Derm Flashcards

1
Q

Rubbing a lesion that causes urticarial flare is referred to as?

A

Darier’s sign

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2
Q

Pinpoint bleeding after a scale is removed is referred to as?

A

Auspitz sign

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3
Q

Pushing a blister causing further separation of the dermis is referred to as?

A

Nikolsky’s sign

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4
Q

A patch test demonstrates what?

A

hypersensitivity reaction

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5
Q

Minor trauma leading to new lesions at the site of trauma is referred to as?

A

Koebner phenomenon

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6
Q

What test is used to identify dermatophyte infection?

A

KOH prep

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7
Q

Thickened skin with distinct borders, often resulting from excessive scratching or prolonged irritation is referred to as?

A

lichenification

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8
Q

You are examining a child with diaper rash, and you notice satellite lesions - what do you suspect?

A

Candida infection

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9
Q

Where is the rash of atopic dermatitis most commonly located?

A

Flexor surfaces, neck, eyelids, forehead, face, dorsum of hands / feet

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10
Q

Mainstay of treatment of atopic dermatitis?

A

topical corticosteroids

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11
Q

Treatment of dandruff, shampoos with which two elements have been shown beneficial for acute flareups?

A

Selenium

Zinc

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12
Q

Describe skin manifestations of lichenification

A

well-circumscribed plaques, highly pruritic, which set up a cycle of itch-scratch lesions

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13
Q

Round, salmon-colored, slightly rasied, papular / macular lesions aligned in a “christmas tree-like distribution”, what do you suspect?

A

pityriasis rosea

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14
Q

Pityriasis rosea is a self-limiting condition, of what duration?

A

3-8 weeks

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15
Q

Cause of molluscum contagiosum?

A

Poxvirus

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16
Q

The 4 P’s of lichen planus?

A

Purple
Polygonal
Pruritic
Papule

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17
Q

Describe the lesion of lichen planus

A

Flat-topped, shiny, violaceous papules with fine white lines on the surface (Wickham Striae)

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18
Q

True / False: Koebner phenomenon is seen in lichen planus?

A

True

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19
Q

All patients with lichen planus should be screened for what other disease?

A

Hep C

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20
Q

In what climate is dyshydrotic eczematous dermatitis (dyshidrosis) seen?

A

hot, humid weather

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21
Q

What is the basic pathology of psoriasis?

A

enhanced epidermal cell turnover

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22
Q

In psoriatic lesions, peeling away a scale produces specks of bleeding from capillaries? What is this called?

A

Auspitz sign

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23
Q

In patients with psoriasis, scratching leads to more lesions. What’s this called?

A

Koebner phenomenon

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24
Q

Most common variant of psoriasis?

A

Psoriasis vulgaris

25
Which form of psoriasis involves the entire skin surface?
Psoriatic erythroderma
26
Pemphigus vulgaris is more commonly seen in people of what descent?
Jewish or Mediterranean
27
In pemphigus vulgaris, there is lateral extensino of the lesions when they are pushed. What is this called?
Nikolsky's sign
28
What are hallmark lesions of acne called?
Comedones
29
Topical preparations used in treatment of mild acne?
Retinoids Azelaic Acid Salicylic Acid
30
Drug of choice for more serious or cystic acne?
Tetracyclines
31
True / False: acne rosacea is a chronic acneiform disorder mainly affecting women between 30-50 yrs of age
True
32
Typical triggers of acne roseacea?
Heat, alcohol, sun, hot / spicy foods
33
What is characterized by insidious onset of scattered, small, papulopustules (sometimes nodules), where there are NO comedones and the face appears flushed?
Acne rosacea
34
What does the suffix -phyma mean?
"enlarged"
35
Most common cause of folliculitis?
staph aureus
36
Cause of folliculitis in hot tub users?
Pseudomonas
37
Three common causes of erythema multiforme?
Drugs (sulfonamids, phenytoin, barbiturates, PCN, allopurinol) Infections (HSV, Mycoplasma) Idiopathic (50% of cases)
38
Hallmark of erythema multiforme major?
mucosal lesions that are painful and erode
39
What two conditions are mucocutaneous blistering reactions, most often caused by a drug reaction?
Steven-Johnson syndrome | Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN)
40
Where should SJS / TEN patients with extensive necrolysis be cared for?
Burn unit
41
What pathogen is most common cause of furuncles?
Staph Aureus
42
First step in treatment of furuncles and carbuncles?
Warm, moist compresses
43
When beginning broad-spectrum abx for cellulitis, what three organisms should be covered?
H. Flu Strep Staph
44
In PCN-allergic patients, what is most appropriate alternative antibiotic?
Erythromycin
45
What should a patient taking griseofulvin avoid ingesting?
alcohol
46
What is the cause of tinea versicolor?
Malassezia furfur
47
Characteristic feature of tinea versicolor?
hypo or hyperpigmented macules that do not tan in areas of overgrowth
48
Treatment of choice for tinea versicolor?
selenium sulfide shampoo
49
Most common distribution seen in scabies?
hands, wrists, interweb spaces
50
What is the most important spider bite that can puncture skin in the US?
brown recluse spider (loxosceles reclusa)
51
What three topical insecticides are considered first line treatment of pediculosis (lice)?
Permethrin Pyrethrins Malathion
52
Most common type of malignant melanoma?
superficial spreading malignant melanoma
53
How is prognosis determined in melanoma patients?
depth of the lesion (Breslow depth)
54
The two most common skin neoplasms?
Squamous and Basal cell carcinoma
55
Typical presentation of squamous cell lesions?
sharply demarcated, scaling, hyperkeratotic macule / papule or plaque
56
How are stage I decubitus ulcers characterized?
non-blanching erythema of intact skin
57
Most effective solution for new-onset and smaller areas of hair loss?
minoxidil
58
Alopecia areata may be seen in what four diseases?
thyroiditis pernicious anemia SLE addison disease
59
What is a felon?
subcutaneous infection of the pulp space of the nail