Deck 3 Flashcards
Get That MONEY!!! (200 cards)
1
Q
Pass and Advanced
- When is a computer system operating in the multilevel security mode?
A
When it provides a capability permitting various categories and types of classified materials to be stored and processed concurrently in a computer system and permitting selective access to such material concurrently by un-cleared users and users having differing security clearances and need-to-know.
2
Q
Pass and Advanced
- When is a computer system operating in the controlled security mode?
A
When at least some personnel (users) with access to the system have neither a security clearance nor a need-to-know for all classified material then contained in the computer system.
3
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What data is unclassified data that requires special protection?
A
Sensitive unclassified data.
4
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What Act imposes numerous requirements upon federal agencies to prevent the misuse of data about individuals, respect its confidentiality, and preserve its integrity?
A
The Privacy Act of 1974.
5
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What are the major provisions of the Privacy Act that most directly involve computer security?
A
Limiting disclosure of personal information to authorized persons and agencies; requiring accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness of records; and requiring the use of safeguards to ensure the confidentiality and security of records.
6
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What has the Navy established to assure protection for AIS processing of sensitive unclassified data?
A
The limited AIS access security mode. ‘
7
Q
Pass and Advanced
- When is a computer system or network operating in the limited access security mode?
A
When the type of data being processed is categorized as unclassified and requires the implementation of special access controls to restrict the access to the data only to individuals who by their job function have a need to access the data.
8
Q
Pass and Advanced
- Why is AIS media protection important?
A
Because it is where data, information and programs are stored.
9
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What does the amount of protection depend on?
A
The classification of data, the type of AIS storage media used, the value of the material on it, and the ease with which the material can be replaced or regenerated.
10
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What items are considered AIS media?
A
Magnetic tapes, disks, diskettes, disk packs, drums, cathode-ray tube (CRT) displays, hard copy (paper), core storage, mass memory stoarage, printer ribbons, carbon paper, and computer output microfilm and microfiche.
11
Q
Pass and Advanced
- For purposes of control, AIS media can be divided into what two types or categories?
A
Work copy media and finished media.
12
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What media is temporary in nature?
A
Work copy media.
13
Q
Pass and Advanced
- How long is working copy media retained?
A
180 days.
14
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What procedures are designed to ensure that an adequate level of protection is provided?
A
Your activity?s standard operating procedures (SOPs).
15
Q
Pass and Advanced
- Why is it important for your activity to have procedures for making AIS media?
A
To protect the media from unauthorized, accidental, or intentional disclosure, modification, destruction, or loss.
16
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What must each magnetic tape, diskette, and disk pack be externally marked with?
A
A stick-on label with the overall security classification and a permanently assigned identification number.
17
Q
Pass and Advanced
- When the tapes, diskettes, and disk packs are to be declassified by degaussing, when are all external labels indicating the classification not removed?
A
Not unless the media will be immediately used to store information of the same classification.
18
Q
Pass and Advanced
- To what degree must the media be destroyed?
A
Beyond recognition.
19
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What provides the basis for an AIS security program?
A
The risk analysis and higher authority instructions.
20
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What are the steps to take that will help in planning an AIS security program?
A
Perform preliminary planning, perform a preliminary risk analysis, select and implement urgent ?quick fix? security measures, perform and document a detailed risk analysis, justify costs and document action plans, carry out the approved action plans, and repeat the detailed risk analysis and subsequent steps regularly, at least annually.
21
Q
Pass and Advanced
- How can the AIS technical manager determine what changes, if any, should be made in the security program to keep it effective?
A
By evaluating changes in command mission, the local environment, the hardware configuration, and tasks performed.
22
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What should you have a thorough knowledge of before implementing any security plan?
A
How numerous higher authority instructions relate to physical security, data protection, and security in general.
23
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What are the instructions and manuals you can refer to in learning about AIS security and when making security decisions?
A
The Department of the Navy Automatic Data Processing Security, OPNAVINST 5239.1 with enclosures, Guidelines for Automatic Data Processing Risk Analysis, FIPS PUB 65 (enclosure 3 to OPNAVINST 5239.1), Department of the Navy Information Security Program Regulation, SECNAVINST 5510.36, and Department of the Navy Information Systems Security (INFOSEC) Program, SECNAVINST 5239.3.
