Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Specialty Boards Prep > Deck 1 > Flashcards

Deck 1 Flashcards

1
Q

True / false - DLH defines a meningioma as a primary CNS neoplasm.

A

False - a meningioma does not arise from neural tissue, but tissues adjacent to the neuroparenchyma. Primary CNS tumors include neural, glial, or ependymal tumors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What CNN are involved in the following parts of the nervous system?
- GSA
- SSA
- GVA
- SVA
- Normal proprioception
- Special proprioception
- GSE
- GVE

A
  • GSA: primarily V
  • SSA: II and VIII
  • GVA: VII, IX, X (head) and X (thoraco-abdominal viscera)
  • SVA: I (smell) & VII, IX, X (taste)
  • Normal prop: V
  • Special prop: VIII
  • GSE: III, IV, V (mandibular), VI, VII, IX, X, XI, XII
  • GVE: III, VII, IX, X
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the meningovertebral ligament?

A

A connection between the ventral aspect of the dura mater and the midline periosteum of the vertebral bodies present with the vertebral canal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The subarachnoid space is located between which two layers of meninges?

A

The arachnoid membrane and the pia mater.

This means that when we are doing a “durotomy” we are also performing an “arachnoid-otomy”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What arteries unite to form the basilar artery? What anatomic opening do two of these contributing arteries pass through to gain access to the vertebral canal? What other structure passes through this opening?

A

Paired vertebral arteries and the ventral spinal artery

Vertebral arteries pass through the lateral vertebral foramina of C1.

C1 spinal nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the names of the subarachnoid cisterns highlighted at 14, 19 and 24?

A
  1. Cerebellomedullary cistern (formerly cisterna magna)
  2. Interpeduncular (or intercrural) cistern
  3. Quadrigeminal cistern
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In the dog, what are the two main sources of blood to the arterial circle?

A

Internal carotids and the basilar artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the 5 paired main arteries does not arise from the arterial circle?

A

Caudal cerebellar artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the differences in the arterial blood supply between dogs, cats, sheep and ox?

A

Dogs / man / other mammals
- internal carotid fully developed
- basilar blood flow is rostrally oriented
- most of cerebrum supplied by ICA; caudal portions, brainstem and cerebellum supplied by vertebral artery derived blood (traveling within basilar artery)

Cats / sheep
- internal carotid artery not developed
- anastomosis from maxillary artery forms into arterial circle
- basilar blood flow is caudally oriented
- majority of brain is supplied by maxillary blood; caudal portion of brainstem by vertebral blood (from basilar artery)

Ox
- distal third of internal carotid artery persists
- anastomoses to this ICA remnant form from both maxillary and vertebral arteries
- blood flow in basilar artery is caudally oriented
- all brain structures supplied by both maxillary and vertebral arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What artery is this (arrows)?

Broadly, what portions of the cerebrum does this artery supply?

What two arterial branches arise from the proximal portions of this artery (star)?

A
  • rostral cerebral artery
  • rostromedial portions
  • internal ethmoidal (dorsal) and internal ophthalmic (ventral)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What artery supplies the choroid plexus within the lateral ventricles?

What is its parent artery, and what does this parent artery supply blood to?

What two disease processes commonly affects this parent artery?

A

Rostral choroidal artery

Middle cerebral artery - lateral aspect of the entire cerebral hemisphere

Feline ischemic encephalopathy (cuterebra) and ischemic cerebrovascular accidents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which striate arteries (medial v lateral) originate from the middle cerebral artery?

Where do the other ones arise from?

What do these arteries supply?

A

The lateral striate arteries arise from the middle cerebral artery, proximal portions.

The medial striate arteries arise from the rostral communicating arteries (between rostral and middle cerebral arteries — usually there are two on both sides.

Medial — basal nuclei (caudate, pallidum, putamen) and medial internal capsule

Lateral — basal nuclei (dorsal caudate nucleus and claustrum) and lateral internal capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which cranial nerve is located between the caudal cerebral arteries and the rostral cerebellar arteries?

From which portion of the arterial circle do these two pairs of arteries arise from?

A

Oculomotor nerve

Caudal communicating branch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the four main ways that venous blood leaves the cranial vault?

A
  • internal jugular
  • maxillary
  • vertebral
  • ventral internal vertebral venous plexus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the origin of the two venous vessels that may be encountered during the approach to the caudal occiput.

