Deck 4 Flashcards
1
Q
What is Project Float?
A
The amount of time that a project can be delayed without violating the project deadline imposed by the customer, or the delivery date committed to the customer.
2
Q
What is Padding?
A
The amount of unreasonable extra time added to the estimate, just to feel confident with the estimate.
3
Q
What is Program Management?
A
The application of knowledge, skills, and principles to a program to achieve the program objectives and obtain benefits and control not available by managing program components individually.
4
Q
The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements is known as ___________________.
A
The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements in known as <u>Project Management</u>.
5
Q
What is Project Management?
A
The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.
6
Q
What is a Procurement Strategy?
A
The approach by the buyer to determine the project delivery method and the type of legally binding agreement(s) that should be used to deliver the desired results.
7
Q
What is the event that officially authorizes a project?
A
The approval of the Project Charter.
8
Q
What is a Budget?
A
The approved (cost) estimate for a project, WBS component or a schedule activity.
9
Q
What is a Cost Baseline?
A
The approved time-phased budget of the project (excluding any management reserves) that is used to compare actual costs to planned costs in order to determine variance and need for preventive or corrective action.
10
Q
What is a Schedule Baseline?
A
The approved version of a schedule model that can be changed only through formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.
11
Q
What is a Scope Baseline?
A
The approved version of a scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS), and its associated WBS dictionary, that can be changed using formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.
12
Q
What is a Baseline?
A
The approved version of a work product that can be changed only through formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.
13
Q
What are Specification Limits?
A
The area on either side of the mean on a control chart that reflects the customer’s requirements for a product or service. This area may be greater than or less than the area defined by the control limits.
14
Q
What are Control Limits?
A
The area within three standard deviations on either side of the mean on a control chart that reflects the expected variation in the data.
15
Q
What is Planned Value (PV)?
A
The authorized budget assigned to scheduled work.
16
Q
When is the Benefits Management Plan developed?
A
The Benefits Management Plan is developed prior to project initiation.
17
Q
Which is the best form of power for a Project Manager?
A
The best form of power depends upon the situation and the maturity level of the project manager. Generally speaking, personal powers (such as Expert and Referent) are better than positional powers (such as Legitimate, Reward and Punitive).
18
Q
What is Budget at Completion (BAC)?
A
The budget for all the work on the project. It is also the total planned value for the project.
19
Q
What is Portfolio Management?
A
The centralized management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic objectives.
20
Q
Who can authorize the use of Management Reserves?
A
The change control process is used to obtain approval to move the applicable management reserve funds into the cost baseline.
21
Q
What is the Deming Cycle?
A
The checklist of the four stages which you must go through to get from “problem-faced” to “problem solved”. The four stages are Plan-Do-Check-Act. It is also known as Shewhart Cycle. It is used for continuous improvement.
22
Q
What is Schedule Data?
A
The collection of information for describing and controlling the schedule.
23
Q
In which document would you find a glossary of common project terminology?
A
The Communications Management Plan
24
Q
In which document would you find the template for project status reports?
A
The Communications Management Plan
25
What is Life Cycle Cost?
The cost of a product over its entire life (including cost of development, acquisition, operation, support and disposal), and not just the project cost.
26
What is To-Complete-Performance-Index (TCPI)?
The cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a BAC (or EAC) target. It is the ratio of "remaining work" to the "funds remaining".
27
What is Present Value (PV)?
The current value of future cash flow, discounted to reflect the time value of money and other factors such as investment risk.
28
Who defines the product scope?
The customer
29
Who defines the quality of a product, service or result of a project?
The customer
30
What is the role of the customer in XP?
The customer in XP provides the requirements, sets the priorities, and steers the projects.
31
What is a Finish Date?
The date of completion of a schedule activity, usually qualified by one of the eight following: actual, planned, estimated, scheduled, early, late, baseline, target, or current.
32
Give an example of Start-to-finish (SF) dependency.
The day shift worker (predecessor) cannot leave work until the night shift worker (successor) has taken over the command.
33
What is meant by Risk Appetite?
The degree of uncertainty an organization or individual is willing to accept in anticipation of a reward.
34
What is risk propinquity?
The degree to which a risk is perceived to matter by one or more stakeholders.
35
What is the definition of Quality?
The degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements.
36
What is risk controllability?
The degree to which the risk owner (or owning organization) is able to control the risk's outcome.
37
What are Accepted Deliverables?
The deliverables that meet the acceptance criteria and have been formally signed off by the customer or sponsor through the Validate Scope process. These deliverables may be reviewed by the customer before giving a final sign-off on the entire project.
38
What is a Project Scope Statement?
The description of the project scope, including major deliverables, and exclusions. It provides a basis for making future project decisions and provides a common understanding of project scope among the stakeholders.
39
What is Variance?
The difference between the actual (measured) value (of scope, schedule, cost, quality, etc.) and the baseline value.
40
What is Float?
The difference between the time available for performing an activity and the time required to complete it. It is also known as Slack.
41
What is a Project Management Plan?
The document that describes how the project will be executed, monitored and controlled, and closed.
42
What is a Benefits Management Plan?
The documented explanation defining the processes for creating, maximizing, and sustaining the benefits provided by a project or program.
43
What is Product Scope Description?
The documented narrative description of the product scope.
44
What are Quality Control Measurements?
The documented results of Control Quality activities.
45
What are Procurement Documents?
The documents utilized in bid and proposal activities, including Invitation for Bid, Invitation for Negotiations, Request for Information, Request for Quotation, Request for Proposal and seller's responses.
46
What is Earned Schedule (ES)?
The duration from the beginning of the project to the date on which the PV should have been equal to the current value of EV. On the EVM chart, it is the date on which the horizontal line through the current value of EV intersects the PV curve.
47
What is risk detectability?
The ease with which the results of the risk occurring, or being about to occur, can be detected and recognized.
48
What is risk manageability?
The ease with which the risk owner (or owning organization) can manage the occurrence or impact of a risk.
49
Who owns the code in XP?
The entire team collectively owns the code in XP.
50
What is a Sponsoring Organization?
The entity responsible for providing the project's sponsor and a conduit for project funding or other project resources.
51
What is Earned Value (EV)?
The estimated (monetary) value of the work accomplished expressed in terms of the budget authorized for that work. It is also referred to as the budgeted cost of work performed (BCWP).
52
What is Estimate to Complete (ETC)?
The expected cost to complete all the "remaining work" on a project.
53
What is Estimate at Completion (EAC)?
The expected total cost of completing all the work on a project expressed as the sum of the actual cost to date and the estimate to complete.
54
What is risk connectivity?
The extent to which the risk is related to other individual project risks.
55
What are Enterprise Environmental Factors?
The external or internal factors, not under the immediate control of the team, that influence, constrain, or direct the project, program, or portfolio. Examples include organizational culture, industry standards, existing infrastructure and human capital, marketplace conditions.
56
What is Risk Premium?
The extra return in excess of (over and above) the risk-free rate of return of an investment (example, a project). It's a compensation for the risk to the party (example, a contractor to whom the risk is transferred) that accepts the risk.
57
How does an Influence Diagram help in risk analysis?
The factors which influence a risk can be shown hierarchically in an influence diagram, to demonstrate their influence on key outcomes.
58
What is Product Scope?
The features and functions that characterize a product, service, or result.
59
How do you calculate the float of a network path in Critical Path Method?
The float of a path is the difference between the duration of the Critical Path and the duration of the (given) path.
60
Define Legitimate Power.