24
Q
Pass and Advanced
- When planning a security program, what things should the AIS technical manager be aware of?
A
The types of threats that may be encountered.
25
# Pass and Advanced
425. What should the AIS facility upper management begin development of the security program with?
A risk analysis.
26
# Pass and Advanced
426. What is a risk analysis as related to AIS security?
The study of potential hazards that could threaten the performance, integrity, and normal operations of an AIS facility.
27
# Pass and Advanced
427. What is the first step to consider when preparing the risk analysis?
Estimate the potential losses to which the AIS facility is exposed.
28
# Pass and Advanced
428. What is the objective of the loss potential estimate?
To identify critical aspects of the AIS facility operation and to place a monetary value on the loss estimate.
29
# Pass and Advanced
429. What is the second step of the risk analysis?
Evaluate the threats to the AIS facility.
30
# Pass and Advanced
430. What is the third step in the risk analysis?
Combine the estimates of the value of potential loss and probability of loss to develop an estimate of annual loss expectancy.
31
# Pass and Advanced
431. What is the criteria to use when selecting specific remedial measures?
The annual cost is to be less than the reduction in expected annual loss that could be caused by threats, and 2) The mix of remedial measures selected is to be the one having the lowest total cost.
32
# Pass and Advanced
432. What should be a key part of the AIS faciIity?s security program?
Fire safety.
33
# Pass and Advanced
433. What elements should fire safety include?
Location, design, construction, and maintenance of the AIS facility to minimize the exposure to fire damage, measures to ensure prompt detection of and response to a fire emergency, provision for quick human intervention and adequate means to extinguish tires; and provision of adequate means and personnel to limit damage and effect prompt recovery.
34
# Pass and Advanced
434. What is the first factor to consider in evaluating the fire safety of an AIS facility?
The tire exposure results from the nature of the occupancy (material) of adjacent buildings and the AIS facility building.
35
# Pass and Advanced
435. What does the degree of hazard associated with a given occupancy (material) depend on?
The amount of combustible materials, the ease with which they can be ignited, and the likelihood of a source of ignition.
36
# Pass and Advanced
436. What are the second and third fire safety factors?
The design and construction of the building.
37
# Pass and Advanced
437. What is the approximate destruction time of a heavy timber construction?
l plus hours.
38
# Pass and Advanced
438. What is the approximate destruction time of a wood frame construction?
Minutes.
39
# Pass and Advanced
439. What is the fourth factor in fire safety?
The way in which the building is operated.
40
# Pass and Advanced
440. What should be taken into consideration in the location and spacing of an effective fire detection system?
The direction and velocity of air flow, the presence of areas with stagnant air, and the location of equipment and other potential tire sites.
41
# Pass and Advanced
441. Fire extinguishment may be accomplished by using what four methods?
Portable or hand extinguishers, hose lines, automatic sprinkler systems, or volume extinguishant systems.
42
# Pass and Advanced
442. What is the minimum temperature required to activate an automatic sprinkler system?
13 5?F .
43
# Pass and Advanced
443. To ensure the effectiveness of portable extinguishers, what are the measures to be observed?
Extinguishers should be placed in readily accessible locations, not in corners or behind equipment, each location should be marked for rapid identification, and each extinguisher should have inspection tags.
44
# Pass and Advanced
444. What are power fluctuations, usually caused by inclement weather, that causes unpredictable results on hardware, logic, and data transfer referred to as?
Transients.
45
# Pass and Advanced
445. How can the effects of internal transients be minimized?
By isolating the AIS hardware from other facility loads.
46
# Pass and Advanced
446. If the AIS facility is in a remote area, what is usually required as a backup power source?
An uninterrupted power supply (UPS).
47
# Pass and Advanced
447. Depending on the ampere-hour capacity of the battery (or batteries), how long can the UPS support its load without the prime power source?
A maximum of 45 minutes.
48
# Pass and Advanced
448. If the risk analysis shows a major loss from power outages lasting 30 to 45 minutes or beyond, what can be installed?
An onsite generator.
49
# Pass and Advanced
449. Is the physical protection of an AIS facility as stringent for an AIS facility that processes unclassified data as it is for an AIS facility that processes classified data?
