Deck 2 Flashcards
1
Q
Is creating an environment in which others feel safe to tell the truth an aspirational or a mandatory standard?
A
Aspirational
2
Q
Is making decisions in the best interest of the society an aspirational or a mandatory standard?
A
Aspirational
3
Q
Is the protection of confidential information entrusted on us an aspirational standard or a mandatory standard?
A
Aspirational
4
Q
By not providing equal access to information to those who are authorized to access it, which standard do we violate?
A
Aspirational Standard for Fairness
5
Q
If we do not provide equal information to all the qualified bidders in a bidding process, which standard are we violating?
A
Aspirational Standard for Fairness
6
Q
Which standards describe the conduct that we as project management professionals should strive to uphold?
A
Aspirational Standards
7
Q
What are Team Performance Assessments?
A
Assessments of the entire project team’s performance.
8
Q
Give an example of risk exploitation.
A
Assign an experienced resource to a project to ensure that the work is completed ahead of schedule or at a lower cost.
9
Q
If you want to know a project’s assumptions and constraints, which document would you refer to?
A
Assumption Log
10
Q
When is project/phase closure activities performed?
A
At the end of each project phase, at the completion of each contract, and at the end of the project.
11
Q
Authority vs Responsibility
A
Authority is the “right” to do something, whereas Responsibility is the “obligation” to do something.
12
Q
In this leadership style, the project manager is primarily focused on getting the tasks done, with little regard to the team member’s feelings. Which leadership style is this?
A
Autocratic
13
Q
What is the Withdraw technique for conflict resolution also known as?
A
Avoid
14
Q
Avoid vs Mitigate
A
Avoid is to eliminate the threat entirely, whereas Mitigate is to reduce the probability of occurrence or the impact of the threat.
15
Q
What is the Cost Variance (CV) at the end of a project?
A
BAC minus Actual amount spent
16
Q
What is the term to describe an ordered list of all the work, presented in story form?
A
Backlog
17
Q
What is the acronym to describe the characteristics of effective feedback?
A
Balanced, Observed, Objective, Specific, and Timely (BOOST)
18
Q
Which format is usually used to communicate project schedule progress to management?
A
Bar Chart
19
Q
Define Obstacles.
A
Barriers that are movable, avoidable, or able to be overcome with some effort or strategy.
20
Q
What is the project management term for the supporting documentation that provides a clear and complete understanding of how the cost estimate was derived?
A
Basis of Estimates
21
Q
Which project document would tell you whether indirect costs are included or excluded from the project cost estimates?
A
Basis of Estimates
22
Q
Why do contracts go through an extensive review and approval process?
A
Because contracts are legally binding in nature.
23
Q
Are the bidder conferences held before or after the submission of the bids or proposals?
A
Before
24
Q
BDD
A
Behavior-Driven Development
25
What is accepting an opportunity?
Being willing to take advantage of the opportunity if it comes along, but not actively pursuing it.
26
What is Opportunity Cost?
Benefit (monetary or otherwise) foregone by selecting one project over another.
27
BCA
Benefit Cost Analysis
28
BCR
Benefit Cost Ratio
29
Which type of project selection method is Murder Board?
Benefit Measurement method
30
Which type of project selection method uses ROI?
Benefit Measurement method
31
Which types of project selection methods use a comparative approach?
Benefit Measurement methods
32
Benefits vs Value
Benefits are gains realized by an organization or beneficiaries through portfolio, program, or project outputs and resulting outcomes. On the other hand, 'value' is the net result - tangible or intangible - of realized benefits less the cost of or effort for achieving those benefits.
33
What types of procurement documents are used when price is the main factor in awarding the contract?
Bids, tenders or quotations
34
Whom does the project staff report to in a Strong Matrix organization?
Both - the Functional Manager and the Project Manager - but the Project Manager has more authority on the resources than the Functional Manager.
35
What is the commonality between leadership and management?
Both are about being able to get things done.
36
In Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM) method, what do boxes and arrows represent?
Boxes (also known as nodes) represent Activities, and Arrows represent the Logical Relationships between activities.
37
Brainstorming vs Brain Writing
Brainstorming is a general data-gathering and creativity technique that elicits input from groups such as team members or subject matter experts. Brain Writing is a refinement of brainstorming that allows individual participants time to consider the question(s) individually before the group creativity session is held.
38
Where might you use Bubble Charts on a project?
Bubble charts may be used for plotting three-dimensional data such as plotting risk categorization data on a chart.
39
When using bubble charts for representing risk categorization data, what does the size of the bubble represent?
Bubble size is the Impact Value of the risk.
40
BAC
Budget At Completion
41
What is total Planned Value (PV) of a project also known as?
Budget At Completion (BAC)
42
BOOT
Build Own Operate Transfer
43
BIM
Building Information Model
44
What is the term to describe a graphical representation of the work remaining versus the time left in a timebox?
Burndown Chart
45
What is the term to describe a graphical representation of the work completed toward the release of a product?
Burnup Chart
46
A documented economic feasibility study used to establish validity of the benefits of a selected component lacking sufficient definition and that is used as a basis for the authorization of further project management activities is termed as?
Business Case
47
Business Case vs Business Value
Business Case is the justification for doing a project, whereas Business Value is the tangible or intangible benefits from project investment.
48
Business Need vs Business Case
Business Need is the "trigger" for a project. Business Case is the "justification" for a project. Business need is usually a part of the business case for the project.
49
BRD
Business Requirement Documents
50
What is the difference between Business Risks and Pure Risks?
Business Risks provide an opportunity of profit or loss, whereas Pure (or Insurable) Risks only provide a chance for a loss.
51
Generally, who can initiate contract closure - buyer, seller or either of the two?
Buyer
52
BSR
Buyer Share Ratio
53
How are chance nodes represented on a Decision Tree?
By circles
54
What are the common ways to arrange an Organizational Breakdown Structure?
By departments, units, or teams with the project activities or work packages listed under each department
55
How is the EMV of a project calculated?
By multiplying the value of each possible outcome by its probability of occurrence and adding the products together
56
How are decision nodes represented on a Decision Tree?
By squares
57
How are the end of branches represented on a Decision Tree?
By triangles
58
How are project team assignments documented?
By updating the team directory, project organization chart, and project schedule.
59
What are the 3 C's of a user story?
Card, Conversation, Confirmation
60
What do cards represent on a Kanban Board?
Cards represent work items on a Kanban Board.
61
What is the proper structure to describe risks?
Cause - Event (or Risk) - Effect
62
What is the weighted average or beta distribution formula for activity cost estimate?
cE ( cO + 4*cM + cP ) / 6 where cE is the weighted average activity cost estimate, cO the optimistic estimate, cM the most likely estimate and cP the pessimistic estimate of the activity cost.
