio for the newborn?

A

3:1

88
Q

What is the sniffing position?

A
89
Q

A baby is born by elective Caesarean section at 38 weeks performed due to pregnancy-induced hypertension.

At one hour the female baby is noted to be grunting with mild intercostal recession.

Oxygen saturations are 95-96% on air.

What is the most likely cause of her respiratory distress?

(5)

A

Transient tachypnoea of the newborn

Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is the commonest cause of respiratory distress in the newborn period. It is caused by delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs

It is more common following caesarean sections, possibly due to the lung fluid not being ‘squeezed out’ during the passage through the birth canal

Chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.

Transient tachypnoea of the newborn usually settles within 1-2 days

90
Q

A neonate who was born prematurely at 35 weeks gestation is registered at the Practice.

He was very well after delivery, without any notable complications such as respiratory problems.

How should his routine childhood immunisations be given?

(3)

A

Give according to chronological age

Babies who were born prematurely should receive their routine vaccinations according to chronological age; there should be no correcting for gestational age.

Babies who were born prior to 28 weeks gestation should receive their first set of immunisations at hospital due to risk of apnoea.

91
Q

A neonate who was born prematurely at 35 weeks gestation is registered at the Practice.

He was very well after delivery, without any notable complications such as respiratory problems.

How should his routine childhood immunisations be given?

A

Babies who were born prior to 28 weeks gestation should receive their first set of immunisations at hospital due to risk of apnoea.

92
Q

General contraindications to immunisation

(2)

A

confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of a vaccine containing the same antigens

confirmed anaphylactic reaction to another component contained in the relevant vaccine (e.g. egg protein)

93
Q

Situation where vaccines should be delayed

(1)

A

febrile illness/intercurrent infection

94
Q

Contraindications to live vaccines

(2)

A

pregnancy

immunosuppression

95
Q

What is the DTP vaccine?

When should it not be given?

A

Diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus

vaccination should be deferred in children with an evolving or unstable neurological condition

96
Q

A 14-year-old boy who plays basketball begins to experience pain whilst playing. He attends his GP and is diagnosed with Osgood-Schlatter disease.

This condition occurs as a result of inflammation at which bony prominence?

A

Osgood-Schlatter disease is a type of osteochondrosis caused by inflammation (apophysitis) at the tibial tuberosity

97
Q

What is Osgood-Schlatter disease

(3)

A

(tibial apophysitis) is a type of osteochondrosis characterised by inflammation at the tibial tuberosity.

It is a traction apophysitis thought to be caused by repeated avulsion of the apophysis into which the patellar tendon is inserted

Management is supportive

98
Q

A mother brings her 2-year-old son to surgery. For the past two weeks he has been complaining of an itchy bottom. He is otherwise well and clinical examination including that of the perianal area is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate management?

A

Household contacts of patients with threadworms should be treated even if they have no symptoms

Hygiene measures + single dose mebendazole for all the family

99
Q

You suspect shaken baby syndrome.

Which triad of symptoms is in keeping with this diagnosis?

A

Retinal haemorrhages

subdural haematoma

encephalopathy

100
Q

A 4-year-old boy is noted to have macrocephaly and learning difficulties.

What is the most likely diagnosis? (1)

What else may he have? (2)

A

Fragile X often presents with

learning difficulties

macrocephaly

large ears

macro-orchidism

101
Q

Rare complications of chicken pox?

A

pneumonia

encephalitis (cerebellar involvement may be seen)

disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox

arthritis, nephritis and pancreatitis may very rarely be seen

102
Q

What safety netting information should be given to those with chickenpox?

A

Don’t take NSAIDs as pain relief as they will increase the risk of group A streptococcal infection.

103
Q

You are called to the neonatal ward to attend to a baby suffering from bilious vomiting.

The neonate was born at term, has a diagnosis of Down’s syndrome and is currently three hours after birth.

An abdominal x-ray shows the double bubble sign.

Which condition is the likely cause of bilious vomiting in this baby?

A

Neonatal bilious vomiting with a double bubble sign on AXR:

Duodenal atresia

104
Q

What is Meconium ileus?

What is the incidence?

When does it present?

How is it diagnosed?

How is it treated?

A

What is Meconium ileus?

Meconium ileus is a bowel obstruction that occurs when the meconium in your child’s intestine is even thicker and stickier than normal meconium, creating a blockage in a part of the small intestine called the ileum.

What is the incidence?

Occurs in between 15 and 20% of those babies with cystic fibrosis, otherwise 1 in 5000

​When and how does it present?

Typically in first 24-48 hours of life with abdominal distension and bilious vomiting

How is it diagnosed?

Air - fluid levels on AXR, sweat test to confirm cystic fibrosis

How is it treated?

Surgical decompression, serosal damage may require segmental resection

105
Q

What is Duodenal Atresia?

What is the incidence?

When does it present?

How is it diagnosed?

How is it treated?

A

What is Duodenal Atresia?

Duodenal atresia is a condition in which the first part of the small bowel (the duodenum) has not developed properly. It is not open and cannot allow the passage of stomach contents.

What is the incidence?