No.
50
# Pass and Advanced
450. When the threat analysis indicates the need to protect the property boundary of the AIS facility, how can this be accomplished?
By installing fences or other physical barriers, outside lighting, or perimeter intrusion detectors, or by using a patrol force.
51
# Pass and Advanced
451. What should be taken into account in evaluating the need for perimeter protection?
The possibility that electromagnetic or acoustic emanations from AIS hardware may be intercepted.
52
# Pass and Advanced
452. What system provides a means of detecting and announcing proximity or intrusion that endangers or may endanger the security of a command?
The intnision detection system (IDS).
53
# Pass and Advanced
453. What are the physical and personnel security requirements for the central computer facility area based upon?
The overall requirements of the total AIS system.
54
# Pass and Advanced
454. What are the remote terminal area requirements based upon?
The highest classified and most restrictive category and type of material that will be accessed through the terminal under system constraints.
55
# Pass and Advanced
455. The approval and authority to authorize temporary exceptions to security measures for the DOD component?s system in the network requires how many components?
Two.
56
# Pass and Advanced
456. What person conducts au annual security survey of the AIS facility area?
The AIS technical manager.
57
# Pass and Advanced
457. What is prepared and executed for the accomplishment of the command?s specific mission?
Operation plans and the command?s organizational manual.
58
# Pass and Advanced
458. What are the three types of contingency plans that make up a COOP security program for an AIS facility?
Emergency response, backup operations, and recovery.
59
# Pass and Advanced
459. In reference to AIS security, what term is used to refer to steps taken immediately after an emergency occurs to protect life and property and to minimize the impact of the emergency?
Emergency response planning.
60
# Pass and Advanced
460. If evacuation of work are as is ordered or likely, how should all personnel be instructed?
1)Put working papers and other unclassified material in desks or file cabinets and close them, 2) Turn off equipment, but leave room lights on, and 3) Close doors as areas are evacuated, but ensure that locks and bolts are not secured.
61
# Pass and Advanced
461. What should be defined in the loss control plan? `
The steps to be taken, assign responsibilities for general and specific steps, and provide any needed materials and equipment in handy locations.
62
# Pass and Advanced
462. What factors should be considered to evaluate alternate backup modes and offsite facilities?
AIS hardware usage, transportation of military and civil service personnel with needed supplies and materials, maintenance personnel at the offsite location, and overtime cost factor for civil service personnel.
63
# Pass and Advanced
463. What is a plan for backup operation that is not expected to extend much beyond the cause of delay which forces a shift to the backup operation?
Minimum duration plan.
64
# Pass and Advanced
464. What is a plan for backup operation for as long as it takes to reconstruct the AIS facility after total destruction?
A worst-case plan.
65
# Pass and Advanced
465. Each COOP backup plan should cover what five basic areas?
Performance specifications, user instructions, technical requirements for each AIS task, computer system specifications, and administrative information.
66
# Pass and Advanced
466. What should be the final element of the AIS security program for every naval AIS facility?
A review or inspection process.
67
# Pass and Advanced
467. What are the major factors to consider in determining the frequency of internal inspections?
The frequency of external inspections, the rate of change of the AIS, the amount and adequacy of controls, the threats that face the facility, the results of previous inspections, and the directions of higher authority.
68
# Pass and Advanced
468. What is one of the main principles in selecting an inspection team?
Members should not be responsible for AIS operations.
69
# Pass and Advanced
469. What does the size of the inspection team depend upon?
The size of the facility and the scope of the inspection.
70
# Pass and Advanced
470. What must be developed to properly conduct an internal inspection of security?
A comprehensive inspection plan.
71
# Pass and Advanced
471. What is the first step of an inspection plan?
To examine the security policy for the AIS facility.
72
# Pass and Advanced
472. What type of inspection is designed to test on a no-notice basis certain elements of security and control?
A surprise inspection. -
73
# Pass and Advanced
473. When a scheduled inspection is conducted, what is normally the first step?
. An interview with AIS personnel.
74
# Pass and Advanced
474. When is a good time for the inspection team to convene to review progress and to compare notes?
At the end of each day?s activity.