A

You have transverse sinuses. These split into temporal and sigmoid sinuses.

Temporal leaves the skull via the retroarticular foramen, and an associated emissary vein. This drains into the maxillary vein.

Sigmoid sinus leaves via the jugular foramen / TOF and continues as the internal jugular vein. Prior to entering the jugular foramen, it gives off a basilar sinus, which runs through a condyloid canal. While in the canal, it is called the condyloid vein. This continues on into the internal ventral vertebral venous plexus.

emissary vein of retroarticular foramen AKA condylar vein
- temporal sinus
- approaches to the ventrolateral portions of the caudal skull (ie the approach often taken when ablating transverse sinus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What artery runs through the cavernous sinus?

A

Internal carotid artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name these sulci.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name these gyri.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the transverse cerebral fissure, and what lies within in it?

A

The fissure separating caudal aspects of cerebrum from the cerebellum.

The membranous and osseous tentorium cerebelli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What three components form the choroid plexus?

What is the particular name given to two of these components?

A
  • pia, ependyma, and proliferative pial blood vessels
  • tela choroidea (pia + ependyma)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which cerebellar peduncle is derived from the transverse pontine fibers?

Which cerebellar peduncle contains only efferent cerebellar neurons?

What is the reasoning behind the names of the cerebellar peduncles?

A
  1. Middle
  2. Rostral
  3. The order in which they are oriented most rostral to caudal / and also where most of their fibers are coming from/ going to. Rostral comes from midbrain, middle comes from pons and caudal comes from medulla.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the name of this space where the neuroparenchyma is located? What portion of the neuroparenchyma is located within this space?

A

Cerebellar fossa; portion of the lateral cerebellar hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In order from medial to lateral, what are the names of the cerebellar nuclei?

What nucleus is most commonly affected with metronidazole toxicity?

A

Fastigial
Interposital
Lateral cerebellar (formerly dentate)

Lateral cerebellar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

To what specific part of the diencephalon do the geniculate nuclei belong?

