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Deck 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the two immediate destinations of the neurons leaving the cochlear nuclei?

What cerebellar peduncle is located ventral to the dorsal destination of these neurons?

A

They either travel into the trapezoid body ventrally, or into the acoustic stria dorsally.

Caudal cerebellar peduncle

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2
Q

What are the two reflex pathways for regulating ossicle mobility?

A

Both involve the cochlear nerve (afferent) and the cochlear nuclei (interneurons). From the cochlear nuclei, these interneurons either synapse on the motor nuclei of CN V or VII.

Neurons from CN V motor nuclei then go to control the tensor tympani muscle which attaches to the malleus, while neurons from CN VII go to control the stapedius muscle which attaches to the stapes.

Note that this is a bilateral pathway.

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3
Q

Describe the pathway from the ear to conscious perception of sound.

A

Spiral organ — cochlear nerve — cochlear nuclei — dorsal / ventral nuclei of trapezoid body — lateral lemniscus and associated nucleus — caudal colliculus — brachium of caudal colliculus — medial geniculate nucleus — internal capsule — auditory cortex of the temporal lobe

LOTS of crossing occurs, but the sounds of one cochlea are primary processed in the contralateral cerebral cortex.

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4
Q

What is the name of the descending tract extending from the colliculi? What is its role?

A

Tectospinal tract - synapses with LMN cell bodies in cervical spinal cord.

Takes visual and auditory information and uses this information to reflexively move the head and neck in response to very loud visual and auditory stimuli.

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5
Q

When do puppies develop normal hearing by? What is the significance of this?

A

4-5 weeks (although some sources say 6-8)— typically we do not BAER test puppies prior to this time

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6
Q

According to DLH, what anatomic structure is each BAER waveform associated with?

A

1 — cochlea / cochlear nerve
2 — cochlear nuclei
3 — dorsal nucleus of trapezoid body
4 — lateral lemniscus / associated nucleus
5 — caudal colliculus
6 — medial geniculate nucleus

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7
Q

What BAER waveforms may be present in a brain dead patient?

A

Waves 1 and / or 2
Cochlear microphonics

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8
Q

What are two possible explanations for the development of presbycusis?

A

Conductive theory — arthrosis of the ossicles, limiting their movement

Sensorineural theory — late form of abiotrophy of hair cells in spiral organ

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9
Q

What are the two main categories of congenital / inherited sensorineural deafness? What are their alternative names / proposed mechanisms?

A
  1. Cochleosaccular, AKA albinotic; often related to white coat color, but here specifically refers to dysfunction of the stria vascularis secondary to lack of melanocytes in the SV, limiting ability to move potassium ions in and out of the endolymph within the cochlear duct. This changes the electrical environment of the endolymph, resulting in hair cell death.
  2. Neuroepithelial, AKA abiotrohic; spontaneous degeneration of the hair cells without SV disease
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10
Q

What is the poster child breed of dog to develop late onset inherited deafness? What is the poster child breed for congenital albinotic deafness?

A

Cavalier King Charles Spaniel

Dalmatian (30% incidence in this breed)

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11
Q

What cranial nerves possess GVA fibers? What ganglia possess the neuronal cell bodies of these fibers?

A

Cranial nerves 7, 9 and 10.

CN 7 - geniculate ganglion
CN 9/10 - distal ganglion

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12
Q

What is the solitary tract? Where are it and its nucleus located?

A

This tract is the continuation of GVA fibers coming in from CNN 7, 9, and 10.

It is located in the medulla, just lateral to the vagal parasympathetic nucleus. These two structures are on either side of midline along the sulcus limitans.

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13
Q

Where is the area postrema located?

A

Level of the obex (caudal tapering of the 4th ventricle), and immediately adjacent to the ventricular system.

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14
Q

What is the route taken by GVA fibers to the brainstem that DONT travel via the CNN 7,9 and 10?

A

They travel into sympathetic trunk or splanchnic nerves, and enter into the spinal nerves via the rami communicans. From here, they travel into the dorsal root and then synapse on a neuronal cell body in the dorsal grey horn. This dorsal horn neuron then sends fibers up either ipsi or contralaterally with the spinothalamic tract in the lateral funiculus.