75
# Pass and Advanced
475. What information is included in the inspection report?
An executive summary, a description of the inspection, a detailed report of observations made, conclusions drawn from the observations, and recommendations for corrective actions, as appropriate. t
76
# Pass and Advanced
476. Who is responsible for implementing an inspection follow-up?
The commanding officer (CO) of the command.
77
# Pass and Advanced
477. What instruction provides guidelines for use by all Navy organizations in implementing any security safeguards that they must adopt to implement the Privacy Act?
The Department of the Navy Information Systems Security (INFOSEC) Program, SECNAVINST 5239.3.
78
# Pass and Advanced
478. What instruction implements the Privacy Act and personal privacy and rights of individuals regarding their personal records?
The Department ofthe Navy Privacy Act (PA) Program, SECNAVINST 5211.5.
79
# Pass and Advanced
479. Who is responsible for administering and supervising the execution of the Privacy Act and SECNAVINST 5211.5 within the Department of the Navy and is designated as the principal Privacy Act coordinator for the Department of the Navy?
The Chief of Naval Operations.
80
# Pass and Advanced
480. What is data integrity?
The state existing when data agrees with the source from which it is derived, and when it has not been either accidentally or maliciously altered, disclosed, or destroyed.
81
# Pass and Advanced
481. What is data security?
The protection of data from accidental or intentional, but unauthorized, modification, destruction, or disclosure.
82
# Pass and Advanced
482. Safeguards that provide data protection are grouped into what three categories?
Physical security measures, information management practices, and computer system/network security controls.
83
# Pass and Advanced
483. What is the first step toward improving a system?s security?
To determine its security risks.
84
# Pass and Advanced
484. What three ways does a personal data security risk assessment benefits a command?
It provides a basis for deciding whether additional security safeguards are needed for personal data; it ensures that additional security safeguards help to counter all the serious personal data security risks; and it saves money that might have been wasted on safeguards that do not significantly lower the overall data risks and exposures.
85
# Pass and Advanced
485. What is the goal of a risk assessment?
To identify and prioritize those events that would compromise the integrity and confidentiality of personal data.
86
# Pass and Advanced
486. What does the seriousness of a risk depend on?
Both the potential impact of the event and its probability of occurrence.
87
# Pass and Advanced
487. What individuals should make up the risk assessment team?
A representative of the operating facility supported by or having jurisdiction over the data under consideration, the programmer responsible for support of the operation or function under consideration, a representative from the facility responsible for managing AIS operations, a system programmer (if the command has system programmers in a separate functional area), a computer specialist assigned the responsibility for overseeing or inspecting system security; and the individual responsible for security.
88
# Pass and Advanced
488. What are the most commonly encountered security risks?
Accidents, errors, and omissions.
89
# Pass and Advanced
489. Commands designing large computer networks should consider what risks early in the planning stage?
Misidentified access, operating system flaws, subverting programs, spoofing, and eavesdropping.
90
# Pass and Advanced
490. What techniques and procedures do information management practices refer to?
Those used to control the many operations performed on information to accomplish the com1nand?s objectives.
91
# Pass and Advanced
491. What publication can you refer to for knowledge of personal identification and identification techniques?
The Guidelines on Evaluation of Techniques for Automated Personal Identification, FIPS PUB 48.
92
# Pass and Advanced
492. What instruction contains guidelines for identification and access?
The Department of the Navy Information Security Program (ISP) Regulation, SECNA V1NST55I 0.36 (formerly OPNAVINST 5510.1).
93
# Pass and Advanced
493. What are compromising emanations (CE)?
Unintentional data-related or intelligence-bearing signals, also referred to as ?TEMPEST?
94
# Pass and Advanced
494. What determines the vulnerability ofa ship, aircraft, shore station, transportable equipment, or a contractor facility?
A TEMPEST Vulnerability Assessment.
95
# Pass and Advanced
495. What TEMPEST Vulnerability Assessment factors create vulnerability?
Susceptibility, environment, and threat.
96
# Pass and Advanced
496. What must be submitted prior to processing classified data?
A Tempest Vulnerability Assessment Request (T VAR).
97
# Pass and Advanced
497. Is a TVAR required from any ship?
No.
98
# Pass and Advanced
498. What is used to prevent an enemy from detecting, identifying, and locating friendly forces?
Emission control (EMCON).