A

Metathalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What structure is this, and what does it mark the caudal-most aspect of? To which part of this structure do they belong?
- mammillary bodies - caudal-most aspect of the diencephalon - specifically part of the hypothalamus
26
What main artery supplies the blood flow for the choroid plexus of the third ventricle?
Caudal cerebral artery
27
Which geniculate nuclei are paired with which colliculi, and what is the name for the structures connecting them?
Lateral geniculate are with the rostral colliculi Medial geniculate are with the caudal colliculi Brachium
28
What are the differing names of the descending pyramidal motor tracts at each of the following locations? - Midbrain: - Pons: - Medulla: At which location are these fibers not externally located? What are they covered by here?
Midbrain: crus cerebri Pons: longitudinal pontine fibers Medulla: pyramid They are not external at the pons because they are covered by the transverse pontine fibers.
29
In what structure do the trochlear nerves cross over to the opposite side?
Rostral medullary velum
30
What do the pyramidal neurons of the medulla continue on as in the spinal cord?
Corticospinal tracts
31
Name these structures
1. Lateral ventricle 2. Hippocampus 3. Rostral colliculus 4. Mesencephalic aqueduct 5. Brachium of caudal colliculus 6. Crus cerebri 7. Reticular formation 8. Oculomotor nucleus
32
What portions of the cervical spinal cord contribute to the spinal / external branch of the accessory nerve? What does this external branch supply?
C1-7 GSE to some of the cervical / shoulder musculature (ie trapezius)
33
To what cranial nerve does the internal branch of CN XI join? What does this nerve then supply?
CN X Larynx and esophagus
34
Name these structures
1. Occipital lobe 2. Vermis 3. Cerebellar hemisphere 4. Cerebellar nuclei 5. Fourth ventricle 6. Cochlear nuclei / CN VIII 7. Trapezoid body 8. Pyramids 9. Abducens fibers 10. Descending facial nerve fibers 11. Vestibular nuclei 12. Caudal cerebellar peduncle 13. Flocculus 14. Spinal tract of trigeminal nerve
35
What is the main way CSF is absorbed, and then what are some alternate ways?
Via arachnoid villi near the venous sinuses. Also can be absorbed along spinal nerves as they exit the intervertebral foramina, or along CNN 1 & 2 (and maybe 8) Some can leak across the cribriform plate / ethmoid bone into nasal passages, and some can be absorbed by the parenchymal blood vessels.
36
What are the names of the two ascending spinal cord tracts that deal with GP information? Where are they located in the spinal cord? Which one does which limbs? What do they terminate in?
Fasciculus gracilis — GP information for pelvic limbs, extends entire length of SC, dorsal midline and more medially located, ends in nucleus gracilis Fasciculus cuneatus — GP information for thoracic limbs, starts mid-thoracic, dorsal midline more laterally located, ends in the lateral cuneate nucleus
37
Name these structures
1. Corona radiata 2. Cingulate gyrus 3. Corpus callosum 4. Lateral ventricle 5. Caudate nucleus 6. Internal capsule 7. Body of fornix 8. Interventricular foramina 9. Third ventricle 10. Lentiform nuclei 11. Rostral commissure 12. Optic nerve 13. Lateral olfactory tract
38
What structure is immediately lateral to the fasciculus cuneatus at the level of the caudal medulla? What separates these two structures?
Spinal tract of the trigeminal nerve Dorsolateral sulcus
39
There are four main commissures within the brain. What are they, and what do they do?
1. Corpus callosum - connects the neopallium 2. Rostral commissure - connects the paleopallium 3. Hippocampal commissure (body of fornix) - connects archipallium 4. Caudal commissure - provides circuitry for PLR pathway
40
Name these structures
1. Olfactory bulb 2. Caudate nucleus 3. Genu of corpus callosum 4. Body of corpus callosum 5. Splenium of corpus callosum 6. Splenial sulcus 7. Internal capsule 8. Amygdaloid body 9. Piriform lobe 10. Stria terminalis 11. Rostral commissure
41
Which spinal cord segments are found entirely in their corresponding vertebrae?
C1-2, T12-L2(3)
42
What is the denticulate ligament?
A connective tissue structure that attaches the pia to the dura/aracnhoid. It is located at each segment, mid-way between the roots of adjacent spinal cord segments.
43
Where is the largest spinal artery located (dogs), what is the human equivalent of this artery, and what is the clinical significance of this?
Left L5 spinal artery located Artery of Adamkiewicz Potentially why lumbar intumescence disc herniations have a higher likelihood of resulting in myelomalacia.
44
The ventral internal vertebral venous plexus is a continuation of what intracranial venous sinus?
Basilar sinus, a branch of the sigmoid sinus
45
What is this structure? Where along the spinal cord is this picture from?
- denticulate ligament - lumbosacral — enlargement of the ventral horn, presence of many spinal nerves / roots
46
What is the time distinction between a CVA (stroke) and a TIA?
24 hours — if the neurologic dysfunction has resolved within 24 hours, it is classified as TIA; longer = stroke.
47
Name these arteries
48
How many branches does the rostral cerebellar artery have, and what are they called?
Three — lateral, intermediate and medial
49
Complete these tables / formula: - CPP = - CBF =
CPP = MAP — ICP CBF = CPP / CVR
50
What is the difference between ischemia and infarction?