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15
Q

What two CNN are involved in taste in regards to the tongue? What are their particular distributions? Are their taste buds other places - if so, what other CN helps with taste?

A

CN VII and IX

CN VII supplies the rostral 2/3 of the tongue, while CN IX supplies the caudal 1/3.

Yes, there are taste buds in the palatal, buccal, pharyngeal and laryngeal mucosal tissue. CN X helps supply SVA neurons as well.

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16
Q

What tract is responsible for carrying GVA / SVA information from the solitary nucleus to the thalamus for conscious perception?

A

Solitariothalamic — immediately crosses over and closely follows the medial lemniscus / spinothalamic pathways to the thalamus

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17
Q

What comprises the rhinencephalon? What is this system colloquially referred to as? What are both parts designed for?

A

Both the paleopallium and the archipallium

The smell brain

Paleopallium is designed for the conscious perception of smell, while the archipallium is designed for regulating the emotional response to afferent stimuli (smell being one them).

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18
Q

What neurons in the CNS are frequently replaced?

A

The olfactory neurons.

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19
Q

What are the destinations of neurons in the medial olfactory tract? Lateral olfactory tract?

A

Medial olfactory tract neurons cross in the rostral commissure to terminate in the contralateral olfactory bulb. Lateral olfactory tract neurons do not cross and project to the ipsilateral cortex of the piriform lobe.

Note that both tract send fibers to various areas of the limbic system. Somewhat intuitively (at least based on location), the medial olfactory tract neurons tract sends fibers to the septal nuclei while the lateral tract projects to the amygdala and hippocampus.

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20
Q

What is unique about the conscious perception of smell compared to other sensory modalities?

A

It is the only one not processed within the cerebral cortex of the neopallium / without a relay in the thalamus.

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21
Q

What medication should be used with caution in working dogs relying on their sense of smell?

A

Metronidazole

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22
Q

Broadly speaking, what parts of the brain / brainstem contain portions of the limbic system?

A

Telencephalon
Diencephalon
Mesencephalon

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23
Q

What structure connects the corpus callosum with the body of the fornix?

A

Septum pellicidum

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24
Q

What are the three parts of the fornix?

A

Columns rostrally (end in the mammillary bodies), body at the middle, and then crura caudally that are immediately adjacent to the hippocampus.