99
# Pass and Advanced
499. For lT?s, what does EMCON usually mean?
Either full radio silence or HF EMCON.
100
# Pass and Advanced
500. What does the degree of security of spaces aboard ship and areas within a shore activity depend upon?
Its purpose and the nature of the work, information, equipment, or materials concerned.
101
# Pass and Advanced
501. When may persons who have not been cleared for access to the information contained within an area, be admitted into an area?
When they are controlled by an escort at all times.
102
# Pass and Advanced
502. Who is responsible for controlling access to restricted areas?
The commanding officer or the officer in charge over security spaces.
103
# Pass and Advanced
S03. Does anyone have a right to have access to classified information or spaces based solely on clearance, rank, or position?
No.
104
# Pass and Advanced
504. What is used to record the arrival and departure of authorized personnel whose names do not appear on the access list?
A communications center visitors log (or register).
105
# Pass and Advanced
505. What personnel may have access to NATO messages?
Only those personnel who hold a security clearance equal to or greater than the clearance required for U.S. material.
106
# Pass and Advanced
506. What instruction is the authority for the proper handling, storage, accounting, classification, and clearances of NATO material?
NATO Security Procedures (U), OPNAVINST C5510. 101.
107
# Pass and Advanced
507. Who does the final responsibility for determining whether a person is granted access to a security area rest upon?
The individual who has the authorized possession, knowledge, or control ofthe information involved and not upon the prospective recipient.
108
# Pass and Advanced
508. What should you do if you find an open and unattended container or cabinet containing classified matter?
Report it to the senior duty officer; do not touch the container or contents, but guard them until the duty officer arrives.
109
# Pass and Advanced
509. How often must the combinations of security containers containing classified information be changed?
At least every 2 years, unless more frequent change is dictated by the type of material stored within.
110
# Pass and Advanced
510. When Top Security, Secret, and Confidential classification markings are used in a document, where should they be placed?
At the top and bottom center of each page.
111
# Pass and Advanced
511. What is the symbol used to indicate paragraph classification for Top Secret?
TS.
112
# Pass and Advanced
512. What is the symbol used to indicate paragraph classification for Confidential?
C.
113
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513. What is the marking ?Restricted Data? (RD) applied to?
All data concerned with the design, manufacture, or use of nuclear weapons, also the special nuclear material used in energy production.
114
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514. What does the marking ?Formerly Restricted Data? (FRD) pertain to?
Defense information that has been removed from the RD category but must still be safeguarded as classified defense information.
115
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515. When can FRD material be released to foreign nationals?
Under specific international agreement.
116
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516. What messages is the LIMDIS designator applied to?
Only classified messages which, because of the subject matter, require limited distribution within the addressed activity.
117
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517. What is the designation used on official information not requiring a security classification but which must be withheld and protected from public release?
FOUO (For Official Use Only).
118
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518. When is the special designation EFTO not required on unclassified messages?
When the unclassified messages are addressed exclusively among Navy, Marine Corps, and Coast Guard commands.
119
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519. What marking means special category?
SPECAT.
120
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520. What is the marking applied when message distribution must be limited to the named recipient?
PERSONAL FOR.
121
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521. What personnel may originate PERSONAL FOR messages?
Only flag officers, officers in a command status, or their designated representatives.
122
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522. Does the United States have a security classification equivalent to NATO RESTRICTED?
No.
123
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523. Since the United States does not have a security classification equivalent to ALLIED RESTRICTED, how are these messages handled?
In the same manner as Confidential messages.
124
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524. What functions do the accounting and control of classified messages serve?
Limit dissemination; prevent unnecessary reproduction; and determine the oice or person normally responsible for the security of the material.
125
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525. Who is responsible for the command?s overall security program, which includes the security of classified information, personnel security, and the command?s security education program?
Security manager.
126
# Pass and Advanced
526. Who appoints the security manager?
The commanding officer.
127
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527. Who is responsible for the receipt, custody, accounting, and disposition of Top Secret material in the command?
Top Secret Control Officer (TSCO).
128
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528. Who is responsible to the security manager for the protection of classified information processed in the automated system?
The information System Security Officer (ISSO).