63
What is the contract price when the actual cost exceeds the Point of Total Assumption (PTA)?
Ceiling Price
64
CCB
Change Control Board
65
CCS
Change Control System
66
Change Control System vs Contract Change Control System
Change Control System is used to manage the changes to the project documents, deliverables, and baselines (scope, schedule, cost, etc.). Contract Change Control System is used to manage changes to the contracts on the project, and is integrated with the project's integrated change control system.
67
CR
Change Request / Cost Reimbursable (contract)
68
The Control Costs process has 3 outputs apart from Project Management Plan updates and Project Documents updates. Work Performance Information and Cost Forecasts are two of them. Name the missing output.
Change Requests
69
What comes as an output from Manage Quality process and goes as an input to Perform Integrated Change Control process?
Change Requests
70
What is the common output of most Monitoring and Controlling processes?
Change Requests Note: Change Requests are an output of all Monitoring and Controlling processes EXCEPT Perform Integrated Change Control, which has Change Requests as an input and Approved Change Requests as an output.
71
Referent Power of a Project Manager is also known as?
Charisma Power
72
Accepted Deliverables are an input to which process?
Close Project or Phase
73
In which process do you confirm that all the requirements of the project (or phase) have been met?
Close Project or Phase
74
Name the only Closing group processes.
Close Project or Phase
75
Name the Project Integration Management process(es) under the Closing Process Group.
Close Project or Phase
76
In Fist to Five method, what does a closed fist indicate?
Closed fist indicates no support for the proposed decision.
77
Code of Account vs Chart of Account
Code of Account is any numbering system used to uniquely identify each component of the WBS, whereas Chart of Account is any numbering system used to monitor project costs by category.
78
Code of Account vs Control Account
Code of Account is any numbering system used to uniquely identify each component of the WBS. Control Account is a management control point where scope, budget, actual cost, and schedule are integrated and compared to earned value for performance measurement. Control Accounts are strategically placed at various points on the WBS.
79
Which conflict resolution technique generates a win-win situation?
Collaborate/Problem Solve
80
In which process are prototypes useful?
Collect Requirements
81
In which process would you use Context Diagrams?
Collect Requirements
82
What is meant by Monitor?
Collecting performance data, measuring performance, preparing and distributing performance reports.
83
What do columns represent on a Kanban Board?
Columns represent each stage of the process on a Kanban Board.
84
COTS
Commercial off-the-shelf
85
Common Cause vs Special Cause
Common Cause is a source of variation that is inherent in the system and predictable, whereas Special Cause is not inherent in the system, and is unpredictable and intermittent. On a control chart, Common Cause appears as random data points within the control limits, whereas Special Cause appears as data points outside the control limits or non-random points within the control limits.
86
What is Vertical Communication?
Communicating up and down the levels of the organization.
87
What is Horizontal Communication?
Communication among peers.
88
Name an enterprise environmental factor that may help in the Develop Schedule process.
Communication Channels
89
What assumes increased importance in a Virtual Team model?
Communication planning
90
What is external communication?
Communication with the customer, vendors, other projects, organizations, and the public.
91
What is internal communication?
Communication within the project.
92
In which document would you find the stakeholder communication requirements?
Communications Management Plan
93
What document provides the escalation process should issues arise on the project?
Communications Management Plan
94
Define Control.
Comparing actual performance with planned performance, analyzing variances, assessing trends to effect process improvements, evaluating possible alternatives, and recommending appropriate corrective action as needed.
95
What is Benchmarking?
Comparing the current project's processes to those of other comparable projects (within or outside the organization) in order to identify best practices, generate ideas for improvement, and provide a basis for measuring performance.
96
Completion of the product scope is measured against the ______________________.
Completion of the product scope is measured against the product requirements.
97
Completion of the project scope is measured against the ______________________.
Completion of the project scope is measured against the Project Management Plan.
98
Compliance vs Conformance
Compliance is the act of complying with a rule, standard, law, or requirement such that the result is either compliant or non-compliant. Conformance is delivering results that fall within an acceptable range.
99
Which conflict resolution technique usually results in a lose-lose situation?
Compromise
100
Which is generally the second best conflict resolution technique after Problem Solve?
Compromise
101
Independent Cost Estimates are an input to which process?
Conduct Procurements
102
Procurement negotiations are done in which process(es)?
Conduct Procurements
103
What is/are the Project Procurement Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group?
Conduct Procurements
104
Which process applies the Source Selection Criteria to select sellers?
Conduct Procurements
105
Procurement Statement of Work is an input to which process(es)?
Conduct Procurements and Control Procurements (as Procurement Documentation)
106
What is Configuration Control?
Configuration Control is the activity of managing the specifications of project's deliverables and processes throughout the lifecycle of the project.
107
Configuration Control vs Change Control
Configuration Control is the activity of managing the specifications of project's deliverables and processes throughout the lifecycle of the project. Change Control is the process of managing changes to the project's documents, deliverables, and baselines (scope, schedule, cost, etc.).
108
CI
Configuration Item
109
CM
Configuration Management
110
Which component of the project management plan describes how the information about the items of the project (and which items) will be recorded and updated so that the product, service, or result of the project remains consistent and/or operative?
Configuration Management Plan
111
Which system is used for recording change requests?
Configuration Management System (which is a part of the Project Management Information System)
112
What are the activities that are performed as part of project closure?
Confirm that all the requirements have been met, close all procurements, get formal acceptance of the deliverables, measure customer satisfaction, perform financial closure, report final project performance, document lessons learned, update and archive project records, hand-off the deliverables, release the team and other resources.
113
What are the best practices for resolving conflicts?
Conflict should be addressed early and usually in private, using a direct, collaborative approach. The parties involved in the conflict have the initial responsibility of resolving the conflict. Project manager should intervene only if the conflict escalates.
114
What is Dysfunctional Conflict?
Conflict which negatively impacts the project objectives.
115
Which type of project selection method is Dynamic Programming?
Constrained Optimization method
116
Which types of project selection methods use a mathematical approach?
Constrained Optimization methods
117
Give an example of Indirect Power.
Contacts/network power (a form of power derived from alliance or contacts with someone influential in the organization)
118
What tool can be used to develop a scope model?
Context Diagrams
119
Contingency Reserve vs Management Reserve
Contingency Reserve accounts for "known-unknowns" or simply "knowns". It covers the "residual risks" on the project. Management Reserve accounts for "unknown-unknowns" or simply "unknowns".
120
What are the benefits of continuous improvement?
Continuous improvement reduces waste, eliminates non value-adding activities and hence increases profitability.
121
What is Progressive Elaboration?
Continuously improving and detailing a plan as more detailed and specific information is available, and thereby producing more accurate and complete plans.
122
Which is usually closed first - project or contract(s)?