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25
What is the term for the white matter of the cingulate gyrus? What is the caudal continuation of the cingulate gyrus?
Cingulum Parahippocampal gyrus
26
What is the presumed cause of English Springer Spaniel rage syndrome?
Possibly a type of limbic seizure, but a lack of response to anti-convulsants and no EEG changes argue against this possibility.
27
What are the two presumed mechanisms of hippocampal necrosis in cats? What are some additional clinical signs in addition to the seizures themselves?
Remember that the hippocampus is particularly sensitive to glutamate. Toxicity that results in excessive glutamate release in the hippocampus is one theory (like domic acid in sea lions). The other theory is that these cats are seizuring for a different reason, and then develop hippocampal necrosis secondary to the seizures. Often these cats will have marked pupillary dilation, hypersalivation and aggression.
28
What is a unique way that seizures can be differentiated from syncope?
The force with which urine is expelled — typically quite forceful (squirting) with seizure, whereas it is more passive with syncope.
29
True or false: focal seizures involve a change in consciousness / awareness?
False — a focal seizure should not change the degree of awareness
30
Horses may have seizures in conjunction with this
Estrus
31
What breed of horse experiences juvenile epilepsy? What is the long-term outcome of most of these horses?
Arabians, typically affects foals 3-9 months of age Good long-term outcomes as the seizures eventually stop happening
32
Toxicity with which chemotherapeutic agent classically results in seizures? What are some routes of exposure?
5-fluorouracil Either direct ingestion by getting into the source, or licking the medication off of a persons skin
33
What three breeds of dogs are predisposed to narcolepsy? What is the presumed pathogenesis in these breeds?
Dachshunds Labradors Dobermans Abnormal carnac gene — results in abnormal hypocretin receptors within the locus coeruleus and dorsal raphe nucleus.
34
Explain the pathway involved in modulation of sleep that is disrupted in narcolepsy / cataplexy.
Neurons in the hypothalamus receive input from optic nerve neurons stimulated by light. These hypothalamic neurons then release hypocretin (aka orexin). They release them at two locations in particular — locus coeruleus and dorsal median raphe (located in the pons). Via release of norepi & serotonin, these two nuclei then inhibit the function of the pontine reticular formation. When active, this pontine reticular formation facilities the activity of the medullary reticular formation via release of ACh, whose job is to inhibit GSE LMNs in the spinal cord. Soooo, if you have a deficiency in hypocretin, then the locus coeruleus and the dorsal median raphe can’t inhibit the pontine reticular formation, allowing it to activate the medullary reticular formation, leading to the inhibition of the GSE LMN — aka cataplexy
35
What is the presumed pathogenesis in acquired narcolepsy?
Reduced release of hypocretin from the initial hypothalamic nuclei, potentially auto-immune in nature?
36
Which neurotransmitters are facilitatory to normal sleep and which are inhibitory?
Acetylcholine is facilitatory (what is released from an un-inhibited pontine reticular formation) Serotonin and norepinephrine are inhibitory (what are released from the dorsal raphe nucleus and locus coeruleus to inhibit the pontine reticular formation)
37
Although it happens sporadically, when is a time that Dachshunds can exhibit signs of cataplexy? What is the typical outcome for theses dogs?
Following anesthesia for surgical treatment of a TL disc herniation. Typically signs resolve in 1 week.
38
What “disorder” commonly mimics narcolepsy in horses? Two causes?
Hyper-somnolence / sleep deprivation Can occur if the horse is too painful to lie down, or if they are too nervous too (new environment)
39
Describe the food test for diagnosis of cataplexy.
Place 10 pieces of food 3 feet apart. The normal dog should eat them all within 45 seconds, while cataplexic patients will take > 2 minutes.
40
What is the mechanism of action for imipramine for treatment of narcolepsy?
Dual purpose as an anti-cholinergic, and as interfering with re-uptake of norepinephrine.
41
In a stuporous or comatose patient, what two features of the neurologic exam can help prioritize structural disease versus metabolic / toxic diseases?
1. Symmetry — asymmetric findings strongly indicate structural disease 2. PLR — abnormal PLR is typically reflective of structural disease (midbrain compression) versus a normal PLR reflects toxic / metabolic disease (ie diffuse cerebral cortical dysfunction).
42
What are two ways that hypothalamic disease can cause signs of PU/PD? What other drinking disturbance can hypothalamic disease cause?
