Deck 3b Flashcards

(18 cards)

1
Q

Q. What risks are associated with fixation in paeds?

A

Growth arrest

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2
Q

Name two features associated with non-accidental injury (NAI)

A

A. Long bone fracture in non-ambulant (not able to walk etc), multiple bruises,

multiple fractures in various stages of healing, corner fractures, posterior rib

fractures, mid bone fractures (diaphseal)

B. Commonly occurs in children < 4yrs

C. XR, skeletal survey, Admit, refer to paeds and safe guarding services, treat as

usual

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3
Q

Q. Why may a supracondylar fracture occur? Which nerve is at risk?

A

A. Fall to outstretched hand – common paeds presentation

B. High risk of neurovascular injury: medial nerve most common (OK)

C. Urgent reduction and crossed K-wiring in majority of cases

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4
Q

Q. Name 2 complications associated with fractures

A

A. Open, NV compromise, mal union (bone heals with deformity), non-union

(failure of bone to heal), compartment syndrome (pain, pain, pain), metal wear

problems, cast problems (tight, compartment syndrome, plaster burns/blister,

loss of reduction

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5
Q

Q. Describe the 5 stages of the bone cycle

A

A. Quiescence: resting stage

B. Recruitment and differentiation: preosteoclasts

C. Bone resorption: Osteoclasts

D. Recruitment and differentiation: obestoblasts

E. Bone formation: Osteoblasts – mineralization

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6
Q

Q. Describe the changes in trabecular architecture with ageing

A

A. Decrease in trabecular thickness, more pronounced for non-load- bearing horizontal trabeculae

B. Decrease in connections between horizontal trabeculae

C. Decrease in trabecular strength and increased susceptibility to fracture

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7
Q

Q. What is a DXA scan?

A

A. Dual energy X-ray absorptiometry: low radiation dose – measures important

fracture sites

B. T score: standard deviation score, compared with gender-matched young adult

average (peak bone mass)

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8
Q

Q. What T scores constitutes a diagnosis of: normal bone density

/osteopenia/osteoporosis/severe osteoporosis?

A

A. >-1 = normal

B. -1.0 - -2.5 = osteopenia

C. < -2.5 = osteoporosis

D. < -2.5 plus fracture = severe osteoporosis

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9
Q

Q. Name two endocrine causes of decreased bone density

A

Endocrine: Hyperthyroidism, primary hyperparathyroidism (thyroid hormone and
PTH increase bone turnover)

B. Cortisol= increases bone resorption and induces osteoblast apoptosis (Crushing’s

syndrome)

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10
Q

Q. Name two medications that may affect bone density

A

A. Glucocorticoids, depo-provera, aromatase inhibitors, GnRH analogues, androgren deprivation

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11
Q
  1. Q. Name two risk factors that increase the risk of osteoporosis
A

A. Prev fracture, FHx of osteoporosis/fracture, alcohol, smoking

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12
Q

Q. Name three features of the FRAX questionnaire

A

Age sex, weight, height, prev fracture, smoking, glucosteroids, Rh arthritis,

secondary osteoporosis, alcohol, femoral neck BMD

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13
Q

Q. Name two drug treatments of OA

A
  1. Lifestyle mod
  2. Topical products - capsicum
  3. Analgesics/NSAIDS - paracetamol, dihydrocodeine (weak opioids)
  4. Visco-supplementation: injections Injected into the synovial fluid of affected joint – increasing lubrication to relieve symptoms/pain e.g. Hyaluronic acid
  5. Steroid injections: Intraarticular corticosteroid infections to provide short term improvement where there is painful joint effusion e.g intra-muscular depot methylprednisolone
  6. Surgery - total hip/knee replacement
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14
Q

Describe the Tx of RA

A
  1. NSAIDS/COX inhibitors e.g. Slow release diclofenac, paracetamol +-codeine/dihydrocodeine
  2. Corticosteroids: Suppress disease activity in the short term by modifying transcription and protein synthesis causing anti-inflammatory actions e.g. Intra-muscular methylprednisolone
  3. DMARDS: Used early on to reduce inflammation and slow joint erosion/irreversible damage and reduce CVD risk
    e. g. Sulfasalazine, methotrexate, lefunomide
  4. Biological DMARDS: Relatively new treatment used to halt erosion formation, used in pts with active disease despite treatment e.g. Etanercept, infliximab adalimumab, certolizumab
  5. Lifestyle mod - physios etc
  6. Surgery - arthroplasty (joint replacement)
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15
Q
  1. Q. What is the origin of sarcoma? Where do they usually occur?
A

A. Mesenchymal origin
B. Usually soft tissue (incidence increases with age)
C. Bone - rarer, however more common in children and YP

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16
Q
  1. Q. Name 4 features suggestive of sarcoma
A

Pt presents with a lump > 5cm, increasing in size, the lump is deep to the fascia, pain

17
Q
  1. Q. Describe the management of sarcoma
A

Ultrasound of soft tissue, MRI (good for soft tissue), CT is MRI not feasible, core needle biopsy, CT thorax for lung mets (first location of metastasis)
Surgery with wide excision + radiotherapy
Triple assessment by sarcoma MDT (history, imaging, biopsy)

18
Q

Treatment of oestoporosis

A

A. Anti-resorptive drugs: decrease osteoclast activity and bone turnover

a. Bisphosphonates: inhibits an enzyme in the cholesterol synthesis

pathway (Farnesylpyrophosphate synthase) reducing rate of bone

breakdown – cheap, effective

i. Oral: alendronate, risedronate, ibandronate
ii. IV: ibandronate, zoledronate
b. Hormone replacement therapy (oestrogen): post-menopausal women
c. Monoclonal antibody: Denosumab (RANK ligand) – rapid acting and very

potent anti-resorptive, good fracture risk reduction, rebound increase of

bone turnover when stopped

B. Anabolic: increase osteoblast activity and bone formation

a. Teriparatide: PTH analogue, increases bone density (up to 20%), improves

trabecular structure