Contract(s)
123
CA
Control Account
124
Control Account vs Work Package
Control Account is a management control point in the WBS where Earned Value measurements take place. Work package is a unit of work or deliverable at the lowest level of each branch on the WBS. A Control Account may contain multiple Work Packages, but a Work Package can only be associated to one Control Account.
125
Which tool is used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?
Control Charts
126
Name the Project Cost Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.
Control Costs
127
If you are using a payments system to pay invoices, which process are you in?
Control Procurements
128
In which process does the buyer conduct a structured review of the work being performed by the contractor?
Control Procurements
129
In which project management process are procurements closed?
Control Procurements
130
Procurement Documentation is an input to this process, and Procurement Documentation updates are an output. Which process is this?
Control Procurements
131
What is/are the Project Procurement Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?
Control Procurements
132
Which process verifies the acceptance of all the work and deliverables of the contract?
Control Procurements
133
Deliverables are an input to this process and Verified Deliverables an output. Which process is this?
Control Quality
134
If the project team is performing peer reviews of project deliverables, which process are they in?
Control Quality
135
If you are checking whether quality standards are being met, which process are you in?
Control Quality
136
In which process are approved change requests reviewed?
Control Quality
137
In which process are defect repairs validated?
Control Quality
138
In which process are inspections performed on items changed or repaired as a result of approved change requests?
Control Quality
139
Test and Evaluation Documents are an input to which process(es)?
Control Quality
140
What is/are the Project Quality Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?
Control Quality
141
Which process ensures the timely implementation of Approved Change Requests?
Control Quality
142
Which process is used to ensure a timely implementation of approved change requests?
Control Quality
143
Which process uses Checksheets?
Control Quality
144
Name the Project Resource Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.
Control Resources
145
Name the Project Schedule Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.
Control Schedule
146
What are the components of Cost of Quality (COQ)?
COQ Prevention Costs + Appraisal Costs + Failure Costs
147
Corrective Action vs Defect Repair
Corrective Action is taken to bring the project performance (in terms of scope, schedule, cost, quality, etc.) in line with the baselines. Defect Repair is undertaken to fix a "flaw" (or deficiency) in the project's deliverables.
148
Corrective Action vs Preventive Action
Corrective Action is undertaken "after" a problem (or risk) has occurred, whereas Preventive Action is undertaken to reduce the probability and/or impact of a problem (or risk) "before" it occurs. Former is reactive, whereas latter is proactive.
149
In a CPAF contract, which is the least important constraint?
Cost
150
In a CPFF contract, which is the least important constraint?
Cost
151
In a CPIF contract, which is the most important constraint?
Cost
152
In a T&M contract, which is the most important constraint?
Cost
153
In an FFP contract, which is the least important constraint?
Cost
154
In an FPIF contract, which is the most important constraint?
Cost
155
What is another name for Control Account?
Cost Account
156
Which factors are low at the start, peak as the work is carried out, and drop rapidly as the project draws to a close?
Cost and staffing levels
157
What is the input to the Acquire Resources process from Determine Budget?
Cost Baseline
158
What is the output from the Determine Budget process that goes as an input to Develop Project Management Plan?
Cost Baseline
159
CBR
Cost Benefit Ratio
160
Summarize Cost Control in one sentence.
Cost control involves analyzing the relationship between consumption of project funds and the value of the work accomplished.
161
What does Cost Performance Index (CPI) indicate?
Cost efficiency of the project
162
What are the units of measure for cost estimates?
Cost estimates are usually expressed in currency units, but other units such as staff hours or staff days can also be used.
163
Which factor is lowest at the start of the project and increases over the life of the project?
Cost of changes
164
What are prevention and appraisal costs collectively known as?
Cost of Conformance
165
What are failure costs also known as?
Cost of Non-Conformance
166
COQ
Cost Of Quality
167
What is the term for the sum total of money spent during the project to avoid failures, and during and after the project because of failures?
Cost of Quality
168
When does the Point of Total Assumption (PTA) assume more importance - in cost underruns or overruns?
Cost overruns
169
CPI
Cost Performance Index
170
What is the most critical EVA metric?
Cost Performance Index (CPI)
171
CPAF
Cost Plus Award Fee
172
Which type of contract uses parameters such as target cost, target fee, target price, award fee, and fee criteria?
Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF)
173
CPF
Cost Plus Fee
174
CPFF
Cost Plus Fixed Fee
175
Which type of contract does not motivate the sellers to control costs?
Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)
176
CPIF
Cost Plus Incentive Fee
177
Which type of contract uses parameters such as target cost, target fee, target price and share ratio?
Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)
178
Which type of contract would be most appropriate if the buyer expects the product to be built with the best quality material available, in the shortest possible time?
Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)
179
In which type of contract is the full value of the contract not defined up front?
Cost Reimbursable
180
In which type of contract does seller's profit remain constant even as the seller's effort goes up?
Cost Reimbursable (as the seller's effort increases, the project cost continues to go up, but the seller's profit remains constant).
181
In which type of contract would you use a Request for Proposal (RFP)?
Cost Reimbursable (CR)
182
Which type of contract would be most suitable for an R&D project?
Cost Reimbursable (CR)
183
Which type of contract would be most suited if the project work involves high risks?
Cost Reimbursable (CR)
184
CV
Cost Variance
185
Give examples of Appraisal Costs.
Costs of testing, destructive testing and inspections are Appraisal Costs.
186
Give examples of Prevention Costs.
Costs of training, documenting processes, and equipment are Prevention Costs.
187
What are Direct Costs?
Costs that can be directly attributed to a specific project.
188
What are Indirect Costs?
Costs that cannot be directly attributed to a specific project, such as management costs and general administration costs.
189
What is the formula for Cost Performance Indicator (CPI)?
CPI EV / AC
190
Scope Baseline is created in which process?
Create WBS
191
What is the most important part of knowledge management?
Creating an atmosphere of trust so that people are motivated to share their knowledge.
192
What are schedule activities on the critical path called?
Critical Path Activities
193
CPM
Critical Path Method
194
Name a common scheduling methodology used in project management?
Critical Path Method
195
According to which quality expert, quality is free, and the only associated costs of quality should be those of nonconformance?
Crosby
196
CFD
Cumulative Flow Diagram
197
In Kanban, what tool can be used to represent the state of work across time?
Cumulative Flow Diagram (CFD)
198
What is Working Capital?
Current Assets minus Current Liabilities.
199
What is the formula for Cost Variance (CV)?
CV EV - AC
200
Data vs Information
Data is raw, unorganized facts that need to be processed. Data can be something simple and seemingly random and useless until it is organized. When Data is processed, organized, structured or presented in a given context so as to make it useful, it is called Information.
201
Which visual analytical tool uses EMV analysis to calculate the expected values of competing alternatives?
Decision Tree
202
What is Plurality in the context of decision-making?