Central diabetes insipidus Hypercortisolism Adipsia - secondary to interference with central osmoreceptors, often results in severe hypernatremia
43
What clinical sign in a hyperadrenocorticism patient indicates possible macro-adenoma?
Poor appetite due to compression of the hypothalamic satiety centers
44
Congenital myotonia is due to a defect in this structure? What happens when this structure is dysfunctional?
Voltage gated chloride channel of the muscle cell membrane. Without the proper function of this channel, the muscle cell can’t repolarize effectively, staying contracted.
45
What two dog breeds commonly get congenital myotonia?
Miniature schnauzers and chow chows.
46
What is the difference between tetanus and tetany?
Per the consensus statement about movement disorders, Tetanus refers to the disease caused by the neurotoxin released from C. tetani, whereas tetany just refers broadly to sustained muscle contractions. Both should not have any relaxation, although DLH implies that tetany can involve some decreases in contraction when relaxed?
47
What breeds of dog have an inherited tetany disorder? What is an alternative name of this disorder in one of the breeds? What is the presumed pathophysiology?
Labradors and CKCS Deer stalking Presumably abnormal glycine receptors on the neuronal cell membranes of the motor neurons.
48
What toxicity can result in myoclonic seizures and central blindness? When do signs start?
Smoke inhalation Often a couple days after exposure
49
What is the most common cause of congenital “action related repetitive myoclonus”? What species is this cause most frequently described in?
Hypo or dysmyelination Swine
50
What metabolic disease can cause clinical signs identical to a congenital hypomyelination disorder in cattle? Why?
Maple syrup urine disease — a deficiency in the branched-chain keto acid decarboxylase enzyme Results in vacuolation of CNS white matter in the most myelinated areas
51
What are two differentials besides congenital myelin disorder diffuse tremors in young animals?
- central axonopathy (foals / calves) - globoid cell leukodystrophy (young dogs, primary demyelination)
52
What is little white shaker syndrome a form of? What breeds are commonly affected? Treatment? What should be the main differential for little white shaker and what other signs often accompany it?
An acquired action-related repetitive myoclonus Maltese and Westies Immunosuppressive corticosteroids Toxicity — usually accompanied by GI signs; mycotoxicosis is common
53
What are three types of postural repetitive myoclonus in dogs? What distinguishes these from action-related repetitive myoclonus?
- idiopathic head tremors - orthostatic postural tremors in old dog pelvic limbs - orthostatic postural tremors in all limbs of young Great Danes These happen at rest and are abolished with activity.
54
What is an infrequent iatrogenic acquired cause of myokymia?
Radiation therapy causing delayed demyelination of a nearby nerve
55
What is the genetic mutation associated with deer stalking syndrome in CKCS?
BCAN microdeletion, causing abnormal brevican formation. Brevican helps provide synaptic stability.
56
What serum levels are elevated in border terriers with gluten-sensitive paroxysmal dyskinesia?
Transglutaminase-2 and gliadin
57
In what toxicity is a classic finding the occurrence of abnormal behavior present prior to the onset of seizures?
Lead
58
Define UMN and LMN paresis
UMN paresis — inability to generate gait LMN paresis — inability to support weight
59
Explain why the third eyelid elevates in tetanus?
Due to eyeball retraction from tetanically contracting extra-ocular muscles, allowing the third eyelid to passively protrude.
60
Dysfunction of this muscle can cause widening of the palpebral fissure in acute facial paralysis, ptosis in chronic cases of facial paralysis and a narrowed palpebral fissure in cases of hemifacial tetany
Orbicularis oculi
61
With a unilateral TL spinal cord injury, what side should the cutaneous trunci reflex be classically absent on?
Contralateral — after synapsing in the dorsal horn, the majority of the fibers cross over to the contralateral fasisculus proprius prior to ascending up the white matter.
62
What is this photo demonstrating?
Atrophy of the tensor veli palatini muscle in a case of a trigeminal nerve sheath tumor
63
Name these structures.
A. Orbital fissure B. Rostral alar canal C. Oval foramen D. Trigeminal canal
64
Explain hydrops ex vacuo as it relates to middle ear effusion
If gas can’t escape the tympanic cavity (ie due to dysfunction of the tensor veli palatini muscle), then it will diffuse across the mucosa, creating negative pressure within the tympanic cavity, drawing fluid into the cavity instead
65