1 in 5000 (higher in Downs syndrome)

When does it present?

Few hours after birth

How is it diagnosed?

AXR shows double bubble sign, contrast study may confirm

How is it treated?

Duodenoduodenostomy

106
Q

What is malrotation with volvulus?

What is the incidence?

When does it present?

How is it diagnosed?

How is it treated?

A

What is malrotation with volvulus?

Malrotation is an abnormality of the bowel, which happens while the baby is developing in the womb. Volvulus is a complication of malrotation and occurs when the bowel twists so the blood supply to that part of the bowel is cut off.

What is the incidence?

Usually caused by incomplete rotation during embryogenesis, estimated 1 in 6000 live births

When does it present?

Usually 3-7 days after birth, volvulus with compromised circulation may result in peritoneal signs and haemodynamic instability

How is it diagnosed?

Upper GI contrast study may show DJ flexure is more medially placed, USS may show abnormal orientation of SMA and SMV

How is it treated?

Ladd’s procedure - the intestine is straightened out, the Ladd’s bands are divided, the small intestine is folded into the right side of the abdomen, and the colon is placed on the left side.

107
Q

What is Jejunal/ ileal atresia?

What is the incidence?

When does it present?

How is it diagnosed?

How is it treated?

A

What is Jejunal/ ileal atresia?

Blockage in the jejunum, the second part of intestine that extends from the duodenum to ileum.

What is the incidence?

Usually caused by vascular insufficiency in utero, usually 1 in 3000

When does it present?

Usually within 24 hours of birth

How is it diagnosed?

AXR will show air-fluid levels

How is it treated?

Laparotomy with primary resection and anastomosis

108
Q

What is necrotising enterocolitis?

What is the incidence?

When does it present?

How is it diagnosed?

How is it treated?

A

What is necrotising enterocolitis?

Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is a serious gastrointestinal problem that mostly affects premature babies. The condition inflames intestinal tissue, causing it to die. A hole (perforation) may form in your baby’s intestine.

What is the incidence?

Up to 2.4 per 1000 births, risks increased in prematurity and inter-current illness

When does it present?

Usually the second week of life

How is it diagnosed?

Dilated bowel loops on AXR, pneumatosis and portal venous air

How is it treated?

Conservative and supportive for non-perforated cases, laparotomy and resection in cases of perforation of ongoing clinical deterioration

109
Q

A paediatrician is called to review a 1-day-old neonate born at 37+2 weeks by spontaneous vaginal delivery. The neonate’s birth weight is within the normal range and his mother is recovering well after delivery. He has been sick several times in the 24 hours, and his mother described these episodes as ‘projectile vomiting’.

On examination, his abdomen is moderately distended and he does not appear jaundiced. The child appears dehydrated and lethargic, and you note that the vomit bowl contains a bright green liquid.

Given this information, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

The correct answer is jejunal atresia. Bilious vomiting within 24 hours of birth is most commonly caused by intestinal atresia, which can be subdivided into duodenal atresia, jejunal atresia, or ileal atresia. Bilious vomiting is classically caused by obstruction beyond the sphincter of Oddi, where the common bile duct enters the duodenum. Given the neonate’s age, term-birth, and bilious vomiting, intestinal atresia is the most likely diagnosis.

Pyloric stenosis is incorrect, as it usually begins between 3-5 weeks of life and is not associated with bilious vomiting. As the obstruction in pyloric stenosis is proximal to the sphincter of Oddi, bile cannot enter the stomach and is not present in the vomitus of patients with pyloric stenosis.

110
Q

A 12-hour-old full-term neonate is trying to be fed by her mother. She has tried breastfeeding her but the neonate is unable to keep any contents down.

You also notice that the vomit is green - leading you to think that it is bile stained. There were no complications at birth and it was a normal vaginal delivery.

The baby looks healthy otherwise and is haemodynamically stable.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Bilious vomiting on the first day of life is likely going to be intestinal atresia, either duodenal atresia or ileal/jejunal atresia. This patient requires an ultrasound to confirm the diagnosis.

Malrotation usually presents on the 3rd day with haemodynamic instability. This patient is only within the first 24 hours of life so this is unlikely. It is still possible but it is not the best answer out of the options as intestinal atresia is more likely.

Meconium ileus usually presents with abdominal distention in the first 48 hours. The scenario states that the patient does not have any abdominal distention.

A milk allergy is unlikely as the vomiting is bile stained in the scenario. Milk allergies do not tend to present with bilious vomiting.

Necrotising enterocolitis usually presents with vomiting in the second week of life. The patient is only in the first 24 hours of life so whilst this is possible, there is a better answer which could be chosen.

111
Q

A 3-month-old baby boy is brought to the GP by his mother. Earlier today, she noticed a bulge in his groin area. He is otherwise well and she reports no other concerns.

On examination, he appears generally well. A mass is visible, and palpable, in the left inguinal region. It does not transilluminate. The mass can be reduced.

What is the likely diagnosis?

What is the most appropriate management plan?

A

Inguinal hernia in infants = Urgent surgery

Umbilical - Umm we’ll wait
Inguinal - Into surgery we go