Decisions made by the largest block in a group, even if a majority is not achieved.
203
What are the characteristics of a well-groomed backlog?
DEEP (Detailed appropriately, Estimated, Emergent, and Prioritized)
204
Which process initially creates the Milestone List for the project?
Define Activities
205
Which is the process that usually follows the Collect Requirements process?
Define Scope
206
DMAIC
Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, and Control (Six Sigma methodology)
207
DoD
Definition of Done
208
Definition of Done (DoD) vs Definition of Ready (DoR)
Definition of Done (DoD) is a team's checklist of all the criteria required to be met so that a deliverable can be considered ready for customer use, whereas, Definition of Ready (DoR) is a team's checklist for a user-centric requirement that has all the information the team needs to be able to begin working on it.
209
DoR
Definition of Ready
210
Why is requirements documentation needed for scope validation?
Deliverables are verified against the requirements and acceptance criteria specified in the requirements documentation.
211
What are Verified Deliverables?
Deliverables that have successfully passed the Control Quality process.
212
In this leadership style, the project manager encourages the team members to actively participate in the decision-making process. A lot of authority is delegated to the team members and they play an active role in managing the project. Which leadership style is this?
Democratic or Participative
213
In this leadership style, the project manager encourages the team members to actively participate in the decision-making process. A lot of authority is delegated to the team members and they play an active role in managing the project. Which leadership style is this?
Democratic or Participative
214
What are Communication Models?
Descriptions, analogies or schematics used to represent how the communication process will be performed for the project.
215
DBB
Design Bid Build
216
DB
Design Build
217
DBO
Design Build Operate
218
DfX
Design for X
219
DOE
Design of Experiments
220
What is the name of the technique used during the Plan Quality Management process to statistically determine the variables which will improve quality?
Design of Experiments (DOE)
221
If you are using Cost Aggregation, which process are you in?
Determine Budget
222
Scope Baseline is an input to this process and Cost Baseline an output. Which process is this?
Determine Budget
223
Which process uses the Funding Limit Reconciliation technique?
Determine Budget
224
What is Tailoring in the context of project management?
Determining the appropriate combination of processes, inputs, tools, techniques, outputs, and life cycle phases to manage a project.
225
In which process is the Assumption Log initially created?
Develop Project Charter
226
Name the Project Integration Management process(es) under the Initiating Process Group.
Develop Project Charter
227
Name the Project Integration Management process(es) under the Planning Process Group.
Develop Project Management Plan
228
Which process integrates the baselines and subsidiary management plans from various planning processes?
Develop Project Management Plan
229
In which process are Individual and Team Assessments conducted?
Develop Team
230
In which process is the effectiveness of a project team assessed?
Develop Team
231
Deliverables are an output of which process?
Direct and Manage Project Work
232
In which process are approved change requests implemented?
Direct and Manage Project Work
233
In which process is the Issue Log initially created?
Direct and Manage Project Work
234
Issue Log, which is used for documenting and tracking project issues, is first created in this process. Which process is this?
Direct and Manage Project Work
235
Which process generates the Work Performance Data?
Direct and Manage Project Work
236
Which project management process implements the approved changes?
Direct and Manage Project Work
237
How do deliverables flow through a project?
Direct and Manage Project Work (Deliverables) → Control Quality (Verified Deliverables) → Validate Scope (Accepted Deliverables) → Close Project or Phase (Final Product, Service or Result Transition)
238
Direct Costs vs Indirect Costs
Direct costs are costs that can be directly attributed to a specific project, e.g. labor, raw materials, and equipment rental costs. Direct costs are included in the project budget. Indirect costs are costs that cannot be directly attributed to a specific project, e.g. management, general administration, rental and utility costs. Indirect costs may or may not be included in the project budget.
239
In this leadership style, the project manager tells the team members what, when, where, and how to do things. Which leadership style is this?
Directing
240
What is the definition of Execute as per the PMBOK® Guide, 6th Edition?
Directing, managing, performing, and accomplishing the project work, providing the deliverables, and providing work performance information.
241
Define Data.
Discrete, unorganized, unprocessed measurements or raw observations.
242
What is Preferential Logic also known as?
Discretionary Dependency.
243
What is Preferred Logic also known as?
Discretionary Dependency.
244
What is Historical Information?
Documents and data on prior projects including project files, records, correspondence, closed contracts, and closed projects.
245
What are the 4Ds of decision-making?
Drop-Delay-Delegate-Do
246
DU
Duration
247
DUR
Duration
248
Duration vs Effort
Duration is the number of work periods (not including holidays or other non-working periods) required to complete an activity, whereas Effort is the number of labor units required to complete an activity. Duration is expressed as work days, work weeks, etc., whereas Effort is expressed as man hours, man days, man weeks, etc.
249
Duration vs Elapsed Time
Duration is the number of work periods (not including holidays or other non-working periods) required to complete an activity, whereas Elapsed Time includes holidays and non-working periods also. Both are expressed as work days, work weeks, etc.
250
What is the formula for Duration Uncertainty?
Duration Uncertainty P - O where P is the Pessimistic Estimate, and O is the Optimistic Estimate.
251
When are risk audits typically conducted in an agile project?
During the retrospective
252
A person's legal or moral responsibility to promote the best interest of an organization or party he/she is affiliated with, is known as?
Duty of Loyalty
253
DSDM
Dynamic Systems Development Method
254
What is the simple average or triangular distribution formula for activity duration estimate?
E ( O + M + P ) / 3 where E is the Three-Point estimate, O the optimistic estimate, M the most likely estimate and P the pessimistic estimate of the activity.
255
What is the formula for Estimate at Completion (EAC) when the current cost performance is atypical for future project work, and the future cost performance is expected to be in line with the original estimate?
EAC AC + (BAC - EV)
256
What is the formula for Estimate At Completion (EAC) when the project is having a negative cost performance to date, and needs to meet a deadline?
EAC AC + (BAC - EV) / (SPI * CPI)
257
What is the formula for Estimate at Completion (EAC) when the original estimate is fundamentally flawed or is no longer valid due to change in circumstances (for example change in scope)?
EAC AC + Bottom-up ETC
258
What is the formula for Estimate at Completion (EAC) when the current cost performance is expected to continue in the future?
EAC BAC / CPI
259
Estimate At Completion (EAC) vs Estimate to Complete (ETC)
EAC is the expected total cost of the project or work component, whereas ETC is the expected cost of the "remaining" work. Note that both are "forecasts".
260
In the context of a WBS, what is the relationship between a control account and a work package?
Each control account may include two or more work packages, but each of the work packages must be associated with only one control account.
261
EF
Early Finish Date
262
ES
Early Start Date
263
ES
Earned Schedule
264
EV
Earned Value
265
EVA
Earned Value Analysis / Economic Value Added
266
Earned Value vs Actual Cost
Earned Value is the "estimated" (monetary) value of the work actually done, whereas Actual Cost is the "actual" cost incurred for the work done.