The formal authority or power derived from the position. Team members perceive the project manager as being officially empowered to issue orders. It is also known as Formal Power.
61
Define Governance.
The framework within which authority is exercised in organizations.
62
What is Project Governance?
The framework, functions, and processes that guide project management activities in order to create a unique product, service, or result to meet organizational, strategic, and operational goals.
63
Which is better - a project with higher NPV or a project with lower NPV?
The higher the NPV, the better.
64
What is Empiricism?
The idea that the best way of planning is to do work and learn from it. It is a fundamental for Scrum and agile approaches.
65
Which of the following are characteristics of a good information radiator?
The information should change over time and easy to view.
66
What are Lessons Learned?
The knowledge gained during a project which shows how project events were addressed or should be addressed in the future with the purpose of improving future performance. They can be identified at any point during the project.
67
What is Actual Duration?
The length of time between the actual start date and the data date for in-progress activities, or between the actual start date and the actual finish date for completed activities.
68
What is meant by Risk Threshold?
The level of risk exposure above which risks are addressed and below which risks may be accepted.
69
What is a Finish-to-Finish (FF) dependency?
The logical relationship where the successor ("to") activity cannot complete until the predecessor ("from") activity completes.
70
What is a Finish-to-Start (FS) dependency?
The logical relationship where the successor ("to") activity cannot start until the predecessor ("from") activity completes.
71
How can Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS) be used in Risk Identification?
The lowest level of the RBS can be used as a risk identification checklist.
72
What is Ceiling Price?
The maximum price that a buyer is willing to pay. It includes Target Price plus buyer's share of the cost overrun.
73
What is the formula for Mean?
The mean of n values (x1, x2, x3, .. , xn) is: (x1 + x2 + x3 + .. + xn) / n
74
What are Bidder Conferences?
The meetings with prospective sellers prior to the preparation of a bid or proposal to ensure all prospective vendors have a clear and common understanding of the procurement. Also known as contractor conferences, vendor conferences, or pre-bid conferences.
75
What is a Project Management Team?
The members of the project team who are directly involved in project management activities.
76
What is Discounted Cash Flow (DCF) method of project selection?
The method of discounting future cash flows at an interest rate that reflects time value of money and a risk premium. DCF is the amount that someone is willing to pay today in anticipation of future cash flows (returns).
77
What is Development Approach in the context of project management?
The method used to create and evolve the product, service, or result during the project life cycle, such as predictive, iterative, incremental, agile, or a hybrid method.
78
What is Little's Law?
The more things that you work on at any given time, the longer it is going to take for each of those things to finish.
79
Which estimate is weighed more heavily in the beta distribution estimating?
The Most Likely estimate. It has 4 times more weightage than the Optimistic and Pessimistic estimates using beta distribution. The formula for expected cost using beta distribution is: cE ( cO + 4*cM + cP ) / 6 where cE is the expected cost, cO the optimistic estimate, cM the most likely estimate and cP the pessimistic estimate of the activity.
80
Define Effort.
The number of labor units required to complete a schedule activity or work breakdown structure component, often expressed in hours, days, or weeks.
81
What is a Quality Management System?
The organizational framework whose structure provides the policies, processes, procedures, and resources required to implement the Quality Management Plan. The typical project Quality Management Plan should be compatible to the organization's quality management system.
82
Who is a Buyer?
The owner of the final product, a subcontractor, the acquiring organization, a service requestor, or the purchaser.
83
Who are sideward stakeholders?
The peers of the project manager, such as other project managers or middle managers who are competing or sharing project resources.
84
What is Work Performance Information?
The performance data collected from controlling processes, analyzed in comparison with project management plan components, project documents, and other work performance information.
85
What is risk proximity?
The period of time before the risk might have an impact on one or more project objectives.
86
What is risk dormancy?
The period of time that may elapse after a risk has occurred before its impact is discovered.
87
What is risk urgency?
The period of time within which a response to the risk is to be implemented in order to be effective.
88
Who is a Project Manager (PM)?
The person assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives.
89
Who is a Risk Owner?
The person responsible for monitoring the risks and for selecting and implementing an appropriate risk response strategy.
90
Define Customer.
The person(s) or organization(s) that will pay for the project's product, service, or result.
91
What are Work Performance Reports?
The physical or electronic representation of work performance information compiled in project documents, intended to generate decisions, actions, or awareness.
92
What is a Threshold?
The point beyond which an event or risk becomes unacceptable and a response should be triggered.
93
What is risk strategic impact?
The potential for the risk to have a positive or negative effect on the organization's strategic goals.
94
Define Referent Power.
The power derived from personality traits or charisma. It is also known as Charisma Power.
95
Define Expert Power.
The power derived from special knowledge or expertise.
96
What is Situational power?
The power gained due to unique situation such as a specific crisis.
97
What is Relational power?
The power gained through networking, connections, and alliances.
98
Define Reward Power.
The power of directly or indirectly rewarding the team member. Rewards may be in the form of salary, promotion, bonus or better work assignments.
99
Define Coercive Power.
The power to invoke discipline or negative consequences. It may be in the form of suspension, reprimand, unpleasant assignments, etc. It is also known as Punitive or Penalty Power.
100
What is the Determine Budget process?
The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline.
101
What is the Develop Schedule process?
The process of analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints to create the project schedule model for project execution and monitoring and controlling.
102
What is the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?
The process of communicating and working with stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations, address issues, and foster appropriate stakeholder involvement.
103
What is the Plan Scope Management process?
The process of creating a scope management plan that documents how the project and product scope will be defined, validated, and controlled.
104
What is the Plan Cost Management process?
The process of defining how the project costs will be estimated, budgeted, managed, monitored, and controlled.
105
What is the Plan Risk Management process?
The process of defining how to conduct risk management activities for a project.
106
What is the Plan Resource Management process?
The process of defining how to estimate, acquire, manage, and utilize physical and team resources.
107
What is the Develop Project Management Plan process?
The process of defining, preparing, and coordinating all plan components and consolidating them into an integrated project management plan.
108
What is the Collect Requirements process?
The process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet project objectives.
109
What is the Define Scope process?
The process of developing a detailed description of the project and product.
110
What is the Develop Project Charter process?
The process of developing a document that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.
111
What is the Plan Communications Management process?
The process of developing an appropriate approach and plan for project communication activities based on the information needs of each stakeholder or group, available organizational assets, and the needs of the project.
112
What is the Estimate Costs process?
The process of developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project work.
113
What is the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process?
The process of developing approaches to involve project stakeholders, based on their needs, expectations, interests, and potential impact on the project.
114
What is the Plan Risk Responses process?
The process of developing options, selecting strategies, and agreeing on actions to address overall project risk exposure, as well as to treat individual project risks.
115
What is the Plan Procurement Management process?
The process of documenting project procurement decisions, specifying the approach, and identifying potential sellers.
116
What is Total Quality Management (TQM)?
The process of ensuring that the end result will meet the quality expectations of the customer.
117
What is the Monitor Communications process?
The process of ensuring that the information needs of the project and its stakeholders are met.
118
What is the Control Resources process?
The process of ensuring that the physical resources assigned and allocated to the project are available as planned, as well as monitoring the planned versus actual utilization of resources and performing corrective action as necessary.
119
What is the Manage Communications process?
The process of ensuring timely and appropriate collection, creation, distribution, storage, retrieval, management, monitoring, and the ultimate disposition of project information.
120
What is the Plan Schedule Management process?
The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule.
121
What is the Estimate Activity Resources process?