What is the name of the degenerative / metabolic disorder of young Alaskan husky dogs? What is the proposed pathogenesis? What are the clinical signs? What are the classic lesion locations?
Subacute necrotizing encephalomyelopathy (AKA Leigh syndrome) Dysfunction of a thiamin transporter secondary to a genetic defect (SLC19A3.1 gene) leading to localized areas of thiamin deficiency Acute seizures followed by difficulty walking/ tetraparesis / mixed ataxia / blindness Various basal nuclei, cerebral cortex, thalamus, caudal colliculi, reticular formation throughout brainstem, cerebellar vermis
66
What other breeds of dogs get a similar disease process to the classic subacute necrotizing encephalomyelopathy of Alaskan husky’s? What are the major differences in how this disease presents?
Australian cattle dogs, Shih Tzus These dogs have similar histopathologic lesions affecting their intracranial structures, but also develop lesions in their spinal cord intumescences. These lesions lead to profound polioencephalomalacia at the intumescences. This causes tetanus like qualities to their limbs — this can be explained by preservation of their large alpha motor neurons but loss of the interneurons supplying them. Additionally these dogs often have seizures before one year of age that are able to be controlled with medications prior to going on months later to develop their gait disturbances.
67
What direction does calcium flow at the terminal portions of pre-synaptic axons?
Calcium flows into the axon terminal through voltage gated calcium channels to facilitate vesicle release
68
From what embryonic layer is the nervous system derived from?
Ectoderm
69
Where is the pineal gland located? What does it release?
Caudal most aspect of the epithalamus, on midline, just rostral to the rostral colliculi Releases melatonin
70
Which spinal cord pathways carry subconscious proprioceptive information? From which parts of the body? Describe these pathways.
There are three tracts - spinocuneocerebellar, dorsal spinocerebellar and ventral spinocerebellar Spinocuneocerebellar is involved in the TLs and neck, and the dorsal/ventral spinocerebellar tracts are involved in the PLs and trunk. Spinocuneocerebellar - dorsal root into fasciculus cuneatus - fasciculus cuneatus to lateral cuneate nucleus - Travel in superficial arcuate fiber (merging with dorsal spinocerebellar tracts) into caudal peduncle to enter into cerebellum - Completely ipsilateral Dorsal spinocerebellar - dorsal root into nucleus thoracicus in dorsal grey horn (if caudal to L4, has to travel up to L4 in dorsal funiculus) - nucleus thoracicus to ipsilateral dorsolateral lateral funiculus - travels up the SC in this tract, and goes into the caudal cerebellar peduncle with the spinocuneocerebellar fibers from the lateral cuneate nucleus. - completely ipsilateral Ventral spinocerebellar - dorsal root into dorsal grey horn - un-named nucleus at the base of the dorsal grey horn crosses over into ventrolateral lateral funiculus - travels up the SC in this tract and enters the cerebellum via the rostral cerebellar peduncle - crosses back over in the cerebellum - ends up ipsilateral, but crosses twice!
71
Which cerebellar nuclei send efferent fibers via which peduncles?
Fastigial — caudal peduncle to the vestibular nuclei / reticular formation Interposital — rostral peduncle to red nucleus and reticular formation Lateral — rostral peduncle to red nucleus, reticular formation, pallidum and thalamus I think all also project to olivary nucleus
72
Which parts of the cerebellum does the flocculonodular lobe arise from?
Flocculus - lateral cerebellar hemispheres (there are two of them) Nodulus - ventral aspect of the vermis
73
What is the mechanism of action of ivermectin toxicity? What are the associated clinical signs?
Potentiation of the GABA-gated chloride channels Drooling, blindness, tremors, seizures, coma
74
What are the two possible locations / outcomes of migrating immature neurons in the developing cerebellum?
Broadly speaking, they can either stay internal and they can migrate to the external surface of the cerebellum. The internal ones either differentiate into Purkinje neurons or neurons located in the cerebellar nuclei. The external granular layer gives rise to the small granular cell neurons that migrate into the granular layer. A few also become the stellate cells located in the molecular layer.
75
How much more is the pullout strength of a threaded pin versus a smooth pin?
14x more
76
What cell helps regulate the amount of glutamate in the CNS? What does this cell do to glutamate?
Astrocyte Converts it into glutamine via glutamine synthetase
77
What correlates with animal species that are born able to walk (termed precocious) versus those that are not?