267
EVM
Earned Value Management
268
What is the schedule related Work Performance Information?
Earned value measurements such as SV, SPI, EAC, ETC, etc.
269
What is the key to effective cost control?
Effective cost control is about managing the Cost Baseline and the changes to that baseline.
270
What is Discrete Effort?
Effort that can be measured and directly attributed to a project activity or a work package on the WBS, for example, the effort required to develop a software, which is identified as a deliverable of the project. Discrete effort is one of three earned value management (EVM) types of activities used to measure work performance.
271
What is Apportioned Effort?
Effort that cannot be divided among or attributed to individual tasks or work packages on the WBS, an example being quality assurance effort.
272
Give an example of Finish-to-finish (FF) dependency.
Electrical (predecessor) and painting (successor) work of a building can proceed in parallel, but electrical work must finish before the final coat of paint can be applied.
273
Give three examples of areas of Ambiguity Risk.
1) Elements of the requirement or technical solution,
2) future developments in regulatory frameworks,
3) inherent systemic complexity in the project.
274
EI
Emotional Intelligence
275
What should we ensure before filing an ethics complaint?
Ensure that the ethics complaint is substantiated by facts.
276
Is organizational culture an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset?
Enterprise Environmental Factor
277
Is organizational infrastructure considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset?
Enterprise Environmental Factor
278
Is organizational structure of the performing organization considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset for the project?
Enterprise Environmental Factor
279
Is resource availability considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset for the project?
Enterprise Environmental Factor
280
Are employee performance reviews and training records part of Enterprise Environmental Factors or an Organizational Process Assets?
Enterprise Environmental Factors
281
Are Project Management Information Systems (PMIS) classified as Enterprise Environmental Factors or an Organizational Process Assets?
Enterprise Environmental Factors
282
EEF
Enterprise Environmental Factors
283
Earned Value Management (EVM) vs Earned Schedule (ES)?
ES It is an extension to the theory and practice of EVM. EVM measures performance in terms of cost, whereas ES measures it in terms of time. ES replaces EVM's Schedule Variance and Schedule Performance Index formulas and provides the schedule variance is terms of time instead of cost. ES also provides formulas for forecasting the project completion date.
284
What is a common active threat acceptance strategy?
Establish a contingency reserve
285
What is Networking?
Establishing connections and relationships with other people from the same or other organizations.
286
Which levels of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs are the Motivating Factors in the Herzberg's theory?
Esteem and Self-actualization
287
If you are establishing a contingency for project duration to mitigate schedule risks, what process are you in?
Estimate Activity Durations is the process and Reserve Analysis is the technique.
288
Resource Breakdown Structure is a primary output of which process?
Estimate Activity Resources
289
EAC
Estimate At Completion
290
What is the cost forecast indicator in Earned Value Management?
Estimate At Completion (EAC)
291
Estimate vs Budget
Estimate is a quantitative assessment of the likely amount or outcome. It is usually applied to project costs, resources, effort, and durations. An "approved" cost estimate for a project or a work component is known as Budget.
292
What is meant by Pessimistic Duration?
Estimate of the longest activity duration that takes into account all of the known variables that could affect performance.
293
ETC
Estimate To Complete
294
What is the formula for Estimate to Complete (ETC)?
ETC EAC - AC or Reestimate the remaining work from the bottom-up
295
Judging others' cultures or norms from the perspective of one's own culture or norms is called?
Ethnocentrism
296
The belief in inherent superiority of one's own culture or group reflects?
Ethnocentrism
297
Define Blockers.
Events or conditions that cause stoppages in the work or any further advancement.
298
What is a Resource?
Everything needed to complete a project. Examples include human resources, equipment, services, supplies, material and funds.
299
Earned Value Management (EVM) vs Expected Monetary Value (EMV)
EVM is a "project management technique" that integrates scope, schedule and cost to measure project performance and progress in an objective manner. EMV is a "statistical technique" that calculates the profit or loss of an outcome (e.g. a project) based on different scenarios, by taking into consideration the probability of occurrence and the expected profit or loss from each scenario.
300
What is the fundamental difference between the EVM and ES methods?
EVM measures performance in terms of cost, whereas ES measures in terms of time.
301
Define Inspection.
Examination of a work product to determine whether it conforms to documented standards.
302
Give examples of Pure Risk.
Examples of Pure or Insurable risks include risk from fire, floods, accidents, theft, liabilities resulting from product failure and bodily injuries to employees, loss of key personnel etc.
303
Which Process Group does the Conduct Procurements process belong to?
Executing
304
Which Project Management Process Group does the Acquire Resources process belong to?
Executing
305
Which Project Management Process Group does the Manage Communications process belong to?
Executing
306
Which Project Management Process Group does the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process belong to?
Executing
307
Which Project Management Process Group does the Manage Team process belong to?
Executing
308
Which organizational theory concentrates on outcomes rather than needs?
Expectancy Theory
309
EMV
Expected Monetary Value
310
EPV
Expected Present Value
311
Name a tool or technique which is used in all Integration processes.
Expert Judgment
312
Reputation of a project manager is an example of which form of power?
Expert Power
313
Which form of power is derived from the experience of a Project Manager?
Expert Power
314
Which forms of power of a Project Manager are most effective in getting commitment from team members?
Expert Power and Referent Power
315
What are the two types of knowledge?
Explicit and Tacit
316
Explicit Knowledge vs Tacit Knowledge
Explicit knowledge is knowledge that can be documented using words, pictures, and numbers. Tacit knowledge is knowledge that is personal and difficult to express, such as beliefs, insights, experience, and "know-how". Explicit knowledge is easy to share but lacks context and not easy to understand and apply. Tacit knowledge has context and easier to understand and apply.
317
Exploit vs Enhance
Exploit is to ensure that the opportunity definitely happens, whereas Enhance is to increase the probability of occurrence or the impact of the opportunity.
318
What are the two types of Enterprise Environmental Factors?
External and Internal
319
XP
eXtreme Programming
320
What is the preferred mode of communication between team members in XP?
Face-to-face communication
321
What are the 3 main responsibilities of a project manager in an agile project?
Facilitating, Coaching, and Impediment Removal
322
Which requirement gathering technique is most effective in quickly defining cross-functional requirements and reconciling stakeholder differences?
Facilitation
323
What are Information Management Systems?
Facilities, processes, and procedures used to collect, store, and distribute information between producers and consumers of information in physical or electronic format.
324
What are External Failures?
Failures found by the customer.
325
What are Internal Failures?
Failures found by the project (team).
326
By demonstrating impartiality and objectivity, which core value do we exhibit?