The process of estimating team resources and the type and quantities of material, equipment, and supplies necessary to perform project work.
122
What is the Estimate Activity Durations process?
The process of estimating the number of work periods needed to complete individual activities with the estimated resources.
123
What is the Close Project or Phase process?
The process of finalizing all activities for the project, phase, or contract.
124
What is the Validate Scope process?
The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.
125
What are Documentation Reviews?
The process of gathering a corpus of information and reviewing it to determine accuracy and completeness.
126
What is Market Research?
The process of gathering information at conferences, online reviews, and a variety of sources to identify market capabilities.
127
What is the Sequence Activities process?
The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities.
128
What is the Define Activities process?
The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables.
129
What is the Identify Risks process?
The process of identifying individual risks as well as sources of overall risk and documenting their characteristics.
130
What is the Identify Stakeholders process?
The process of identifying project stakeholders regularly and analyzing and documenting relevant information regarding their interests, involvement, interdependencies, influence, and potential impact on project success.
131
What is the Plan Quality Management process?
The process of identifying quality requirements and/or standards for the project and its deliverables, and documenting how the project will demonstrate compliance with quality requirements and/or standards.
132
What is Change Control?
The process of identifying, documenting, approving or rejecting changes to project documents, deliverables, or baselines (scope, schedule, cost, etc.).
133
What is the Implement Risk Responses process?
The process of implementing agreed-upon risk response plans.
134
What is the Develop Team process?
The process of improving competences, team member interaction, and overall team environment to enhance project performance.
135
What is the Direct and Manage Project Work process?
The process of leading and performing the work defined in the Project Management Plan and implementing approved changes to achieve the project's objectives.
136
What is the Control Procurements process?
The process of managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract performance, making changes and corrections as appropriate, and closing out contracts.
137
What is the Control Quality process?
The process of monitoring and recording results of executing the quality management activities to assess performance and ensure the project outputs are complete, correct, and meet customer expectations.
138
What is the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process?
The process of monitoring project stakeholder relationships, and tailoring strategies for engaging stakeholders through the modification of engagement strategies and plans.
139
What is the Monitor Risks process?
The process of monitoring the implementation of agreed-upon risk response plans, tracking identified risks, identifying and analyzing new risks, and evaluating risk process effectiveness throughout the project.
140
What is the Control Scope process?
The process of monitoring the status of project and product scope, and managing changes to the scope baseline.
141
What is the Control Costs process?
The process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and manage changes to the cost baseline.
142
What is the Control Schedule process?
The process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project schedule and manage changes to the schedule baseline.
143
What is the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?
The process of numerically analyzing the combined effect of identified individual project risks and other sources of uncertainty on overall project objectives.
144
What is the Conduct Procurements process?
The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract.
145
What is the Acquire Resources process?
The process of obtaining team members, facilities, equipment, materials, supplies, and other resources necessary to complete project work.
146
What is the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?
The process of prioritizing individual project risks for further analysis or action by assessing their probability of occurrence and impact as well as other characteristics.
147
What is Claims Administration?
The process of processing, adjudicating, and communicating contract claims.
148
What is the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
The process of reviewing all change requests, approving changes and managing changes to deliverables, organizational process assets, project documents, and the Project Management Plan, and communicating the decisions.
149
What are Proposal Evaluation Techniques?
The process of reviewing proposals provided by suppliers to support contract award decisions.
150
What is the Create WBS process?
The process of subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components.
151
What is the Manage Team process?
The process of tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, and managing changes to optimize project performance.
152
What is the Monitor and Control Project Work process?
The process of tracking, reviewing, and reporting overall progress to meet the performance objectives defined in the project management plan.
153
What is the Manage Quality process?
The process of translating the quality management plan into executable quality activities that incorporate the organization's quality policies into the project.
154
What is the Manage Project Knowledge process?
The process of using existing knowledge and creating new knowledge to achieve the project's objectives and contribute to organizational learning.
155
What is Configuration Verification and Audit?
The process of verifying the correctness of the product and its components in order to ensure conformance to requirements.
156
What is Verification?
The process to check whether the product (or deliverable) was built right. It is often an internal process.
157
What is Validation?
The process to check whether the right product (or deliverable) was built. It is usually an external process and involves customer acceptance.
158
What is the Closing Process Group?
The process(es) performed to formally complete or close a project, phase, or contract.
159
What is the Executing Process Group?
The processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project requirements.
160
What is the Initiating Process Group?
The processes performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase.
161
What is the Planning Process Group?
The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project was undertaken to achieve.
162
What is the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?
The processes that track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project against the Project Management Plan; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes.
163
Who develops the Acceptance Criteria on agile projects?
The Product Owner
164
Who makes the final call on priority order in the Product Backlog?
The Product Owner
165
If you want to know the project purpose, which document would you refer to?
The Project Charter
166
Which project document grants formal powers to a Project Manager?
The Project Charter
167
What does a positive (+) Schedule Variance (SV) indicate?
The project is ahead of schedule.
168
What does a Schedule Performance Index (SPI) value of more than 1 indicate?
The project is ahead of schedule.
169
What does a negative (-) Schedule Variance (SV) indicate?
The project is behind schedule.
170
What does a Schedule Performance Index (SPI) value of less than 1 indicate?
The project is behind schedule.
171
What does a Cost Performance Index (CPI) value of less than 1 indicate?
The project is over budget.
172
What does a negative (-) Cost Variance (CV) indicate?
The project is over budget.
173
What does a Cost Performance Index (CPI) value of more than 1 indicate?
The project is under budget.
174
What does a positive (+) Cost Variance (CV) indicate?
The project is under budget.
175
What is the primary source of information for how the project will be planned, executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?
The Project Management Plan
176
Who can authorize the use of Contingency Reserves?
The Project Manager
177
Who has the ultimate responsibility for quality on a project?
The Project Manager
178
Who provides direction and vision of success for the project?
The Project Manager
179
Who are the change agents in an organization?
The Project Managers are the change agents in an organization.
180
Who develops the Definition of Done on agile projects?
The project team
181
What is the purpose of Portfolio Management?
The purpose of Portfolio Management is to ensure that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation, and are aligned to organizational strategies.
182
What is the definition of Tolerance?
The quantified description of acceptable variation for a quality requirement.
183
Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) vs Responsible, Accountable, Consult, And Inform (RACI)
The RACI is just one type of RAM.
184
What is Percent Complete?
The ratio of the estimated amount of work completed to the total estimated work on an activity or a WBS component, expressed in percentage.
185
What is Sharing Ratio?
The ratio that describes how the buyer and the seller share cost savings or cost overruns. It is usually expressed as X:Y, where X is the percentage share of the buyer, and Y is that of the seller.
186
What is Work Performance Data?
The raw observations and measurements made while activities are being performed. It includes % work complete, technical performance measures, activity start and finish dates, actual costs and durations, no. of defects, etc. It is collected as part of the Direct and Manage Project Work process, and is input to most M&C processes. It is combined with forecasts to generate Work Performance Reports.
187
What are the benefits of using a Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS)?
The RBS is used for planning, managing and controlling project work.
188
What is Political Awareness?
The recognition of power relationships, both formal and informal, and also the willingness to operate within these structures.
189
What is Configuration Status Accounting?
The recording and reporting of all the changes to the configuration items.
190
The requirement to deliver the project within $500,000 is a __________ (Project or Product) requirement.
The requirement to deliver the project within $500,000 is a Project requirement.
191
The requirement to make an earthquake-proof structure in a construction project is a __________ (Project or Product) requirement.
