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Day 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

Project; A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product

A

service

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2
Q

Project Management; The application of knowledge

A

skills

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3
Q

Stakeholder; An individual

A

group

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4
Q

Scope; The sum of products

A

services

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5
Q

Work Breakdown Structure (WBS);

A

A hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to accomplish project objectives.

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6
Q

Risk Management; The process of identifying

A

analyzing

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7
Q

Critical Path; The longest sequence of activities that determines the shortest possible duration for a project.

A
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8
Q

Earned Value (EV); A measure of work performed expressed in terms of the budget authorized for that work.

A
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9
Q

Cost Performance Index (CPI); A measure of cost efficiency calculated as Earned Value (EV) divided by Actual Cost (AC).

A
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10
Q

Schedule Performance Index (SPI); A measure of schedule efficiency calculated as Earned Value (EV) divided by Planned Value (PV).

A
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11
Q

Agile; A mindset and methodology focused on iterative development

A

collaboration

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12
Q

Scrum; An Agile framework with predefined roles

A

events

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13
Q

Sprint; A fixed time period (e.g.

A

2 weeks) in which a Scrum team works to complete a set amount of work.

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14
Q

Kanban; A visualization tool to manage workflow by making bottlenecks and work quantities visible.

A
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15
Q

Monte Carlo Analysis; A statistical technique used to assess project risks and forecast probable outcomes.

A
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16
Q

Change Control; The process of identifying

A

documenting

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17
Q

Milestone; A significant point in a project schedule marking the completion of a phase or key event.

A
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18
Q

Risk Register; A document that captures all identified risks and their response strategies.

A
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19
Q

Burndown Chart; A graphical representation of work remaining versus time remaining in a timebox.

A
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20
Q

Daily Scrum; A short daily meeting for Agile teams to review progress and plan work for the day.

A
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21
Q

Definition of Done (DoD); A shared understanding of the criteria required to declare a deliverable as complete.

A
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22
Q

Story Point; A unit of measure used in Agile to estimate work effort relative to other tasks.

A
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23
Q

Net Present Value (NPV); A financial metric that calculates the value of future cash flows in today’s terms.

A
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24
Q

Return on Investment (ROI); A financial metric used to measure the profitability of a project investment.