Fairness
327
By demonstrating transparency in our decision-making, which core value do we exhibit?
Fairness
328
Knowledge management is primarily concerned with documenting knowledge, so it can be shared. True or False?
False, because only explicit knowledge can be documented. Tacit knowledge cannot be documented and is shared through conversations and interactions.
329
A project charter is considered to be a contract. True or False.
False, because there is no consideration or money promised or exchanged in its creation.
330
A project phase is also known as a Project Management Process Group. True or False?
False.
331
Low grade usually means low quality. True or False?
False.
332
Low quality usually means low grade. True or False?
False.
333
Management Reserves are included as a part of the earned value measurement calculations. True or False?
False.
334
Point of Total Assumption (PTA) is the total cost of the project at which the seller makes no profit and no loss. True or False?
False.
335
Agile projects use bottom-up estimating. True or False?
False. Agile projects use top-down estimating.
336
Agreements are an output of Plan Procurement Management. True or False?
False. Agreements are an output of Conduct Procurements.
337
Configuration Management System is a subset of Change Management System. True or False?
False. Change Management System is a subset of Configuration Management System.
338
A project scheduling software, such as MS Project, is an Organizational Process Asset for the project. True or False?
False. Company systems and software applications are considered part of the Project Management Information System (PMIS), which is an Enterprise Environmental Factor.
339
Adding contingency reserves to duration estimates is unethical. True or False?
False. Contingency reserves or buffers are extra time added to the duration estimate to account for uncertainty or risk. They are clearly identified in the schedule documentation.
340
Contingency Reserves are not included in the Cost Baseline. True or False?
False. Cost Baseline includes Contingency Reserves, but excludes Management Reserves.
341
Project managers should try to mitigate every possible risk on the project. True or False?
False. Different risk response strategies may be adopted based on the nature of the risk, with mitigation being one of them.
342
Controlling PMOs maintain the highest degree of control on projects. True or False?
False. Directive PMOs exert the highest degree of control by directly maintaining the projects.
343
Diversity in a project environment should be avoided. True or False?
False. Diversity is an asset and should be embraced.
344
Float can be used for resource smoothing. True or False?
False. Float is used for leveling resources.
345
As part of the communications process, the receiver is responsible for confirming that the information is properly understood. True or False?
False. It is sender's responsibility to confirm that the information is properly understood.
346
Risk Management Plan is an output of Identify Risks. True or False?
False. It's an input.
347
Stakeholder Register is an output of Plan Stakeholder Engagement. True or False?
False. It's an input.
348
Risk Register is an output of Plan Risk Responses. True or False?
False. It's an input. Risk Register updates (as part of Project Document updates) are an output of Plan Risk Responses.
349
Scope Baseline is an input to Create WBS. True or False?
False. It's an output.
350
Work Performance Data is an input to Direct and Manage Project Work. True or False?
False. It's an output.
351
Project Scope Statement is the main input to Define Scope. True or False?
False. It's the main output of Define Scope.
352
Activity duration estimates include the activity lag as well. True or False?
False. Lags are not included in duration estimates.
353
Lean applies to production systems only. True or False?
False. Lean is a broad system that applies to the entire enterprise, including product development, production, sales, service and HR.
354
All the lessons learned on the project are documented at the end of the project (or phase), in the Close Project or Phase process. True or False?
False. Lessons learned are documented throughout the project. However, the final lessons learned or any other lessons learned, which had not been documented earlier, are documented in the Close Project or Phase process.
355
Project Quality Management is concerned with project quality and not product quality. True or False?
False. Project Quality Management is concerned with both project quality and product quality.
356
Quality Metrics are included in the Quality Management Plan. True or False?
False. Quality Metrics are categorized as Project Documents.
357
Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) is used for categorizing human resources only. True or False?
False. RBS can contain resource categories other than human resources.
358
Risks always have a negative impact on the project. True or False?
False. Risks may positively or negatively impact projects.
359
Reducing project scope is a drastic but valid schedule compression technique. True or False?
False. Schedule compression, by definition, shortens the project schedule without changing the project scope.
360
Scrum is an agile framework specifically for software development. True or False?
False. Scrum can be used for product development in any industry.
361
Strategy is concerned with day-to-day business issues. True or False?
False. Strategy is concerned with long term vision, whereas operations or tactics are concerned with day-to-day issues.
362
The project manager should maintain high level of engagement with key stakeholders throughout the project. True or False?
False. The level of engagement varies depending upon the stage that the project is in. For example, senior stakeholders may be highly engaged at the beginning of the project, to remove obstacles.
363
All project generally consist of 5 project phases. True or False?
False. The number of phases, the need for phases, and the degree of control applied depend on the size, complexity, and potential impact of the project.
364
The PMBOK® Guide provides a common methodology for managing projects. True or False?
False. The PMBOK® Guide provides guidelines (not methodology) for managing individual projects.
365
Trade-off between Grade and Quality is usually made in favor of Quality. True or False?
False. The project management team manages the trade-off between Grade and Quality based on project requirements.
366
Management tools and waste reduction are the two pillars of Lean. True or False?
False. The two pillars of Lean are Continuous Improvement (or kaizen) and Respect for People.
367
Agreements are an output of the Develop Project Charter process. True or False?
False. They are an input.
368
Schedule Forecasts are an input to Control Schedule. True or False?
False. They are an output.
369
Work Performance Reports are an input to Monitor and Control Project Work. True or False?
False. They are an output.
370
Accepted Deliverables are an output of Close Project or Phase. True or False?
False. They're an input.
371
Activity Cost Estimates are an output of Determine Budget. True or False?
False. They're an input.
372
Change Requests are an output of Perform Integrated Change Control. True or False?
False. They're an input.
373
Quality Metrics are an output of Manage Quality. True or False?
False. They're an input.
374
Resource Calendars are an output of Estimate Activity Durations. True or False?
False. They're an input.
375
Schedule Forecasts and Cost Forecasts are an output of Monitor and Control Project Work. True or False?
False. They're an input.
376
Work Performance Reports are an output of Manage Communications. True or False?
False. They're an input.
377
Resource Requirements are an output of Estimate Activity Durations. True or False?
False. They're an output of Estimate Activity Resources.
378
Change requests are an input to Control Schedule. True or False?
False. They're an output.
379
Make-or-Buy Decisions are an input to Plan Procurement Management. True or False?
False. They're an output.
380
Project Communications are an input to Manage Communications. True or False?
False. They're an output.
381
Project Schedule Network Diagrams are an input to Sequence Activities. True or False?
False. They're an output.
382
Selected Sellers are an input to Conduct Procurements. True or False?
False. They're an output.
383
Team Performance Assessments are an input to Develop Team. True or False?
False. They're an output.
384
Older workers usually are resistant to change. True or False?
False. This is a common myth about older workers.
