deck 30 Flashcards

(43 cards)

1
Q

treatment of campylobacter diarrhea

A

azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

abx for salmonella and shigella

A

ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

only NSAID that doesn’t increase risk of MI

A

naproxen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

first line for keloid scars

A

intralesional corticosteroid injections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

drugs that can cause a false-positive urine drug screen for opioids

A

Dextromethorphan, diphenhydramine, ibuprofen, and even fluoroquinolones are among the many agents that can cause a false-positive urine drug screen for opioids. Pseudoephedrine can cause a false-positive test for amphetamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how to diagnose cat scratch fever

A

IgG testing for Bartonella henselae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

treatments that have evidence for IBS

A

Exercise, probiotics, antibiotics, antispasmodics, antidepressants, psychological treatments, and peppermint oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

problems with stimulants in adults

A

can aggravate psychosis, tics, or HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

main SE’s of stimulants

A

insomnia, dry mouth, weight loss, headaches, and anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

antihypertensive that can also slow bone loss in postmenopausal females and reduce incidence of osteoporosis/hip fractures

A

thiazide diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

doxylamine

A

first generation antihistamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

doxylamine use

A

(unison) sleep aid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

calcium supplement to use for patient on PPI

A

calcium citrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

rapidly progressing paraparesis and sensory abnormalities in a diabetic patient think…

A

epidural abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how to assess RV dysfunction with PE

A

1) echo (EKG can be normal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

initial treatment of chronic fatigue syndrome

A

CBT or graded exercise therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

hepatorenal syndrome

A
  • renal failure in patients with cirrhosis and elevated pressures in the portal vein system
    (elevated portal vein pressure leads to juxtaglomerular apparatus sensing reduced “effective” blood volume and activating RAAS.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

labral tear presentation

A

anterolateral pain, although pain may be deep and poorly localized, and may be associated with instability and a catching sensation

19
Q

posterior shoulder pain

A

often rotator cuff tendinopathy from teres minor or infraspinatus

20
Q

dermatofibroma

A
  • https://www.google.com/search?q=dermatofibroma&source=lnms&tbm=isch&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjWvdzfhpDSAhVJiVQKHY6HBQsQ_AUICCgB&biw=1037&bih=653
  • dimple elicited on compression
21
Q

vitals with PE

A

tachycardia, tachypnea, low-grade fever

22
Q

classic findings of PE on ECG

A

prominent S in lead I, Q in lead III, and inverted T in lead III (s1q3t3)

23
Q

PE findings on CXR

A

hampton hump, westermark sign

24
Q

arrhythmia associated with PE

A

atrial fibrillation (caused by atrial strain from increased right atrial pressure)

25
pleural fluid with empyema
pH less than 7.2 decreased glucose WBC less than 50,000
26
parapneumonic effusion
pleural effusion resulting from effusion, lung abscess, or bronchiectasis
27
pleural fluid analysis with parapneumonic effusion
pH greater than 7.2 decreased to normal glucose WBC count greater than 50,000
28
pleural fluid criteria called
Light criteria
29
pathophys of empyema
Most parapneumonic effusions are uncomplicated and resolve with abx. However, if bacteria cross into pleural space, a complicated parapneumonic effusion or empyema may develop.
30
what will CXR show with empyema?
loculation
31
management of COPD exacerbation
Oxygen inhaled bronchodilators systemic glucocorticoids antibiotics if greater than 2 cardinal symptoms oseltamivir if evidence of influenza NPPV if ventilatory failure tracheal intubation if NPPV failed or contraindicated
32
duration of abx for COPD exacerbation
3-7 days
33
pulmonary capillary wedge pressure significance
measure of pulmonary artery pressure, which is a surrogate for R atrial pressure (because of large compliance of pulmonary circulation)
34
use of pulmonary wedge pressure
- Gold standard for determining the cause of acute pulmonary edema - elevated also suggests LV failure
35
clinical features of pulmonary contusion
- usually happens within 24 hours of blunt thoracic trauma - tachypnea + tachycardia + hypoxia - pulmonary contusion leads to idntraalveolar hemorrhage
36
diagnosis of pulmonary contusion
- rales or decreased breath sounds | - CT or CXR with patchy, alveolar infiltrate not restricted by anatomical borders
37
pulmonary hygiene
nebulizer treatment + chest physiotherapy
38
why does an exudative pleural effusion happen with pulmonary infection?
Cytokines released during inflammation or infection increase capillary permeability, resulting in translocation of cells and fluid from the vasculature into the pericapillary space, which aids in immune response but can also result in exudative pleural effusion
39
criteria for initiating long term oxygen therapy in patients with COPD
1) resting arterial oxygen tension less than 55 mm Hg or pulse ox less than 88% on RA 2) PaO2 less than 59 mm Hg or SaO2 less than 89% in patients with for pulmonate, evidence of RH failure or hematocrit greater than 55%
40
how to determine dose of supplemental oxygen for people on long term oxyen
titrate to 90% on RA during normal walking
41
scoring system for PE risk
Wells score
42
Test of choice for clinically stable patients in whom PE is likely
CT angiography
43
algorithm for suspected PE
stabilize patient with O2 and IV fluids --> evaluate for contraindications to anticoagulation --> if no, then assess clinical suspicion of PE with modified wells --> consider anticoagulation if moderate to severe distress --> obtain diagnostic test and start, continue, or stop anticoagulation