A
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25
Opportunity Cost; The potential return that will not be realized when one project is selected over another.
26
Change Management; A structured approach for transitioning individuals
groups
27
Lessons Learned; Documented knowledge gained during a project that can be used to improve future projects.
28
PMO (Project Management Office); An organizational structure that standardizes project-related governance and facilitates resource sharing.
29
Project Charter; A document that formally authorizes a project and provides a high-level overview of objectives and scope.
30
Business Case; A justification for a project
including cost-benefit analysis and expected value.
31
Adaptive Planning; High-level planning at the beginning
with detailed planning as the project progresses.
32
Backlog; An ordered list of requirements or tasks in Agile development.
33
Cost Baseline; The approved version of cost estimates plus contingency reserves
used for tracking project expenses.
34
Lead Time; The total time taken from the initiation of a work item to its completion.
35
Collocated Team; A project team that works in the same physical location to enhance collaboration.
36
Contingency Plan; A predefined action plan for responding to identified project risks.
37
Total Float; The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the overall project completion.
38
Affinity Estimate; A technique for high-level estimation by grouping work items based on size and making relative estimations.
39
Backward Pass; A technique in critical path method for calculating late start and late finish dates.
40
Benefit-Cost Ratio (BCR); A financial metric comparing proposed costs and expected benefits; a BCR greater than 1.0 is favorable.
41
Behavior-Driven Development (BDD); An Agile methodology that focuses on expected user behavior in test cases.
42
Cost of Quality (COQ); A method for determining resource allocation to prevent or rectify defects.
43
Estimate at Completion (EAC); The projected total cost of completing all work.
44
Artifacts; Tangible by-products of a project that provide transparency
such as a product backlog or design documents.
45
Audit; A structured process to assess and verify compliance with organizational and project policies.
46
Governance Board; A project oversight body responsible for reviewing key deliverables and guiding project decisions.
47
Governance Checkpoints; Phase gates or iteration reviews used to ensure compliance and alignment with project objectives.
48
Project Phases; Sequential steps within a project
often including initiation
49
Process Improvement; Continuous evaluation and enhancement of project processes to maximize efficiency and effectiveness.
50
Lessons Learned Register; A collection of knowledge gained from past projects to inform future project decisions.
51
ECO (Exam Content Outline); The framework defining the PMP exam domains and key knowledge areas.
52
What is the purpose of definitions in a text?
To clarify the meaning of terms and concepts.
53
True or False: All definitions are included in the answer side of a text.
False
54
Fill in the blank: Definitions that are not included may lead to ______ in understanding.
confusion
55
What is a potential consequence of missing definitions?
Misinterpretation of key concepts.
56
Multiple Choice: What should be done if definitions are missing from a text? A) Ignore them B) Fix them C) Add more definitions D) Rewrite the entire text
B) Fix them
57
What is a common reason for definitions being omitted?
Oversight during the editing process.
58
True or False: Definitions should only be included at the beginning of a text.
False
59
What is one method to ensure all definitions are included?
Conduct a thorough review of the text.
60
Fill in the blank: A well-defined term enhances ______ in communication.
clarity
61
What role do definitions play in professional certifications?
They provide essential knowledge for understanding key concepts.
62
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a type of definition? A) Operational B) Descriptive C) Ambiguous D) Stipulative
C) Ambiguous
63
True or False: Definitions can be subjective and vary between different fields.
True
64
What action should be taken if a definition is unclear?
Seek clarification or revise the definition.
65
Fill in the blank: Definitions should be ______ and concise.
clear
66
What is the benefit of including examples with definitions?
They help illustrate the meaning more effectively.
67
Multiple Choice: Which term refers to a definition that specifies the meaning of a term for the purposes of a particular discussion? A) Descriptive B) Stipulative C) Lexical D) Theoretical
B) Stipulative
68
True or False: Definitions should remain static and never change.
False
69
What is an essential characteristic of a good definition?
It should be precise and unambiguous.
70
Fill in the blank: The inclusion of definitions can aid in ______ understanding.
comprehending
71
What should you do if you notice a missing definition during review?
Add the definition and ensure it's accurate.
72
Multiple Choice: In what section of a text are definitions typically found? A) Introduction B) Conclusion C) Appendix D) Glossary
D) Glossary
73
True or False: Definitions are only necessary in technical writing.
False
74
What is a lexicon?
A collection of words and their meanings in a specific language.
75
Fill in the blank: A missing definition can lead to a ______ in the reader's understanding.
gap
76
What is one strategy to prevent missing definitions in a text?
Create a checklist of required terms and definitions.
77
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a type of definition that describes how a term is commonly used? A) Operational B) Lexical C) Theoretical D) Stipulative
B) Lexical
78
True or False: Definitions should be tailored to the audience's knowledge level.
True
79
What is a synonym for the term 'definition'?
Explanation
80
Fill in the blank: Definitions help to establish a common ______ among readers.
understanding
81
What is the impact of using jargon without definitions?
It can alienate readers who are unfamiliar with the terms.
82
Multiple Choice: What is the purpose of a glossary? A) To summarize the text B) To provide definitions C) To list references D) To outline the main points
B) To provide definitions
83
True or False: A well-defined term can improve the quality of a text.
True
84
What is the role of context in understanding definitions?
Context helps clarify the meaning of terms based on their usage.
85
Fill in the blank: The process of defining terms is known as ______.
definition
86
What should be the priority when reviewing a text for missing definitions?
Identify and add all essential definitions.
87
Multiple Choice: Which of the following best describes a 'descriptive definition'? A) It explains how a term is used in practice B) It assigns a new meaning C) It provides a strict meaning D) It is vague
A) It explains how a term is used in practice
88
True or False: Definitions can vary in length and complexity.
True
89
What is an operational definition?
A definition that specifies the procedures or actions required to measure a concept.
90
Fill in the blank: A clear definition can facilitate ______ in discussions.
communication
91
What should be avoided when writing definitions?
Using overly complex language or jargon.
92
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is an example of a clear definition? A) 'Bad' B) 'A bad experience is one that is unpleasant or negative.' C) 'It depends' D) 'You know what I mean'
B) 'A bad experience is one that is unpleasant or negative.'
93
True or False: Definitions should be reviewed regularly to ensure accuracy.
True
94
What is the main goal of including definitions in a text?
To enhance understanding and communication.

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