385
WBS is task-oriented. True or False?
False. WBS is deliverable-oriented.
386
All the stakeholders are identified during project initiation. True or False?
False. While it's important to identify the stakeholders at the beginning of the project, stakeholder identification is a continuous process and new stakeholders may be identified anytime during the life of the project.
387
Work Performance Data is an input to the Monitor and Control Project Work process. True or False?
False. Work Performance Information (not Work Performance Data) is an input to Monitor and Control Project Work.
388
Work Performance Information is an input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process. True or False?
False. Work Performance Reports (not Work Performance Information) is an input to Perform Integrated Change Control process.
389
Feasibility Study vs Cost-Benefit Analysis
Feasibility Study is about "can we do it?", whereas Cost-Benefit Analysis is about "should we do it?"
390
What are Personas?
Fictitious characters used to represent the users of a future product.
391
What is the primary output of the Close Project or Phase process?
Final product, service or result transition
392
FF
Finish-to-Finish
393
FS
Finish-to-Start
394
FFP
Firm Fixed Price
395
Which type of contract is generally preferred by buyers around the world?
Firm Fixed Price (FFP)
396
What are Cause and Effect Diagrams commonly known as?
Fishbone Diagrams, Why-Why Diagrams or Ishikawa Diagrams
397
What is a common voting method used on agile-based projects?
Fist of Five
398
The definition of quality as defined by Dr. Joseph M. Juran is?
Fitness for use
399
In which type of contract does seller's profit go down as his effort goes up?
Fixed Price (as the seller's effort increases, the project cost remains constant, but the seller's profit continues to fall).
400
In which type of contract would you use an Invitation for Bid (IFB)?
Fixed Price (FP)
401
Which type of contract is more appropriate when the scope of work is clearly defined?
Fixed Price (FP)
402
Which type of contract would be most appropriate when the buyer doesn't have the time to audit invoices?
Fixed Price (FP)
403
FPIF
Fixed Price Incentive Fee
404
In which type of contract would you consider a Point of Total Assumption (PTA)?
Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)
405
Which type of contract sets a ceiling price for the seller?
Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)
406
Which type of contract uses parameters such as total price, award fee and fee criteria?
Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)
407
FP-EPA
Fixed Price With Economic Price Adjustment
408
Which type of contract accounts for currency rate fluctuations, inflation, changes in the price of raw materials and labor rates, etc., over the course of the project?
Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA)
409
Which type of contract would be most suitable if the project work spans over 5 years?
Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contracts (FP-EPA)
410
Is float a resource or a constraint for a project?
Float is a resource. It should be managed judiciously to cover for risks or other unforeseen events.
411
Which tool can help in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a process?
Flowcharts
412
What are the physiological needs as defined in Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs?
Food, water, clothing, shelter, sleep, and sexual satisfaction
413
What are the physiological needs as defined in Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs? (6)
Food, water, clothing, shelter, sleep, and sexual satisfaction
414
What does the Expectancy Theory advocate?
For a person to be motivated, effort, performance and motivation must be linked.
415
What are summary activities commonly used for?
For schedule control and management communication.
416
Which conflict resolution technique generates a win-lose situation?
Force/Direct
417
Which technique is generally regarded as the worst conflict resolution technique?
Force/Direct
418
Which type of conflict resolution technique is usually reserved for resolving emergency situations?
Force/Direct
419
Legitimate Power of a Project Manager is also known as?
Formal Power
420
What are Seller Proposals?
Formal responses from sellers to a request for proposal or other procurement document specifying the price, commercial terms of sale, and technical specifications or capabilities the seller will do for the requesting organization that, if accepted, would bind the seller to perform the resulting agreement.
421
Give an example of risk sharing.
Forming a partnership, team or a joint venture.
422
What are Tuckman's five stages of team development?
Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning
423
What is the formula for Free Float of an activity?
Free Float ES of successor activity - EF of this activity where ES is Early Start, and EF is Early Finish
424
When can free float occur on a schedule network?
Free float can occur when two or more activities converge into a single activity on a network.
425
Free Float of an activity is determined _______ (before or after) determining the total float of the activity in CPM?
Free Float of an activity is determined after determining the total float of the activity in CPM?
426
Whom does the project manager usually report to in a Balanced Matrix organization?
Functional Manager
427
Who has the responsibility to provide adequate resources for the project?
Functional Managers
428
Who holds more power in a matrix organization - Functional Managers or Project Managers?
Functional managers, because they control human resources directly and provide a permanent "home base" for project personnel to return to, after completion of the project.
429
FV
Future Value
430
What is Gold Plating?
Giving customer extras like extra functionality, high quality, better performance than what is part of the project requirements.
431
What are Data Representation Techniques?
Graphic representations or other methods used to convey data and information.
432
What is another name for Summary Activity?
Hammock Activity
433
What is Conflict Management?
Handling, controlling, and guiding a conflictual situation to achieve a resolution.
434
What are Mandatory Dependencies also known as?
Hard Logic or Hard Dependencies
435
Give an example of a well described project risk.
Heavy rain (Cause) can lead to flooding at the construction site (Event) resulting in serious injuries to the workers and damage to the equipment (Effect).
436
Which organizational theory deals with hygiene factors and motivating agents?
Herzberg's Theory
437
What is Heuristic Estimation?
Heuristic estimation technique uses "Rule of Thumb" or certain generally acceptable rules for estimation. Heuristic estimates are derived based on experience (on past projects) and not from scientific rules or formulae. For example, a software development company may have learned from experience that testing usually takes about 20% of the time it takes for coding.
438
Being truthful in our communication and conduct is a demonstration of which core value?
Honesty
439
Having the courage to share bad news even if it is received poorly is a demonstration of which core value?
Honesty
440
Which process uses the SWOT Analysis technique?
Identify Risks
441
What is/are the Project Stakeholder Management process(es) under the Initiating Process Group?
Identify Stakeholders
442
Which is the only initiating process which uses Project Charter as an input?
Identify Stakeholders
443
What is SWOT Analysis used for in the context of project management?
Identifying risks (SWOT Analysis is a technique for the Identify Risks process)
444
What are Fishbone Diagrams used for?
Identifying root causes of problems or risks
445
What is the formula for activity standard deviation?
σ (P - O) / 6 where σ is the standard deviation, P the pessimistic estimate and O the optimistic estimate of the activity.
446
Name the Project Risk Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group.
Implement Risk Responses
447
Define Critical Path.
In a project schedule network diagram, it is the longest path and corresponds to the shortest duration to complete the project. Its duration determines the duration of the project.
448
Attribute Sampling vs Variable Sampling
In Attribute Sampling, data is in the "attribute" form, and the result either conforms or does not conform. In Variable Sampling, data is in the "variable" form, and the result is rated on a continuous scale that measures the degree of conformity. For example, whether a car starts in first attempt or not is Attribute Data, but the mileage of the car per liter of gasoline is Variable Data.
