Deck 8 Flashcards

1
Q

How far down the respiratory tree do ciliated mucosal epithelia go?

A

Up to the respiratory bronchioles

Will still be present below mucosal glands to cough up any fluid

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2
Q

What chromosomes and genes are abnormal in CML?

A

9:22 translocation
BCR-ABL gene
Active tyrosine kinase

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3
Q

What does the infraorbital nerve innervate? Where is it?

A

Goes down infraorbital floor through maxilla

Innervates upper cheek, upper lip, upper gingiva

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4
Q

What are breath sounds and tactile fremitus like when lobar consolidation is present?

A

INCREASED breath sounds AND tactile fremitus

Both with be decreased in things like pleural effusion or atelectasis

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5
Q

Who gets recurrent neisseria infections?

A

People with complement deficiencies C5b-C9

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6
Q

What cells secrete what substance to create pus?

A

Macrophages secrete IL-8 for neutrophil chemotaxis and induces neutrophil phagocytosis
Pus = dead neutrophils

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7
Q

What does the speed of conduction via myelin depend on?

A

Length constant
Time constant

velocity = length/time
Demyelination INCREASES time constant and DECREASES length constant

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8
Q

What artery lies behind ureter? Which ones lie in front of ureter?

A

Internal iliac artery behind

Gonadal (uterine) arteries in front (water under the bridge)

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9
Q

Uniform eosinophilic cytoplasm cells with oval/round nuclei in appendix causing abdominal pain. What are they?

A

Neuroendocrine cells

Carcinoid tumor- mimics appendicitis when found in appendix

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10
Q

Person who gets angioedema randomly. What is cellular deficiency?

A

C1 inhibitor deficiency. Excessive cleavage of C2-C4 and overproduction of bradykinin**

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11
Q

What cancers is EBV associated with?

A

nasopharyngeal ca

Burkitt lymphoma

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12
Q

Which antibiotic cannot be taken with SSRIs?

A

Linezolid –> has MAOI activity so can precipitate serotonin syndrome

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13
Q

What are actions of insulin in skeletal, adipose, liver, and pancreatic tissues?

A

In skeletal and adipose –> increase glucose uptake

In liver –> decreases glycogenolysis and increases glycogen synthesis

In pancreas decreases glucagon secretion for alpha cells

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14
Q

What antigen is associated with reactive arthritis?

A

HLA-B27

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15
Q

What is the sensory innervation for anterior and posterior part of tongue?

A

Anterior = V3 of trigeminal nerve
Posterior is Glossopharyngeal nerve

Chorda tympani = taste for anterior part

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16
Q

What is motor innervation for tongue?

A

Hypoglossal nerve CN XII

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17
Q

What type of lung disease increases airflow resistance? What type of lung disease increases elastic resistance?

A

Airflow resistance - obstructive

elastic resistance - restrictive

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18
Q

Does restrictive or obstructive lung disease take rapid shallow breaths?

A

Restrictive - rapid shallow breaths

Obstructive - slow deep breaths

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19
Q

Which gene is associated with clear cell RCC?

A

VHL von hippel lindeau
Secrete VEGF and angiogenic growth factors

Tx with anti-VEGF

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20
Q

Treatment for TCA overdose that is causing cardiac arrythmias and lengthening QRS?

A

Sodium bicarb.
TCAs block Na+ fast channels and cause arrythmias. Give sodium bicarb if signs of ventricular arrythmias and QRS widening occur

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21
Q

Features of TCA overdose?

A

Anticholinergic symptoms
Resp depression
Tachycardia, arrythmias, lengthening PR/QRS/QT

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22
Q

What is omilizumab?

A

Anti-IgE binding antibody, inhibits mast cell degranulation

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23
Q

What does stimulation of M3, Alpha2, and BEta2 receptors do to insulin release?

A

M3 - increases release (sight of smell and food)
B2- increases release
A2- inhibits release

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24
Q

What do the urethral (urogenital) folds become in male and female? Failure to fuse?