51
What cells are most sensitive to ischemia, what are least, and what are intermediate
Neurons - very sensitive Glial cells - intermediate Endothelial cells - least
52
What is the pathogenesis of VASOGENIC edema in CVAs?
Significant endothelial disruption allows for leakage of edema from vessels. If severe enough, hemorrhagic transformation can occur as blood supply is restored.
53
What two breeds of dog are predisposed to ischemic CVAs?
Cavalier King Charles spaniel Greyhound
54
What are two reasons the clinical signs associated with an ischemic stroke may progress?
Vasogenic edema forms, or hemorrhagic transformation occurs
55
What are the normal HU for grey and white matter? Globin/heme?
Grey matter - 39 White matter - 32 Globin/heme - 56-76
56
True or false: The presence of concurrent medical conditions in dogs with ischemic CVA is associated with shorter survival times and increased frequency of subsequent infarcts.
True
57
Fill in the blanks
58
What two cell types will be derived from spongioblasts? Where does the third cell type come from?
Astrocytes and oligodendrocytes Microglial cells are blood borne monocytes
59
These cells are remnants of what cell types in the developing nervous system? Where are they typically located? What disease process are they implicated in? What is their alternate name?
These are subventricular germinal cells that are derivatives / remnants of radial glial cells. They are often found near the rostral portions of the lateral ventricle. They are thought to be the origin of some adult glial tumors. Subependymal plate
60
What two hormones in utero are primarily responsible for spinal cord development? Which parts of the spinal cord does each help the most? What is their origin.
BMP-4 (bone morphogenetic protein) — produced by surface ectodermal cells, drives development of dorsal portions of SC SHH — produced by notochord, drives development of ventral portions of SC
61
What portions of the ventral gray horn supply appendicular v axial musculature? Of those that supply the appendicular muscle, what portions supply proximal v distal muscles?
Appendicular — lateral Axial — medial Proximal — ventrolateral Distal — dorsolateral (Can remember this because the expansions at the intumescences are primarily lateral — where the limbs are)
62
Spinal ganglia are derivatives of this embryonic cell type.
Neural crest cells
63
Within the medulla, which GSE nuclei migrated ventrolaterally, and which did not? What is the unique name given to one of these nuclei?
VI and XII remain in their normal spot, close to the fourth ventricle near the sulcans limitans. VII and IX-XI migrate ventrolaterally within the medulla, and are more external than the others. The GSE nucleus of IX-XI is called the nucleus ambiguus.
64
True or false: the only motor nuclei to not migrate from their original spot in the brainstem are those involved with nerves of pure GSE only.
True — CNN III, IV, VI and XII are located near midline, adjacent to the ventricular system. The motor nuclei of CNN V, VII, IX, X and XI migrate ventrolaterally.
65
Name these layers of neuroparenchyma
From left to right: - molecular layer - Purkinje layer - (internal) granular layer - cerebellar white matter
66
What is the primary neurologic disease process in cattle that is caused by Histophilus somni? What is the pathogenesis?
Thrombotic meningoencephalitis Bacteria adhere to endothelial cells, promoting thrombus formation
67
What disease process is this? What is the toxin principle? What plants can cause it? What species does this occur in? What clinical signs does it cause?
Nigropalladial encephalomalacia (necrosis of the globus pallidus and substantia nigra) Repin, which is found in Russian knapweed and yellow starthistle Horses Spastic paresis of the tongue, lips and pharynx, which leads to dysphagia and eventual starvation. It is spastic due to interruption of the UMN information provided by the substantia nigra / palladial portions of the extrapyramidal system
68
What are the three histopathological forms of CNS FIP?
1. Periventricular encephalitis / ependymitis 2. Rhombencephalitis 3. Diffuse leptomeningitis and associated superficial encephalitis
69
What is the main morphological finding? What is the cause?
Meningeal fibrosis — normal age related change
70
What are the morphologic features associated with chromatolysis?
- neuronal cell swelling (becomes hyper-eosinophilic) - Nissl substance dispersion - eccentric nuclear displacement
71
What are the three main histopathologic features of protozoal / viral encephalitis?
Neuronophagia Satellitosis Glial nodules
72
What are common causes of polioencephalomalacia? What is a common histopathologic pattern?
- thiamin deficiency - sulfur toxicity - hypoxia / ischemia (often associated with prolonged status) - lead toxicity - salt toxicity (pigs) - hypoglycemia - laminar cortical necrosis
73
What is wrong with this neuron? In what equine disease process do these commonly happen in?
This is a chromatolytic neuron. Equine grass sickness (aka dysautonomia), particularly found in the ganglia.
74
What is this structure? In what disease process is this structure a hallmark finding?
Spheroid; neuraxonal dystrophy
75
What is this structure? What defines this structure?
Digestion chamber - macrophage cell located within a dilated myelin sheath
76
Define astrocytosis and astrogliosis. What is the name of a reactive astrocyte?