This relates to how quickly the cells in the external granular layer migrate. Precocious species experience complete migration prior to birth, while non-precocious (altricial) species have this layer complete migration after birth.
78
What are two major dividing structures of the cerebellum?
The uvuloonodular fissure separates the flocculonodular lobe ventrally from the rest of the cerebellum dorsally. The primary fissure separates the rest of the cerebellum into the rostral and caudal lobes.
79
Label these structures Ventral aspect of cerebellum, caudal is at top of image
1. Lateral cerebellar hemisphere 2. Caudal aspect of vermis 3. Uvula 4. Paramedian lobule 5. Uvulondular fissure 6. Ansiform lobule 7. Nodulus 8. Dorsal paraflocculus 9. Ventral paraflocculus 10. Flocculonodular peduncle 11. Flocculus 12. Cut cerebellar peduncles 13. Lingula 14. Rostral vermis 15. Continuation of uvulonodular fissure
80
Label these structures - dorsal aspect of cerebellum, rostral is to the left
1. Ventral paraflocculus 2. Dorsal paraflocculus 3. “Dorsal surface of cerebellum” 4. Primary fissure 5. Rostral vermis 6. Cerebellar hemispehere 7. Caudal vermis 8. Paramedian lobule 9. Ansiform lobule
81
True or false: the molecular layer of the cerebellum is acellular
False: the molecular layer is relatively hypocellular, but contains interneurons (stellate / basket cells) and astrocytes
82
True or false: the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor allows only sodium through it when opened
False — it also allows potassium through (going the opposite direction of sodium), but so little potassium actually moves through it so depolarization still occurs from all of the sodium movement
83
What glucose transporter is present within the CNS capillaries? What is unique about this transporter compared to other GLUT transporters?
GLUT1 Can function independent of insulin
84
What gyri make up the following lobes? - Frontal - Parietal - Temporal - Occipital
Frontal: post-cruciate and everything rostral to it Parietal: rostral portions of endomarginal and marginal gryi, and the mid-portion of suprasylvian Temporal: ectosylvian and sylvian gyri Occipital: caudal half of endomarginal, marginal, ectomarginal, occipital and splenial gyri
85
What is the cingulate gyrus a continuation of?
The parahippocampal gyrus, which originates in the piriform lobe, and wraps caudodorsally to meet with the cingulate.
86
What two structures comprise the piriform lobe? What is the alternative name for one of them?
Lateral olfactory gyrus Parahippocampal gyrus - also called entorhinal cortex
87
What does the tail of the caudate nucleus connect to?
Amygdyla in the piriform lobe
88
What is unique about the bipolar nature of the olfactory neurons
The dendritic end of the bipolar neuron is actually 8-20 cilia embedded in the nasal mucosa.
89
Fill in the blanks
90
What is the mechanism of action of pyrethrin toxicosis?
Delayed closure of VGSCs leading to prolonged depolarization
91
Three end points for neurons in the post-chiasmatic optic tract?
- LGN - rostral colliculi - pretectal nuclei
92
What structures are these?
Top one is lateral geniculate nucleus, and the bottom one is the medial geniculate nucleus
93
What structure forms the lateral walls of the ventral aspects of the third ventricle? What is lateral to this structure?
Hypothalamus Piriform lobes
94
What two hormones released directly into the bloodstream are made in the hypothalamus? What hypothalamic nuclei make them?
Oxytocin Vasopressin Supraoptic nuclei and paraventricular
95
What is the name of the tract originating from the corpora quadrigemina that helps with visual and auditory reflexes?
(Medial) tectospinal tracts
96
What are the three tracts coming from the motor cortex?
Corticospinal Corticopontine — synapses in pons and then crosses over in the transverse pontine fibers to form the middle cerebellar peduncle Corticonuclear — controls the LMN cell bodies of the CNN
97
What are 1 & 2? What is the name of the connection between them? What lies between them? What is the third subconscious proprioceptive pathway not shown here?
1. Spinocuneocerebellar tract carrying GP information from ipsilateral TLs and neck 2. Dorsal spinocerebellar tract carrying GP information from ipsilateral PLs and trunk Superficial arcuate fibers Spinal tract of trigeminal nerve The ventral spinocerebellar tract carrying GP information from pelvic limbs and trunk, which crosses twice (once in cord, once in cerebellum) and enters cerebellum via the rostral cerebellar peduncle
98
What cranial nerve innervates the carotid body and the carotid sinus? What does each of these measure?
Glossopharyngeal Body — o2 levels Sinus — blood pressure
99
100
What are the four branches coming off of every spinal nerve?
Dorsal branch Ventral branch Meningeal branch Communicating branch

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