A

IN female- labia majora

In male- underside of penis. Hypospadias if failure to fuse

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25
MOA for LMWH and unfraction heparin?
unfractioned heparin binds antithrombin (increased action against Xa) and thrombin LMWH binds antithrombin only
26
What are CYP450 inducers? What do they do to warfarin?
Metabolize warfarin, put people at risk for stroke via thromboembolism- inadequate anticoagulation Carbamazepine, barbituates, phenytoin, rifampin, St John's wort*, griseofulvin, modafinil, cyclophosphamide
27
What are CYP450 inhibitors?
Amiodarone, cimetidine, quinolone, Azoles, clarythromycin, grapefruit juice, isoniazid, ritonavir (protease inhibitor)
28
What are calcium, phosphorus, and PTH levels in coeliac disease?
Ca and Po low due to vit D deficiency | PTH high
29
What are bleeding time, PTT, and TT in vWD?
increased PTT (intrinsic due to low VIII) and prolonged bleeding time (test of platelet function)
30
What is the part of the sarcomere that involves actin binding to structural proteins? What part involves myosin binding to structural proteins?
Z line within the I band for actin | M line within the A band for myosin
31
What is the definition of a sarcomere?
Z line to Z line | With myosin being the thick part, actin being thin
32
What do you see on Prussian blue stain of myocardium in people with hemochromatosis? WHy are women symptomatic later in life?
Brown pigment and dilated heart Menstrual cycle helps relieve iron load
33
What substances are released from mast cells and basophils in anaphylaxis?
Histamine and tryptase (specific to mast cells)
34
What is the stimulus for mast cell degranulation?
IgE receptor aggregation and cross-linking of antigens
35
What does ALP signify?
Osteoblast activity
36
What are serum markers of osteoblast activity?
ALP and N-terminal propeptide of type 1 procollagen (PINP) from collagen fibrils
37
What does hypoxemia with hypercapnia and normal A-a gradient mean?
Alveolar hypoventilation is occuring- obesity, neuromuscular disordrs, high altitude (low inspired O2)
38
What does it mean if pt is hypoxic with elevated A-a gradient?
R-L shunt, pulm edema, V/Q mismatch, impaired diffusion ILD)
39
Where does secretin come from? What does secretin stimulate?
Duodenal cells release secretin in response to H+. Secretin stimulates release of HCO3- from pancreas Cl- secretion decreases as HCO3- increases
40
What are common causes of polyhydraminos?
Increased urination - high cardiac output, maternal hemorrhage, parvovirus infection Decreased swallowing - GI, duodenal, or esophageal atresia, anencephaly**** Maternal diabetes and multiple gestation
41
What symptoms does damage to the vermis, cerebellar hemispheres, and fluconodular lobe cause?
vermis - truncal ataxia hemispheres- limb dysmetria, past pointing and intention tremor flucclonodular lobe- vertigo and nystagmus
42
What tissue does direct hernias penetrate?
Transversalis fascia
43
What structures are anterior and posterior to esophagus in midsection?
Anterior- LA | posterior - descending aorta
44
Where are neurophysins (post-translational hormone processing), oxytocin, and ADH secreted from?
Posterior pituitary** | They are SYNTHESIZED in hypothalamus
45
What does a wide, fixed S2 mean?
ASD present
46
WHat happens if ASD is left untreated?
Normally ASD causes L-R shunt Pulm artery hypertrophy occurs Eventually reversal of shunt to R-L occurs (Eisemenger syndrome) and clubbing and cyanosis can occur
47
What does AR do to diastolic pressure?
lowers it. Wide pulse pressure Collapsing pulses (waterhammer) are signs
48
SE of amphotericin B?
Nephrotoxicity* Increased permiability in distal tubule causing hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia Hypokalemia, weakness and arrhythmias
49
What are ECG changes with hypokalemia?
Flat T waves, ST depression, U waves
50
What are symptoms of lead poisoning?
SOB, microcytic anemia, pallor, anemia with basophilic stippling, abdo pain, constipation*, peripheral neurop Normal ferritin and iron stores Inhibits heme synthesis pathway
51
What is seen on urinalysis, light microscopy, and serum levels with PSGN?
Urinalysis- RBC casts Anti-streptococcal antibodies, Low C3** Light microscopy- enlarged hypercellular glomeruli
52
HOw do alcohols and chlorhexidine kill bacteria?
Disrupt cell membrane
53
Which cleaning agents are active against spores?
Iodine | Hydrogen peroxide
54
What is antidote for benzo overdose?
Flumazenil - bind as antagonist to GABA-a sites to block action of benzos
55
What is antidote for SSRI overdose?
Cyroheptidine
56
Antidote for Anticholinergic overdose?
Physiostigmine
57
Antidote for opiod overdose?
Naloxone
58
Which antiarrhythmic drugs prolong QT interval?
Class III (K blockers)
59
Which antiarrhythmic drug will prolong QT interval without risk of tosades de pointes?
Amiodarone
60
WHat do nitrates do to heart?
Decrease preload and end diastolic pressure | Mainly vasodilate venous system with moderate affect on arterioles (so they also decrease afterload)
61
What type of pericarditis do people with SLE get?
Fibrinous pericarditis | Causes triphasic friction rub
62
What does raburicase do?
Increases conversion of uric acid into water soluble metabolites (allantoin, excreted in urine)
63
How does carbon tetrahydrochloride cause hepatocyte damage?
Creation of free radicals CYP450 inducer - lipid degredation and lipid peroxidation with H202 "fatty change and hepatocyte necrosis"
64
Equation to determine whether an autosomal recessive trait (such as CF) will pass on to child if both parents are carriers?
(1/4 from mother) x (probability within race for mother) x (1/4 from father) x (probability within race for father)
65
What causes AS in older adults?
Aortic calcification | Fibroblasts become osteoblast like cells depositing bone matrix on valves and progressive causing calcification