129
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529. What is the individual called who has possession of or is charged with the responsibility for safeguarding and accounting for classified material or information?
The ?custodian? of that material or information.
130
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530. What type of material does classified material exclude?
Communications security (COMSEC) material.
131
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531. What document may he used to record destruction of Top Secret material?
OPNAV form 5511/12, or any other record which includes complete identification of the material, number of copies destroyed, date of destruction, and personnel completing destruction.
132
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532. How long are the records of the destruction retained?
2 years.
133
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533. When may Top Secret documents be reproduced?
Only when granted permission of the originator or higher authority.
134
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534. What form is attached to Top Secret material that circulates within a command or activity?
A Record of Disclosure, OPNAV Form 5511/13.
135
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535. Who must sign the attached Record of Disclosure?
Each person having knowledge of the contents of a Top Secret document.
136
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536. Is there a requirement to maintain records of receipt, distribution, or disposition of Confidential material?
No, however, Confidential material must still be protected from unauthorized disclosure by access control and compliance with regulations on marking, storage, transmission, and destruction.
137
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537. What instruction contains specific procedures on security requirement for handling and storing AIS material?
The Department of the Navy Automatic Data Processing Security Program, OPNAVINST 523 9.1.
138
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538. How is destruction of superseded and obsolete classified materials that have served their purpose termed?
?Routine destruction.?
139
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539. What are the ways Top Secret, Secret, and Confidential material may be destroyed?
By burning, pulping, pulverizing, or shredding.
140
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540. What is the most efficient method of destroying combustible material?
Bunting.
141
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541. Top Secret material will be destroyed by how many witnessing officials?
Two.
142
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542. When may one person destroy Secret messages?
If a record of destruction is made.
143
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543. What must be done to bound publications before they are placed in the burning bags, to ensure the complete destruction?
The pages must be torn apart and crumpled. `
144
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544. What are the measurements the crosscut shredding machines must reduce classified material to?
No greater than 3/64 inch wide by ?/2 inch long.
145
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545. What must the material be placed in that has to be jettisoned during emergency destruction?
Weighted bags.
146
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546. When using the jettisoning method of destruction, what should be the sea depth?
1,000 fathoms or more. _
147
# Pass and Advanced
547. What arc the plans called that provide for the protection, removal, or destruction of classified material?
Emergency plans.
148
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548. What is the primary requirement of an emergency plan?
It adequately provides for the rapid and complete destruction of the classified material.
149
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549. What are the three areas of emergencies emergency plans must cover?
Natural disasters, such as hurricanes; civil disturbances, such as rioting; and enemy action.
150
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550. When the emergency plan is implemented, what is the priority of destruction based on?
The potential effect on national security should the material fall into hostile hands.
151
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551. What type of material falls into the first priority for emergency destruction?
Top Secret COMSEC material and classified components of equipment and all other Top Secret
152
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552. What type of material falls into the second priority for emergency destruction?
Secret COMSEC material and all other Secret material. `
153
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553. What type of material falls into the third priority for emergency destruction?
Confidential COMSEC material and all other Confidential material.
154
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554. What should be done after you have destroyed the classified material for which you are responsible?
Destroy any unclassified equipment that could be of use to an enemy.
155
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555. What is required in addition to an emergency plan?
A plan of action in the event of tire.
156
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556. What unit docs all electronic digital computer systems consist of?
A central processing unit (CPU).
157
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557. How does the CPU communicate with the peripheral devices?
Through input/output (I/O) channels.
158
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558. What is the central processing unit?
The brain of the computer, which is referred to as the CPU.
159
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559. What unit maintains order within the computer system and directs the flow of traffic (operations) and data?
The control unit.
160
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560. Does the control unit perform the actual processing operations on the data?
No.
161
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561. How does the control unit control the flow of all data entering and leaving the computer?
By communicating or interfacing with the arithmetic-logic unit, memory, and I/O areas.
162
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562. What part of a computer regulates the flow of signals that control the operation of the computer?
Timing.
163
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563. What portion of a computer makes up the decision-making and memory-type functions?
instruction and control.
164
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564. What is the process of locating the operand (specific information) for a given operation?
Addressing.
165
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565. What is an interrupt?
A break in the normal flow of operation of a computer.