The requirement to make an earthquake-proof structure in a construction project is a Product requirement.
192
Resource Histogram vs Resource Calendar
The Resource Histogram shows when resources are "needed" for the project, and the Resource Calendar shows when the resources are "available" for the project.
193
What are Procurement Audits?
The review of contracts and contracting processes for completeness, accuracy, and effectiveness.
194
What is Authority?
The right to apply project resources, expend funds, make decisions, or give approvals.
195
Which Enterprise Environmental Factors can influence the Plan Risk Management process?
The risk appetite, attitudes and tolerances of the organizations.
196
Residual Risks vs Secondary Risks
The risks that remain after risk responses have been implemented are called Residual Risks. New risks that emerge as a result of applying risk response strategies are called Secondary Risks.
197
Why is Scope Baseline an input to the Identify Risks process?
The scope baseline includes deliverables and criteria for their acceptance, some of which might give rise to risk. It also contains the WBS, which can be used for identifying risks at the project level as well as the work package or control account level.
198
Why is Scope Baseline an input to the Develop Schedule process?
The scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary (components of scope baseline) have details about the project deliverables that are considered when building the schedule model.
199
What is meant by Selected Sellers?
The sellers who have been selected to provide a contracted set of services or products.
200
Who is responsible for quality in the organization as a whole?
The senior management of the organization
201
What is the Shu-Ha-Ri model?
The Shu-Ha-Ri model is often used to address the appropriate time and opportunity for process tailoring in agile. Level 1 is Shu (follow), Level 2 is Ha (break away), and Level 3 is Ri (fluency or go beyond and transcend).
202
Define Competence.
The skill and capacity required to complete assigned activities within the project constraints.
203
Who can approve changes to the Project Charter?
The Sponsor
204
Who usually authors the Project Charter?
The sponsor. The project manager may participate in the development of the project charter.
205
What are the components of a Sprint Backlog?
The Sprint Backlog is composed of the Sprint Goal (why), a set of Product Backlog items selected for the Sprint (what), as well as an actionable plan for delivering the Increment (how).
206
Why is the Stakeholder Engagement Plan an input to the Plan Quality Management process?
The stakeholder engagement plan provides the method for documenting the stakeholders' needs and expectations that provide the foundation for quality management.
207
What is the PMBOK® Guide?
The standard for managing most projects most of the time across many types of industries. It describes the project management processes used to manage a project toward a more successful outcome.
208
What is a Start Date?
The start date of a schedule activity, usually qualified by one of the following: actual, planned, estimated, scheduled, early, late, target, baseline, or current.
209
Define Scope.
The sum of the products, services, and results to be provided as a project.
210
What is Business Value?
The tangible and intangible benefits from an investment.
211
What is the best practice in regard to the Team Charter?
The Team Charter works best when the team develops it, or at least has an opportunity to contribute to it.
212
What is Timeboxing?
The technique of using a fixed duration, short cycle time of development work.
213
Communication vs Communications
The term "communication" indicates the act of communicating, such as facilitating a meeting, giving information and active listening. The term "communications" indicates the artifacts of communication, such as memos, presentations, and emails.
214
What is Voice of the Customer (VOC)?
The term to describe the stated and unstated customer needs or requirements.
215
What is a Precedence Relationship?
The term used for a logical relationship in the Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM). Also referred to as logical relationship, and dependency.
216
What is the Law of Diminishing Returns?
The theory that after a certain point, the increase in input of a process does not lead to a proportional increase in the output.
217
What are Management Reserves?
The time and cost reserves that account for "unknown-unknowns" or simply "unknowns".
218
What is Activity Duration?
The time in calendar units between the start and finish of a schedule activity. In simple terms, it's the length of time that it takes to complete an activity.
219
What is a Lead?
The time period by which a successor activity is accelerated (or can start earlier) with respect to the predecessor on a schedule network.
220
What is Cost of Quality (CoQ)?
The total cost of all quality related efforts throughout the product life cycle. It includes prevention and appraisal costs (cost of conformance), and failure costs (cost of non-conformance).
221
What is Point of Total Assumption (PTA)?
The total cost on a Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF) contract, above which the seller bears all cost overruns.
222
Define Duration (DU or DUR).
The total number of work periods (days, weeks, etc.), excluding holidays or other nonworking periods, required to complete an activity or work breakdown structure component.
223
What are the two pillars of Lean?
The two pillars of Lean are: - Continuous Improvement (or kaizen) - Respect for People
224
What are Resource Requirements?
The types and quantities of resources required for each activity in a work package.
225
What is Scope Creep?
The uncontrolled expansion to product or project scope without adjustments to time, cost, and resources.
226
What is a Calendar Unit?
The unit of time used in scheduling a project. Example hours, days, weeks, months, etc.
227
The verbal elements of a speech outside of spoken words, such as pitch, tone, rate, etc., are known as ______________ factors.
The verbal elements of a speech outside of spoken words, such as pitch, tone, rate, etc., are known as paralingual factors.
228
Give an example of Start-to-start (SS) dependency.
The vote counting (successor) in the polls can begin as soon as the polling begins (predecessor).
229
Why is Cost Management Plan an input to Identify Risks process?
The way costs are managed on the project could in itself be a source of risk on the project.
230
What is the 100% rule when developing the WBS?
The work at the lowest levels of the WBS must add up to 100% of the project scope.
231
What is a Work Package?
The work defined at the lowest level of the work breakdown structure for which cost and duration are estimated and managed.
232
What is Conformance Work?
The work done to compensate for imperfections that prevent organizations from completing planned activities correctly as essential first-time work. It consists of actions that are related to prevention and inspection.
233
What is Nonconformance Work?
The work done to deal with the consequences of errors and failures in doing activities correctly on the first attempt. In efficient quality management systems, the amount of nonconformance work will approach zero.
234
What is the X in DfX?
The X in DfX can be different aspects of product development, such as reliability, deployment, assembly, manufacturing, cost, service, usability, safety, and quality.
235
TOC
Theory of Constraints
236
What are the two theories advocated by Douglas McGregor to categorize workers?
Theory X and Theory Y
237
What is/are the Project Procurement Management process(es) under the Closing Process Group?
There is no Project Procurement Management process under the Closing Process Group.
238
What is the purpose of Bidder Conferences?
They are used to ensure that all prospective sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement (both technical and contractual requirements), and that no bidders receive preferential treatment.
239
How do Benefit Measurement methods of project selection work?
They compare the projects based on features and benefits.
240
How do Constrained Optimization methods of project selection work?
They use complex mathematical models and algorithms to predict the success of the project.
241
What is another name for Negative Risk?
Threat
242
Threat vs Opportunity
Threat (or negative risk) is a risk of a loss, whereas Opportunity (or positive risk) is a risk of a gain.
243
When does an agile team capture lessons learned?
Throughout the project
244
In which part of the project life cycle is Monitor Communications process performed?
Throughout the project life cycle
245
In a CPIF contract, which is the least important constraint?
Time
246
In an FPIF contract, which is the least important constraint?
Time
247
T&M
Time And Material
248
Which type of contract should the buyer opt for if he wants the work to start soon?
Time and Material (T & M)
249
If a project management team wants to hire the services of a risk management consultant on the project, which type of contract would be most suited for their requirement?
Time and Material (T&M)
250
In which type of contract would you use a Request for Quotation (RFQ)?
Time and Material (T&M)
251
Which type of contract would be most suitable when a project team needs personnel to augment its staff?
