Deck 2 Flashcards

(76 cards)

1
Q

when do you develop IgA nephropathy after infection

A

can be within days, doesnt have to be long time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

HIV associated neurocognifitve dysfunction vs. PML imaging

A

neurocognitive dysfunction has diffuse white matter changes and PML is multifocal white matter changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is acute chest syndrome

A

this is vasoocclusion of pulmonary vasculature due to fat embolus (adults) or infection (kids) for people with sickle cell anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

treatment of acute chest syndrome

A

ceftriaxone and azithromycin (because you cannot exclude pneumonia) , pain control, IV fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

is tetanus a clinical dx or do you need toxin assay

A

clinical dx, toxin assay not widely available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

when should you do phlebotomy for a person with hereditary hemachromatosis

A

> 1000 ferritin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

clinical findings in behcets disease

A

recurrent painful oral ulcers, erythema nodosum, uveitis, genital ulcers, thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the common drugs that cause neutropenia

A

methimazole, PTU, clozapine, sulfasalazine, TMP-SMX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

when do you do valve replacement for AS

A

Severe AS and <50% EF OR symptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what should you do to avoid hypercapnea in a COPD exacerbation

A

titrate O2 to 88-92%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

histo chest xray

A

reticulonodular opacities or interstitial infiltrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what can cause serum sickness

A

snake antivenom, antitoxin or mAbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

clinical signs of serum sickness

A

urticaria, fever, painful arthralgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what type of hypersensitivity is serum sickness

A

this is type III so it is immune complex deposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what drug do you use for chemo vomiting

A

odansetron (serotonin antagonist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which lung cancer gives the side effect of hypercalcemia

A

squamous cell paraneoplastic syndrome of Parathyroid hormone related hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

why do patients with alcohol use disorder have refractory hypokalemia

A

due to hypomagnesia because magnesium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what helminth causes hydatid cysts

A

echinococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

where do you get echinococcus

A

dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia

A

this is when you have a mutation in the calcium sensing receptor in theparathyroid so the parathyroid doesnt sense elevated calcium and the kidney continues to reabsorb more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which is methylmalonic acid also low in folate or B12 deficiency

A

B12 has both low methylmalonic acid and homocysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

does AML make you hypercoaguable or cause DIC

A

causes DIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what does addisons do to eosinophil count

A

it causes eosinophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

A

this is when you have a b cell malignancy that causes excess IgM production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
clinical signs of waldenstrom
hyperviscosity, neuropathy, hepatosplenomegaly, bleeding, lymphadenopathy
26
what is the rash like in secondary syph
macupapular
27
what CT do you do for trauma
CT w/out contrast to see bleeds
28
signs of bubo
painful lymphadenopathy with overlying erythema
29
when do you get the bubo for chancroid and lymphogranuloma venirium
weeks after the painful ulcer
30
is actinomyces acid fast
no it is not
31
which organisms are acid fast
nocardia and mycobacterium
32
what are the side effects of antithyroid drugs
neutropenia, PTU- fulminant hepatic necrosis, Methimazole- teratogenic
33
what staphs are in the viridans group
sanguinis, mitis, mutans, milleri
34
what antibodies are present in systemic sclerosis
anti topoisomerase, anti centormere
35
in the hospital what do you want sugars to be
140-180
36
what type of lesions are sclerotic (blastic) vs. osteolytic in the spine
sclerotic: prostate CA and SCLC // osteolytic: multiple myeloma, thyroid, melanoma, NSCLC // mixed: breast and GI CA
37
when do you treat for uremic pericarditis
>60BUN
38
signs of neutorpenia
oral ulcerations, fever, sore throat
39
what cell lines are elevated in polycythemia vera
all of them but especially the RBCs
40
what is infectious keratitis
this is inflammation and infection of the cornea
41
signs of HSV keratitis
branched dendritic ulcerations
42
which multiple endocrine neoplasias have medullary thyroid
2a and 2b
43
what causes elevated eosinophils
parasitic infection, neoplasms, allergy, aspergillus, low cortisol
44
treatment of ethylene glycol poisoning
fomepizole or ethanol if fomepizole is not available
45
treatment of organophosphate poisoning
atropine and pralodoxime
46
what causes the HTN in hyperthyroidism
elevated myocyte contractility
47
what should a patient be put on for aspiration pneumonia
amox // doxy // macrolide
48
what does the icepack test dx
myasthenia gravis
49
sign of massive PE
syncope, hemodynamic collapse, elevated JVP, hypotension due to decreased cardiac output, diaphoresis
50
what type of cardiomyopathy does alcohol cause
dilated cardiomyopathy
51
what is primary biliary cholangitis
autoimmune destruction of the intrahepatic ducts
52
what Ab is associated with primary biliary cholangitis
antimitocondrial
53
what are the complications of primary biliary cholangitis
fat soluble vitamin malabsorption, ostoemalacia, hepatocellular carcinoma
54
what does it mean if haptoglobin is low
this means that there is hemolysis because hemoglobin binds to the haptoglobin and causes it to precipitate
55
what is intravascular vs. extravascular hemolysis
intravascular is when there is damage to the RBC in vessels and extravascular is in the spleen or lymph nodes
56
what should the FiO2 be in an intubated patient
it should be <60%
57
what is FiO2
this is the percent of inhaled air that is oxygen, normal room air is 21%
58
what is sporothrix
dimorphic fungi,
59
signs of sporothrix infection
painless pruritic nodules that ulcerate and drain a nonpurulent exudate
60
what is rhizopus
this is what causes mucor mycosis
61
how should you treat patients with WPW and afib
they need rhythm control not rate bc blocking their AV node can worsen their WPW so you do procainamide or ibutilide
62
when do you start getting LVH due to aortic stenosis
when valve is less than 1cm2
63
what can happen with longterm uncontrolled afib
tachycardia induced cardiomyopathy which is due to LV dilation and cardiomyocyte damage
64
what type of diarrhea do you get with SIBO
greasy
65
treatment of frostbite
rapid rewarming in water, pain relief, wound care
66
what does the eye look like for anterior uveitis
conjectival injection, hazy flare in aqueous humor
67
what is anterior uveitis associated with
IBD, akylosing spondyloarthritis, etc
68
associated symptoms with glaucoma
nausea, vomiting, headache, photophobia
69
how soon do you need to start HIV PEP
as soon as possible like within 4 hours
70
does a release of information have to be written
no it can be verbal or written
71
risk factors for crypto
contaminated water, immunocompromised
72
signs of crypto
Prolonged, severe diarrhea with weight loss/malabsorption
73
popliteal cyst and OA
they can develop together, if a patient has a fluctuant swelling behind the knee this is what that is
74
signs of chronic arsenic poisoning
Chronic: hypo-/hyperpigmentation, hyperkeratosis, stocking-glove neuropathy
75
common sources of arsenic
Pesticides/insecticides, Contaminated water (often from wells), Pressure-treated wood
76
signs of microscopic colitis on biopsy
mononuclear inflammatory infiltrate within the lamina propria, thickened collagen band