166
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566. What is control memory?
A random-access memory (RAM) consisting of addressable storage registers.
167
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567. What is cache memory?
A small, high-speed RAM buffer located between the CPU and main memory, which can increase the speed of the PC.
168
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568. What are chips with a set of software instructions supplied by the manufacturer built into them that enables the computer to perform its I/O operations?
Read-only memory (ROM).
169
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569. What unit performs all arithmetic operations (addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division) and logic operations?
The arithmetic-logic unit (ALU).
170
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570. What are the four purposes the primary storage, also called internal, storage, main storage, main memory, or just memory, serves?
Holds data transferred from an I/O device to the input storage area, where it remains until the computer is ready to process it; holds both the data being processed and the intermediate results of the arithmetic-logic operations; holds the processing results in an output storage area for transfer to an I/O device; and holds the program statements transferred from an I/O device.
171
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571. How can primary storage be classified?
By its physical or functional characteristics.
172
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572. What are the common types of primary storage devices?
Magnetic core storage, semiconductor storage, and bubble storage.
173
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573. What is another name for semiconductor memory chips?
integrated circuits (ICS).
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574. What are the advantages of semiconductor storage?
Fast internal processing speeds, high reliability, low power consumption, high density (many circuits), and low cost.
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575. What is the drawback of semiconductor storage?
It must have a constant power source, which is called volatile storage.
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576. What type of storage is generally used in laptops?
Bubble storage.
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577. How can memory be functionally classified?
By its operational features: random-access memory (RAM), read-only memory (ROM), programmable read-only memory (PROM), and erasable programmable read-only memory (EPROM).
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578. In the computer, what is the working memory called?
Random-access memory (RAM).
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579. What memory enables you to bootstrap the computer without the programs and data being lost even when the computer is powered down?
Read-only memory (ROM).
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580. Can you put any of your own data or programs into ROM?
No.
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581. What term is used to describe the permanently installed programs?
Micro program, or firmware.
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582. What is the memory outside the main body of the computer where you can store programs and data for future use?
Secondary storage or auxiliary storage.
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583. What are the two reasons you need secondary storage?
Because the computers, working memory (primary storage) is finite and limited in size, it cannot always hold all the data you need, and second, in secondary storage, data and programs do not disappear when power is turned off as they do when semiconductor memories are used.
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584. What are the three types of secondary storage most commonly used?
Magnetic tape, magnetic disk/diskette, and magnetic drum.
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585. What is the term used when peripheral devices are under the control of the CPU?
?Online?
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586. What are peripheral devices considered to be when they perform their functions independently, not under direct control of the CPU?
?Offline?
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587. What is the unit that moves magnetic tape across read/write heads that read and write the information?
Magnetic tape units.
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588. What units are storage devices that read and write information on the magnetized surfaces of rotating disks?
Magnetic disk drive units.
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589. What do floppy disk drive units consist of?
A diskette drive (the mechanism within which the diskette rotates) and a controller containing the electronic circuit that feeds signals into and from the diskette.
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590. Are computer consoles normally used for keying data from source documents for reproduction jobs?
No.
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591. What type of printer is normally used with larger computers to print supply requisitions, paychecks, inventory, or financial reports at 10 lines per second and faster?
High-speed printers.
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592. What provides for communications between the CPU and all peripheral devices?
Input/output (I/O) channels.
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S93. What are the two types of duplex channels?
Half-duplex, and full-duplex.
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594. What channel provides for simultaneous transmission in both directions, as in the use of the telephone?
Full-duplex channel.
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595. Data may be transmitted over a channel in one of what two ways?
Either serial mode or parallel mode.
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596. In parallel transmission, how many wires do you usually have going between the computer and the peripheral devices?
Nine or ten.
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597. What are the signals called that communicate information back and forth between the peripheral device and the computer?
Handshaking signals.
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598. What is the drawback to parallel transmission?
The computer cannot be too far away from the peripheral device.
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599. What is the acronym for modulator-demodulator?
Modem.
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600. What is the function of a modem?
It converts the digital signal produced by your terminal (or the computer) to an audio signal suitable for transmission over the communications line; then the modem at the other end of the line reconverts the audio signal back to a digital signal before it is supplied to the computer (or your terminal).