449
Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF) contract vs Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF) contract
In both these contracts, the seller is reimbursed for the allowable costs of project work. However, in CPFF, the seller fee is fixed and is not tied to the seller's performance, whereas in CPIF, the seller fee is tied to the seller's performance.
450
Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF) contract vs Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF) contract
In CPIF, the criteria for determining seller fee is defined in objective terms, whereas in CPAF, the criteria is subjective.
451
Crashing vs Fast tracking
In Crashing, schedule is compressed by applying additional resources, working overtime, etc. Whereas in Fast tracking, activities which are usually performed in sequence are performed in parallel, to compress the schedule.
452
In group decision-making, what's the difference between majority and plurality?
In Majority, the option that receives more than 50% votes is selected. In Plurality, the option that receives the highest number of votes is selected.
453
Single Source vs Sole Source
In Single Source procurement, the buyer decides to award the contract to a preferred seller (even though there may be other sellers in the market), without going through the procurement process. In Sole Source procurement, there is only one seller in the market for the item to be procured.
454
Where is the status of change requests documented?
In the Change Log.
455
What is Early Finish Date (EF)?
In the critical path method, the earliest possible date on which a schedule activity can finish without violating any schedule constraint.
456
What is Early Start Date (ES)?
In the critical path method, the earliest possible date on which a schedule activity can start without violating any schedule constraint.
457
What is Late Start Date (LS)?
In the critical path method, the latest possible date that a schedule activity can begin without delaying the project or violating any schedule constraint.
458
What is Late Finish Date (LF)?
In the critical path method, the latest possible date that a schedule activity can complete without delaying the project or violating any schedule constraint.
459
Where are the actual outcomes of project risks documented?
In the Risk Register
460
What is the fundamental principle of Six Sigma?
Increase predictability to reduce defects.
461
What are the objectives of Project Risk Management?
Increase the probability and impact of positive events, and decrease the probability and impact of negative events in the project, in order to optimize the chances of project success.
462
Which type of communication (Formal or Informal) is more effective in creating new knowledge?
Informal communication is more effective for creating new knowledge. Formal, rigid communication requirements are good for sharing information.
463
IT
Information Technology
464
What form of power is gained through flattery or other common ground?
Ingratiating
465
At what stage of the project is stakeholders' influence the highest?
Initial stage
466
What are the different styles that a PM adopts as the project progresses?
Initially, the PM's style is more directing. The style changes to coaching, supporting and finally delegating as the project progresses.
467
Which Process Group does the Identify Stakeholders process belong to?
Initiating
468
Which Project Management Process Group does the Identify Stakeholders process belong to?
Initiating
469
Are Seller Proposals an input or an output of the Conduct Procurements process?
Input
470
ITTO
Inputs, Tools and Techniques, Outputs
471
Which technique is used to validate defect repairs?
Inspection
472
Inspection keeps errors out of the ________________.
Inspection keeps errors out of the hands of the customer.
473
How does the interactive communication model enhance the basic communication model?
Interactive communication model adds the following 2 elements: - Acknowledge - Feedback/response
474
Internal Failure vs External Failure
Internal Failure is the failure found by the project and External Failure is the failure found by the customer.
475
IRR
Internal Rate of Return
476
The discount rate at which the NPV of a project is zero is known as?
Internal Rate of Return (IRR)
477
Which type of risks does SWOT Analysis help in identifying?
Internal risks (originating from within the organization)
478
ISO
International Organization for Standardization
479
What are the characteristics of a good user story?
INVEST (Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Small, and Testable) is a set of criteria used to assess the quality of a user story.
480
IFB
Invitation For Bid
481
What is meant by I-shaped skills?
I-shaped skills mean deep skills in the core area of expertise, but lack of skills outside the core area.
482
Why is it important to involve team members early in the project?
It adds their expertise during the planning process and strengthens their commitment to the project.
483
What is the key benefit of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?
It allows the project manager to increase support and minimize resistance from stakeholders, and significantly increase the chances of project success.
484
What is the purpose of managing stakeholder engagement?
It allows the project manager to increase support and minimize resistance from stakeholders.
485
What is the key benefit of the Identify Stakeholders process?
It allows the project team to identify the appropriate focus for each stakeholder.
486
Why is it important to involve team members in defining activity lists?
It can lead to better and more accurate decomposition of work packages into activities.
487
What is the benefit of using a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)?
It ensures that there is only one person accountable for any one task, and thus avoids confusion.
488
What are the benefits of maintaining an Issue Log on a project?
It helps in timely resolution of issues, and avoiding conflicts and project delays that can result from unresolved issues.
489
How does the Configuration Management Plan (a component of the Project Management Plan) help to control scope?
It helps to identify items that require formal change control and the process for controlling changes to such items.
490
What is the benefit of using a logical data model?
It helps to identify the sources of data integrity and other quality issues.
491
What is the purpose of a Histogram?
It illustrates the most common cause of problems in a process by the number and relative heights of the bars.
492
What is Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)?
It includes processes and techniques to resolve disputes without resorting to litigation.
493
What are the benefits of involving the customers and other stakeholders during project initiation?
It increases: - Shared understanding of success criteria - Probability of deliverable acceptance - Customer satisfaction
494
What is Interactional leadership?
It is a combination of transactional, transformational, and charismatic leadership styles.
495
What is Organizational Project Management (OPM)?
It is a framework in which portfolio, program, and project management are integrated with organizational enablers in order to achieve strategic objectives.
496
What is Total Productive Maintenance (TPM)?
It is a holistic approach to equipment maintenance that strives to achieve perfect production with no breakdowns, slowdowns, defects or accidents. It emphasizes proactive and preventive maintenance to maximize the operational efficiency of equipment. It places a strong emphasis on empowering operators to help maintain their equipment.
497
What is a Pull System?
It is a lean manufacturing strategy used to reduce waste in the production process. It creates a workflow where work is pulled only if there is a demand for it.
498
What is the Theory of Constraints (TOC)?
It is a methodology for identifying the most important limiting factor (i.e. constraint) that stands in the way of achieving a goal and then systematically improving that constraint until it is no longer the limiting factor. In manufacturing, the constraint is often referred to as a bottleneck.
499
What is Product Analysis?
It is a tool to define the scope by studying how a product is to be built, how it should work, how it should look like, what it should cost, etc. It is used when the deliverable of the project is a product (as opposed to a service or result).
500
What is common among Define Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, and Identify Risks processes?
It is important to involve team members in all these processes. Involving team members in the decomposition can lead to better and more accurate results. Work should be estimated by people most familiar with the work. Involving team members in risk identification helps to develop and maintain a sense of ownership and responsibility for the risks and associated risk response actions.