Time and Material (T&M)
252
What is Contingency Reserve?
Time or money allocated in the schedule or cost baseline for known risks (or "known-unknowns") with active response strategies. It is also known as Contingency Allowance.
253
What is the purpose of procurement negotiations at the time of conducting procurements?
To clarify the structure, requirements, and other terms of the purchases so that mutual agreement can be reached prior to signing the contract.
254
Why is Cost-Benefit Analysis done in quality planning?
To compare the cost of quality activities with the expected benefit. For example, if a quality improvement activity costs $10,000 and results in only a marginal increase in quality, then it's probably not worth doing.
255
What is the purpose of using Simulation technique in quantitative risk analysis?
To determine the likelihood of achieving specific schedule or cost targets of the project.
256
Why should Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process be repeated after Plan Risk Responses process?
To determine whether the overall project risk has satisfactorily decreased as a result of planned responses.
257
What is the purpose of Project Schedule Network Diagrams?
To develop (project) schedule.
258
What is the only way for a project management practitioner to resolve conflict of interest?
To disclose the conflict to the parties affected by the conflict and let them make a decision on how he/she should proceed.
259
What is the role of an Operations Manager in an enterprise?
To manage business operations (such as R&D, design, manufacturing, testing, maintenance, customer service, etc.) efficiently.
260
What is the purpose of a Probability and Impact Matrix?
To rate risks (low, moderate, high).
261
What are Screening Systems used for in procurement management?
To shortlist sellers (eliminate those who do not meet certain minimum requirements).
262
What is the primary function of a PMO?
To support project managers.
263
What is the purpose of a spike in agile projects?
To test a technological approach and stop as soon as it's clear.
264
TCPI
To-Complete Performance Index
265
What is the ratio of Work Remaining to Funds Remaining known as?
To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI)
266
Tolerance vs Control Limits
Tolerances are used to determine whether individual components are acceptable, whereas Control Limits are used to control the process. Control Limits usually fall within Tolerance Limits.
267
Top project managers spend about 90% of their time on a project in _____________.
Top project managers spend about 90% of their time on a project in communicating.
268
What are Analogous estimates also known as?
Top-down estimates
269
Which tool would you use to graphically represent the results of Sensitivity Analysis?
Tornado Diagram
270
What is the formula for Total Float?
Total Float LF - EF or Total Float LS - ES where LF is Late Finish, EF is Early Finish, LS is Late Start and ES is Early Start. Either formula can be used.
271
Total Float belongs to the ____________, whereas Free Float belongs to the ____________.
Total Float belongs to the project, whereas Free Float belongs to the individual activities.
272
Total Float vs Free Float
Total Float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project, whereas Free Float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any successor activity.
273
What is the total power of a project manager?
Total Power Positional Power + Personal Power
274
TPM
Total Productive Maintenance
275
TQM
Total Quality Management
276
What are project's Triple Constraints?
Traditionally, this term referred to project's Scope, Time and Cost. Later it was expanded to include Quality, Risk, and Customer Satisfaction. A change to one of these factors must be evaluated for impact to all the other factors, as part of integrated change control process.
277
If an organization decides to use a contract in order to reduce a project risk, what kind of risk response strategy are they using?
Transfer
278
What is the term to describe leaders who empower followers through idealized attributes and behaviors?
Transformational
279
Which graphical analysis technique examines project performance over time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?
Trend Analysis
280
What are the common forms of probability distributions used in Quantitative Risk Analysis?
Triangular, normal, lognormal, beta, uniform, or discrete distributions.
281
A project schedule network diagram is always drawn from left to right. True or False?
True.
282
Agreements are an input to Determine Budget. True or False?
True.
283
Agreements are an input to Identify Stakeholders. True or False?
True.
284
Before the baselines are established, changes are not required to be formally controlled by the Perform Integrated Change Control process. True or False?
True.
285
Change Log is an input to Manage Stakeholder Engagement. True or False?
True.
286
Communication preferences may vary with age of the person. True or False?
True.
287
Configuration Management Plan is a subsidiary of the Project Management Plan. True or False?
True.
288
Configuration Management System is a part of the Project Management System. True or False?
True.
289
Cost Baseline is an input to Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis. True or False?
True.
290
Cost Forecasts are an output of Control Costs. True or False?
True.
291
Diversity is an asset for organizations. True or False?
True.
292
Expert Judgment is a Tool and Technique in the Collect Requirements process. True or False?
True.
293
Issue Log can be updated in the Monitor Communications process. True or False?
True.
294
Net Present Value calculations may be included in the Benefits Management Plan. True or False?
True.
295
Procurement Documentation are an input to Control Procurements. True or False?
True.
296
Procurement Documentation is an input to Conduct Procurements. True or False?
True.
297
Project Charter is an input to Define Scope. True or False?
True.
298
Project Charter is an input to Develop Project Management Plan. True or False?
True.
299
Project Charter is an input to Plan Risk Management. True or False?
True.
300
Project Communications are an input to Monitor Communications. True or False?
True.
301
Project phases can overlap. True or False?
True.
302
Project Team Assignments are an output of Acquire Resources. True or False?
True.
303
Project teams should identify and manage both event-based risks and non-event risks. True or False.
True.
304
Projects are how businesses implement changes. True or False?
True.
305
Requirements Management Plan is an input to Collect Requirements. True or False?
True.
306
Resource Breakdown Structure is an output of Estimate Activity Resources. True or False?
True.
307
Resource Requirements are an input to Estimate Costs. True or False?
True.
308
Risk Register is an input to Plan Quality Management. True or False?
True.
309
Schedule Baseline is an output of Develop Schedule. True or False?
True.
310
Scope Baseline is an input to Define Activities. True or False?
True.
311
Stakeholder Register is an input to Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis. True or False?
True.
312
Stakeholder satisfaction is one of the key project objectives. True or False?
True.
313
The project management processes are repeated in each phase of a project. True or False?
True.
314
Verified Deliverables are an input to Validate Scope. True or False?
True.
315
WBS is a communication tool on a project. True or False?
True.
316
Work Performance Data are an input to Control Quality. True or False?
True.
317
Work Performance Data is an output of an Executing process, and an input to most Monitoring and Controlling processes. True or False?
True.
318
Work Performance Information is an output of Control Scope. True or False?
True.
319
Work Performance Reports are an input to Manage Team. True or False?
True.
320
Work Performance Reports are an input to Monitor Risks. True or False?
True.
321
A project manager may be involved in benefits realization activities even after the project is complete. True or False?
True. A project manager may be involved in follow-on activities related to realizing business benefits from the project.
322
Change control process is mandatory for every project. True or False.
True. Change is inevitable; therefore, some type of change control process is mandatory for every project.
323
Contracts are risk mitigation tools. True or False?
True. Contracts or agreements may be used to transfer liability for specified risks to another party.
324
Control Charts are used to track repetitive activities like manufacturing lots. They can also be used to track the project management processes. True or False?
True. Control Charts can be used to determine whether project management processes, such as cost and schedule variances, volume, and frequency of scope changes, are in control.
325
Management Reserves are not included in the Cost Baseline. True or False?
True. Cost Baseline includes Contingency Reserves, but excludes Management Reserves.
326
Padding duration estimates is unethical. True or False?
True. Padding is the amount of unreasonable extra time added to the estimate, just to feel confident with the estimate.
327
Management Reserves are NOT part of the Project Cost Baseline. True or False?
True. Project Cost Baseline includes Project Cost Estimates and Contingency Reserves. Project Cost Budget is determined by adding Management Reserves to Project Cost Baseline.
328
The Critical Path can have a negative float. True or False?
True. The Critical Path can have a positive, zero or negative float.
329
What type of team members are ideal for an agile team - I-shaped or T-shaped?
T-shaped
330
What is meant by T-shaped skills?
T-shaped skills mean deep skills in a preferred functional area, discipline, or specialty, and broad skills outside one's core area.
331
What is Variability Risk?
Uncertainty about some key characteristics of a planned event or activity or decision.
332
What is Ambiguity Risk?
Uncertainty arising from lack of knowledge or understanding of certain aspects of the project.
333
What do the schedule and cost probability distributions represent?
Uncertainty in schedule or cost estimates
334
What are unknown unknowns?
Unknown unknowns are things we do not even know that we don't know. These are risks that are not even identified during risk management. Unknown unknowns are managed by using Management Reserves.
335
What is the output of Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis?
Updates to Assumptions Log, Issue Log, Risk Register and Risk Report
336
What tool is widely used with agile methods to collect user requirements?
User stories
337
What is the formula for Variance at Completion (VAC)?
VAC BAC - EAC
338
Verified Deliverables are an input to this process and Accepted Deliverables an output. Which process is this?
Validate Scope
339
Which process formalizes the acceptance of completed project deliverables?
Validate Scope
340
What are other common names for Value Analysis?
Value Engineering or Value Management
341
What is Future Value (FV)?
Value of an asset at a specific date in future.
342
What is the formula for activity variance?
Variance σ^2 or ((P - O) / 6) ^ 2 where σ is the standard deviation, P the pessimistic estimate and O the optimistic estimate of the activity.
343
Which technique is used for measuring deviation from baseline plans in order to determine the need for preventive or corrective actions?
Variance Analysis
344
Variance Analysis vs Value Analysis
Variance Analysis is a project management technique to assess the magnitude of variance (in scope, time, cost, quality, etc.) from the baseline and determine whether corrective or preventive action is required. Value analysis is a product analysis technique to perform the same work at lesser cost.
345
VAC
Variance at Completion
346
Why are Work Performance Reports an input to the Monitor Risks process?
Variance data, earned value measurements and forecasting data from the Performance Reports are monitored to look for symptoms or warning signs of risks.
347
What are Analytical Techniques?
Various techniques used to evaluate, analyze, or forecast potential outcomes based on possible variations of project or environmental variables and their relationships with other variables. Examples includes Root Cause Analysis, Regression Analysis, and Reserve Analysis.
348
Verification vs Validation
Verification checks whether the product was built right. Validation checks whether the right product was built. Verification is usually an internal process, whereas Validation is external. Verification usually takes place before Validation.
349
What comes as an output from Control Quality and goes as an input to Validate Scope?
Verified Deliverables
350
Verified Deliverable vs Accepted Deliverable
Verified deliverables are the deliverables that have been checked for correctness by the Control Quality process. They are an input to Validate Scope process. Accepted Deliverables are the deliverables that meet the acceptance criteria and have been formally signed off by the customer through the Validate Scope process.
351
Who proposed the Expectancy Theory?
Victor Vroom
352
VOC
Voice of the Customer
353
VUCA
Volatility, Uncertainty, Complexity, Ambiguity
354
Which quality expert developed the 14 steps to Total Quality Management?
W. Edwards Deming
355
What is a Trigger Condition?
Warning sign or symptom that indicates that a risk is about to occur.
356
Name any 3 sources of waste in Lean Manufacturing.
Waste results from overburdened workers, bottlenecks, waiting, handoff, overproduction, wishful thinking, task-switching, defects, and information scatter.
357
What are Predictive life cycles also known as?
Waterfall life cycles
358
Which tool is used to categorize risks by area of project affected?
WBS can be used to categorize risks by area of project affected.
359
WBS is a _____________-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the statement of work of the project.
WBS is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the statement of work of the project.
360
List the project management processes that use WBS as an input.
WBS is not an input to any process! However, Scope Baseline, which includes the Project Scope Statement, WBS, and WBS Dictionary, is an input to several processes such as Define Activities, Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, Identify Risks, and Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.
361
How do we deal with the outcome of Residual Risks?
We put contingency plans in place.
362
What should we do with people with whom we have a conflict or disagreement?
We should approach them directly and try to resolve the conflict or disagreement.
363
Is providing accurate information in a timely manner something that is mandatory or something that we should aspire to do?
We should aspire to provide accurate information in a timely manner.
364
What should we do when we come across individuals who knowingly make false allegations against others?
We should pursue disciplinary action against them.
365
Weighted Average (PERT) vs Simple Average Three-Point Estimating
Weighted Average (PERT) estimate uses Beta distribution whereas Simple Average uses Triangular distribution to calculate the duration or cost estimate. Weighted Average formula is, E (O + 4M + P) / 6 and Simple Average formula is E (O + M + P) / 3, where O is the Optimistic, M is the Most Likely and P is the Pessimistic estimate.
366
Weighting System vs Screening System
Weighting systems are used to rank sellers according to the score assigned to them based on various criteria. Screening systems are used to shortlist sellers, i.e. eliminate those who do not meet certain minimum requirements.
367
What does the Herzberg's theory say about Motivating Factors?
What motivates people is the work itself.
368
When is a process considered to be "out of control"?
When a data point falls outside the control limits or when seven consecutive data points fall on the same side of the mean (either above or below the mean) on a control chart.
369
When are procurements closed?
When all the work on a contract is completed or the contract is terminated before completing the work.
370
When is quality management most effective?
When quality is incorporated into the planning and designing of the project and product, and when organizational culture is aware and committed to quality.
371
When is price the main source selection criterion?
When the product, service or result is readily available in the market from a number of sellers.
372
When is Contract an input to the Develop Project Charter process?
When the project is being done for an external customer.
373
Under what circumstances is a project terminated?
When the project's objectives will not or cannot be met, or when the need for the project no longer exists.
374
When is it particularly important to use a RACI matrix?
When the team consists of internal and external resources (to ensure clear divisions of roles and expectations).
375
When is Analogous estimating used?
When there is limited amount of detailed information on the project.
376
What is the relationship between Accountability, Authority and Responsibility?
With Authority and Responsibility comes Accountability. Accountability Authority + Responsibility
377
Which type of conflict resolution is usually the best when tensions and emotions are high?
Withdrawal
378
WBS
Work Breakdown Structure
379
What is Parkinson's Law?
Work expands to fill the time available for its completion.
380
What is the term for the planned work contained at the lowest level of the WBS?
Work Package
381
What is the output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process that goes as an input to the Control Costs process?
Work Performance Data
382
Work Performance Data is an ____________ (Input or Output) of Executing processes.
Work Performance Data is an output of Executing processes. Note: Work Performance Data is an output of the Direct and Management Project Work process, which integrates the performance data from all the other Executing processes.
383
Work Performance Information is an output of ___________ Process Group.
Work Performance Information is an output of Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.
384
Work Performance Data (WPD) vs Work Performance Information (WPI)
WPD are the raw observations or measurements gathered as work on the project is carried out (e.g. percent completion, quality/technical performance measures, activity start/finish dates, no. of change requests/defects, actual costs/durations, etc.) WPD is processed and analyzed to generate WPI (e.g. status of deliverables/change requests, forecasts, EV measures - SV, CV, SPI, CPI, etc.).
385
What are Questionnaires?
Written sets of questions designed to quickly accumulate information from a large number of respondents.
386
What are the 5 values of Extreme Programming (XP)?
XP is based on values of simplicity, communication, feedback, courage, and respect.
387
Can the Point of Total Assumption (PTA) be higher (or more) than the Ceiling Price?
Yes
388
Can the Point of Total Assumption (PTA) be lower (or less) than the Target Price?
Yes
389
Can the seller be already in losses (profit below zero) at the Point of Total Assumption (PTA)?
Yes
390
Is the Close Project or Phase process needed if the project is terminated before completion?
Yes, it is used to investigate and document the reason for project termination.
391
Can a schedule network have more than one Near-Critical Path?
Yes. Any path with low total float is a near critical path. A schedule network may have more than one path with low total float.
392
What is the Schedule Variance (SV) at the end of a completed project?
Zero
393
In timeboxed iterations, the duration is fixed but the scope can vary. True or False?
TRUE
394
According to Hersey and Blanchard, what are the four basic situational leadership styles?
- S1. / Directing - S2. Selling / Coaching - S3. Participating / Supporting - S4. Delegating / Observing
395
According to McClelland's theory, what are the characteristics of people with need for achievement?
- Seek Recognition - Prefer challenging but achievable Work - Avoid low-Risk and High-Risk situation - Prefer to Work alone or with other High-achievers
396
Approved Change Requests are an input to these processes and Change Requests are an output. Which processes are these?
- Direct and Manage project Work - Control quality - Control Procurements
397
Change Log is an output of which process(es)?
- perform Integrated Change Control - Manage Stakeholder engagement
398
Deliverables produced in the Direct and Manage Project Work process are an input to which process?
- Manage project knowledge - Control quality
399
Give 3 examples of Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) techniques.
- Negotiation - Mediation - Arbitration
400
Give 3 examples of Cost of Conformance.
- quality Training - quality planning - quality Systems
401
Give 3 examples of Cost of Non-Conformance.
- Rework - Scrap - Warranty Costs
402
Give 3 examples of Direct Costs?
- Labor Costs - Materials Costs - Equipment rental Costs
403
Give 3 examples of Interactive Communication.
- Face-to-Face meetings - Teleconferences - Phone calls
404
Give 4 examples of Indirect Costs?
- management Costs - General administration Costs - Building rental - Utility Costs
405
Give 5 examples of Enterprise Environmental Factors.
- Organizational culture - industry standards - Existing infrastructure - Existing human Resources - Marketplace conditions
406
Give at least 3 categories of requirements.
- business Requirements - Stakeholder Requirements - Solution (or Product) Requirements - Transition Requirements - project Requirements - quality Requirements
407
Give at least 3 examples of Pull Communication.
- Web sites - E-Learning Tools - Document repositories
408
Give at least 3 examples of Push Communication.
- Letters - reports - E-mails - Press releases
409
Give at least three examples of risk avoidance.
- Extend the Schedule - Reduce Scope - Cancel the project
410
Give at least three examples of risk mitigation.
- Conducting more tests - Prototyping - Designing redundancy into a System
411
Give at least three examples of risk transference tools.
- Insurance - Performance bonds - Warranties - Agreements
412
Give examples of a few different types of stakes that stakeholders can have.
- Interest - Rights (Legal or moral Rights) - Ownership - knowledge - Contribution
413
Give examples of Business Risk.
- Competitor Activities - Bad weather - Inflation - Recession - Customer Response - Availability of Resources
414
Give examples of External Failure Costs.
- Liabilities - Warranty Work - Lost business
415
Give some examples of Personnel Assessment Tools that a project manager or project team can use.
- Attitudinal surveys - specific Assessments - Structured Interviews - ability tests - Focus groups
416
Give some examples of project stakeholders.
- Customers - End users - sponsor - project management Office (PMO) - project Managers - project team - Functional Managers - Vendors
417
Give three examples of formal written communication.
- a Legal notice - a Change request - a tender
418
Give three examples of intangible elements of business value for business driven organizations.
- Goodwill
- Brand Recognition
- Trademarks
419
Give three examples of tangible elements of business value for business driven organizations.
- Monetary Assets - Fixtures - Stockholder equity
420
Give three examples of techniques to crash a schedule.
- Applying additional man-power to a critical path activity. - Hiring new machinery to expedite a critical path activity. - Devising a more efficient way to perform a critical path activity.
421
Give two examples of business documents used on projects?
- business Case - benefits management Plan
422
Give two examples of formal verbal communication.
- a presentation - a speech
423
Give two examples of informal written communication.
- An email - a hand-Written note
424
How does senior management support projects?
- As project sponsor - In setting objectives and priorities - In planning the project - In resolving conflicts
425
How does senior management support projects? (4)
- As project sponsor - In setting objectives and priorities - In planning the project - In resolving conflicts
426
In order to be the most effective, project managers need to have a balance of which three skill sets?
- technical project management - Leadership - business intelligence (Strategic and business management)
427
In which organizational structure(s), the project has full-time administrative staff?
- project-oriented - Strong Matrix
428
In which process(es) are you likely to use Affinity Diagrams?
- Collect Requirements
- Manage quality
429
In which process(es) is Cost of Quality considered?
- Estimate Costs - Plan quality management
430
In which process(es) is Critical Path Method (CPM) used?
- Develop Schedule - Control Schedule
431
In which process(es) would you employ Networking?
- Manage project knowledge - Manage Communications - Manage Stakeholder engagement
432
In which process(es) would you use Contract Management Systems?
- Plan procurement management - Conduct Procurements
433
In which processes are inspections performed?
- Validate Scope - Control quality - Control Procurements
434
In which processes are simulations and modeling techniques used?
- Develop Schedule - perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
435
In which processes are you likely to use Focus Groups?
- Develop project Charter - Develop project management Plan - Collect Requirements
436
In which processes do you apply leads and lags?
- Sequence Activities - Develop Schedule - Control Schedule
437
List any 3 data gathering techniques that can be used to identify project and product requirements.
- Brainstorming - Interviews - Focus groups - Questionnaires and surveys - Benchmarking
438
List at least 4 Product Analysis techniques.
- Product breakdown - Systems Analysis - Requirements Analysis - Systems engineering - value engineering - value Analysis
439
List the processes that have Resource Calendars as output.
- Control Schedule - Acquire Resources - Develop team - Conduct Procurements
440
List the processes that use Resource Breakdown Structure as an input.
- Manage project knowledge - Estimate Activity Durations - Control Resources
441
List the steps to build project resilience in dealing with emergent risks.
- Include Budget and Schedule contingency for emergent Risks - Flexible project processes, including Strong Change management - Empowering project team - Frequent Review of warning signs - Stakeholder buy-In to adjust Scope and strategy In Response to emergent Risks
442
List the various methods of reaching a group decision.
- Voting - Autocratic Decision making - Multicriteria Decision Analysis
443
Name all the Project Communications Management processes.
- Plan Communications management
- Manage Communications
- Monitor Communications
444
Name all the Project Cost Management processes.
- Plan Cost management - Estimate Costs - Determine Budget - Control Costs
445
Name all the Project Integration Management processes.
- Develop project Charter - Develop project management Plan - Direct and Manage project Work - Manage project knowledge - Monitor and Control project Work - perform Integrated Change Control - Close project or Phase
446
Name all the Project Procurement Management processes.
- Plan procurement management - Conduct Procurements - Control Procurements
447
Name all the Project Quality Management processes.
- Plan quality management - Manage quality - Control quality
448
Name all the Project Resource Management processes.
- Plan Resource management - Estimate Activity Resources - Acquire Resources - Develop team - Manage team - Control Resources
449
Name all the Project Risk Management processes.
- Plan Risk management - Identify Risks - perform Qualitative Risk Analysis - perform Quantitative Risk Analysis - Plan Risk Responses - Implement Risk Responses - Monitor Risks
450
Name all the Project Schedule Management processes.
- Plan Schedule management
- Define Activities
- Sequence Activities
- Estimate Activity Durations
- Develop Schedule
- Control Schedule
451
Name all the Project Scope Management processes.
- Plan Scope management - Collect Requirements - Define Scope - Create WBS - Validate Scope - Control Scope
452
Name all the Project Stakeholder Management processes.
- Identify Stakeholders - Plan Stakeholder engagement - Manage Stakeholder engagement - Monitor Stakeholder engagement
453
Name any 3 interpersonal and team skills used for helping teams and individuals accomplish project activities?
- Active Listening - conflict management - Emotional intelligence - Facilitation - Leadership - Meeting management
454
Name any five tools and techniques of the Develop Schedule process.
- Schedule Network Analysis - critical path Method - Resource Optimization - Data Analysis - Leads and Lags - Schedule Compression - PMIS - Agile Release planning
455
Name any one data analysis tool used in the Identify Stakeholders process.
- Stakeholder Analysis - Document Analysis
456
Name any three estimation techniques used for estimating activity durations?
- Analogous Estimating - Parametric Estimating - Three-Point Estimating - Bottom-Up Estimating
457
Name any three leadership skills that a project manager should possess?
- Negotiation - Resilience - communication - Problem solving - critical thinking - Interpersonal skills
458
Name at least 2 processes which use Work Performance Reports as an input.
- perform Integrated Change Control - Manage team - Manage Communications - Monitor Risks
459
Name at least 3 interpersonal and team skills to manage a project team.
- conflict management - Decision making - Emotional intelligence - Influencing - Leadership
460
Name at least 3 tools and techniques used in the Determine Budget process.
- Expert Judgment
- Cost Aggregation
- Reserve Analysis
- Historical Information Review
- Funding Limit Reconciliation
- Financing
461
Name at least 3 tools and techniques used in the Develop Team process.
- Interpersonal and team skills - Training - Virtual teams - meetings - Colocation - Recognition and rewards - Individual and team Assessments
462
Name at least three Executing processes that can result in change requests.
- Direct and Manage project Work - Manage quality - Acquire Resources - Manage team - Implement Risk Responses - Conduct Procurements - Manage Stakeholder engagement
463
Name the 2 data representation techniques that can be used to collect requirements.
- Affinity Diagrams - Mind Mapping
464
Name the different powers of a Project Manager.
- Legitimate (or Formal)
- Reward
- Punitive (or Coercive)
- Expert
- Referent
465
Name the five different types of development life cycles.
- Predictive - Iterative - Incremental - Adaptive (Agile, Iterative, or Incremental) - Hybrid (Predictive and Adaptive)
466
Name the important communication skills for a project manager?
- Listening - Questioning - Educating - Fact-finding - setting and managing expectations - Persuading - Negotiating - resolving conflict
467
Name the Process Groups which have the Project Management Plan or one of its subsidiary plans as an input to all their processes.
- Executing - Monitoring and controlling - Closing
468
Name the Project Cost Management process(es) under the Planning Process Group.
- Plan Cost management - Estimate Costs - Determine Budget
469
Name the Project Integration Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group.
- Direct and Manage project Work - Manage project knowledge
470
Name the Project Integration Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.
- Monitor and Control project Work - perform Integrated Change Control
471
Name the Project Resource Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group.
- Acquire Resources - Develop team - Manage team
472
Name the Project Resource Management process(es) under the Planning Process Group.
- Plan Resource management - Estimate Activity Resources
473
Name the Project Risk Management process(es) under the Planning Process Group.
- Plan Risk management - Identify Risks - perform Qualitative Risk Analysis - perform Quantitative Risk Analysis - Plan Risk Responses
474
Name the Project Schedule Management processes under the Planning Process Group.
- Plan Schedule management - Define Activities - Sequence Activities - Estimate Activity Durations - Develop Schedule
475
Name the Project Scope Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.
- Validate Scope - Control Scope
476
Name the Project Scope Management processes under the Planning Process Group.
- Plan Scope management - Collect Requirements - Define Scope - Create WBS
477
Name the two Initiating processes.
- Develop project Charter - Identify Stakeholders
478
Name three common strategic frameworks suitable for identifying sources of overall project risk.
- PESTLE (political, Economic, Social, technological, Legal, Environmental)
- TECOP (technical, Environmental, commercial, Operational, political)
- VUCA (volatility, uncertainty, complexity, Ambiguity)
479
Name three hierarchical charts used in Project Resource Management?
- Work breakdown structure (WBS) - Organizational breakdown structure (OBS) - Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
480
Name two processes which use Three-Point Estimating?
- Estimate Activity Durations
- Estimate Costs
481
Pre-Assignment and Negotiation are two tools and techniques of the Acquire Resources process. Name at least one more technique of this process.
- Virtual teams - Multicriteria Decision Analysis
482
Quality Metrics are an input to which process(es)?
- Manage quality - Control quality
483
Root Cause Analysis is usually performed in which processes?
- Monitor and Control project Work - Manage quality - Control quality - Identify Risks - Plan Stakeholder engagement - Manage Stakeholder engagement
484
What are Agreements also referred to as?
- Contracts - Purchase orders - Memoranda of Agreements (MOAs) - Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
485
What are bid documents comprised of?
- procurement statement of Work - description of Response format - Any other contractual Requirements
486
What are Bidder conferences also known as?
- Contractor conferences - Vendor conferences - Pre-Bid conferences
487
What are Inspections also known as?
- reviews - Product reviews - Walkthroughs
488
What are Kill Points also referred to as?
- Stage Gates - Phase Gates - Phase Exits - Decision Gates
489
What are some of the strategic considerations or triggers for authorizing a project?
- Market demand - Strategic opportunity/business need - Social need - Environmental consideration - Customer request - new Technology - Legal requirement
490
What are some of the strategic considerations or triggers for authorizing a project? (7 MSSECNL)
- Market demand - Strategic opportunity/business need - Social need - Environmental consideration - Customer request - new Technology - Legal requirement
491
What are the 2 categories of product requirements?
- Functional Requirements (features and functions) - Non-Functional Requirements (Performance, security, reliability, etc.)
492
What are the 2 key inputs from stakeholder management processes to the Manage Communications process?
- Stakeholder Register - Stakeholder engagement Plan
493
What are the 3 pillars of empirical process control in the Scrum framework?
- Transparency - Inspection - Adaptation
494
What are the 3 primary forms of organizational structures?
- Functional - Matrix - Projectized
495
What are the 3 types of communication methods?
- Interactive communication - Push communication - Pull communication
496
What are the 3 types of Matrix organizations?
- Weak Matrix - Balanced Matrix - Strong Matrix
497
What are the 4 core values that are most important to the project management community?
- Responsibility - Respect - Fairness - Honesty
498
What are the 4 D's of Delegation?
- Drop (what can be dropped?) - Delay (what can be delayed?) - Delegate (what can be delegated?) - Do (what must I do?)
499
What are the 4 main aspects of any Configuration Management System?
- Configuration Identification
- Configuration Control
- Configuration Status Accounting
- Configuration Verification and Audit
500
What are the 5 key components of a basic communication model?
- Encode - Transmit message - Decode - Acknowledge - Feedback/Response