Astrocytosis — increased size of astrocytes Astrogliosis — increased number of astrocytes Gemistocyte (picture)
77
What cell types are these? How do we know? What causes them to occur? What species are they most common in?
Alzheimer type II cells — astrocytes in groups that have more open chromatin than normal Associated with hyperammonemia, often in cases of hepatic or renal encephalopathy. The astrocytes are supposed to help process ammonia in the brain, and they proliferate to try and help with it. Horses
78
What is this photo showing?
Neuronal satellitosis
79
What is the main immunohistochemical stain used for identifying microglia?
Iba-1
80
What is the predominant cell type pictured here? What cell type are they derived from? What are they doing? What happens after they do their job?
Gitter cells / foamy macrophages Derived from microglial cells Eating up necrotic neural tissue A clear space will form +/- a glial scar will form
81
What is this structure?
Glial nodule
82
What are the four types of brain edema?
1. Vasogenic edema - secondary to vascular injury allowing fluid to leak into parenchyma 2. Cytotoxic edema - accumulation of intracellular fluid, typically secondary to hypoxia/ischemia 3. Interstitial edema - increased ventricular pressure forcing fluid across the ependyma 4. Hypo-osmotic edema - occurs following consumption of excessive water / hypo-osmotic fluids
83
True or false: the CNS is able to heal by fibrosis.
False — only the PNS can heal by fibrosis because there are fibroblasts in the epi/perineurium; the CNS can only ‘heal’ via gliosis
84
What are these? Why do they occur? What are they NOT?
Dark neurons Occur when the brain tissue is handled too roughly when being removed post-mortem. When mechanically stimulated, these neurons can still fire, and that causes them to turn dark. These are NOT “dead reds” — they are an artifact, not pathology.
85
Explain the difference between diplomyelia and diastematomyelia? What species does this happen the most in?
Diplomyelia — two spinal cords within one meninges Diastematomyelia — two spinal cords, each in their own meninges and vertebral canal (pictured)
86
What is the pathogenesis behind virally mediated cerebellar hypoplasia? What are four viral diseases that result in this?
The viruses infect and destroy the external granular cell layer. - classical swine fever (pigs) - bovine viral diarrhea virus - feline panleukopenia - Cache Valley virus (small ruminants)
87
What are two disease processes that are caused by aberrant neuronal migration? What breeds do we see this in?
Lissencephaly - Lhasa apso Polymicrogyria - standard poodles (pictured)
88
Describe the grading scheme for canine glial tumors.
Broad classifications include oligodendroglioma, astrocytoma and undefined (mixed). They are then divided into low and high grade tumors. High grade features include necrosis, microvascular proliferation, pseudopallisading, and frequent mitoses. Infiltration is NOT a feature used to distinguish between low and high grade.
89
True or false: both astrocytomas and oligodendrogliomas will stain positive for olig-2, but only astrocytomas will stain for GFAP.
True — olig-2 stains most glial cells as they are derived from common precursors, whereas GFAP only stains astrocytic cell processes
90
What IHC stain (that’s not LFB) is commonly used to label myelin?
CNPase
91
What are Alzheimer type 1 cells?
Large, multi-nucleated astrocytic cells found in glial tumors
92
This is a malignant nerve sheath tumor. Why is it pigmented?
The pigment is melanin. Nerves and nerve sheaths are ultimately derived from the neural crest cells and thus share a common lineage with melanocytes.
93
Describe the pathogenesis of listerial rhombencephalitis.
Listeria is present in spoiled silage. Ruminants ingest this silage, and the organisms gain access through micro-abrasions in the oral mucosa. The listeria gains access to sensory nerve endings and travels retrograde up the CNV fibers, all the way into the brainstem (pons). Once in the pons, it can spread throughout the rest of the CNS. It typically results in micro abscesses in the medulla.
94
What are these? Are there other histopathologic features of this disease?
Intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies (Negri bodies) associated with rabies. There are actually minimal other findings — mild mononuclear inflammation could be present.
95
Where are the inclusion bodies found in distemper? What are some other histopathologic features of distemper virus?
Classically, they are intranuclear (both in neurons and astrocytes), but can also be intracytoplasmic. Typically there is quite a bit of mononuclear inflammation and large areas of necrosis and demyelination.
96
What fungal disease process causes a surface oriented, but only mild leptomeningitis? Why does this happen?
Cryptococcus — the thick capsule around the yeast limits the amount of inflammation that develops
97
What organism is this?
Coccidiodes
98
What organism is this?
Blastomycosis
99
What disease process is this? What are the only histopathologic features of this?
Transmissible spongiform encephalopathy Vacuolation in the neuronal cell body with NO inflammation
100
Describe the gross pathologic features of moldy corn toxicity. What is the etiologic agent?
This causes a leukoencephalomalacia, with widely distributed areas of malacia in the white matter. Fumonisin B

Specialty Boards Prep (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions