Derm/Endo Flashcards

1
Q

erythematous and edematous plaques with grayish center OR frank bullae

A

fixed drug eruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what drugs most commonly cause exanthematous/morbiliform rash?

A

abx
NSAIDs
allopurinol
thiazides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

erythematous plaque raised with central pallor
intensely pruritic
blanchable

A

urticaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

red man syndrome

A

vancomycin - rapid IV infusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

treatment for urticaria

A

STOP OFFENDING AGENT
2nd generation H1 (ie. certirizine)
+/- H2 blocker
glucocorticoid if severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

treatment for anaphylaxis

A

epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

silver sulfadiazine cream

A

deep partial thickness and 3rd degree burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what should you consider in all burn patients

A

tetanus booster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the most painful burn?

A

superficial partial thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what burns do blisters form?

A

partial thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

at what level burn do you lose capillary refill?

A

deep partial thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

deep infection of dermal and subQ tissues

A

cellulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MC causative organism of cellulitis

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

erysipelas

A

superficial version of cellulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

treatment for cellulitis

A

7-1o days abx (ie. keflex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

treatment for animal bites

A

Augmentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what type of reaction is urticaria

A

type 1 hypersensitivity (IgE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

MC skin cancer in US

A

basal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

BCC features

A

slow-growing
locally invasive
low incidence of metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

pearly/waxy papule with central ulceration
raised, rolled borders
friable (bleeds easy)

A

BCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

diagnosis of BCC

A

punch/shave biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

treatment of BCC

A

electric desiccation/curettage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

skin cancer: _ is often preceded by _

A
squamous cell carcinoma
actinic keratosis (also HPV infection)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

hyperkeratosis and ulceration

red, elevated nodule

A

SCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

treatment for SCC

A

excision (Moh’s if recurrent/aggressive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

UV radiation associated with 80% of cases

A

malignant melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

ABCDE of melanoma

A
asymmetry
irregular borders
color variation
diameter >6mm
evolution (rapid change of appearance)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the most important prognostic factor for METS of malignant melanoma?

A

thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

diagnosis of malignant melanoma

A

full-thickness biopsy (SHAVE DISCOURAGED)

30
Q

rule of 9’s

A
18 front (9 chest, 9 abdomen)
18 back
9 each arm total
9 each leg front
9 each leg back
9 head total
1 genitalia
31
Q

Parkland formula

A

LR 4ml/kg/%TSA
1/2 in first 8 hours
other 1/2 in next 16 hours

32
Q

big risk of electrical burns

A

rhabdomyolysis

UA = myoglobinuria

33
Q

pressure ulcer stage I

A

superficial, nonblanchable redness

34
Q

pressure ulcer stage II

A

damage into the dermis

resembles blister or abrasion

35
Q

pressure ulcer stage III

A

full thickness and may extend into subQ

36
Q

pressure ulcer stage IV

A

deepest, extending into muscle/tendon/bone

37
Q

heat intolerance

A

hyperthyroidism

38
Q

symptoms of hyperthyroidism

A
weight loss
hyperactivity (TREMORS)
tachycardia
palpitations
diarrhea
hyperglycemia
39
Q

Graves’ Disease features

A

lid lag
exophthalmos
pretibial myxedema

40
Q

antibodies for Graves

A

TRAb (thyroid receptor antibodies)

41
Q

treatment for Graves

A

methimazole/PTU
radioactive iodine (destroys gland)
BB - symptomatic treatment

42
Q

SE of PTU

A

agranulocytosis

43
Q

bitemporal hemaniopsia

A

pituitary adenoma

44
Q

symptoms of hypothyroid

A
cold intolerance
weight gain
fatigue
constipation
bradycardia
decreased DTR (hypoactive)
45
Q

antibodies for Hashimoto’s

A

TPO (antithyroid peroxidase)

Tg (anti-thyroglobulin)

46
Q

treatment for Hashimoto

A

levothyroxine

47
Q

MC cause of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

parathyroid adenoma causing increased PTH production

48
Q

MC cause secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

chronic kidney failure

increased PTH due to decreased vitamin D production or hypocalcemia

49
Q

symptoms of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

HYPERCALCEMIA
stones, bones, abdominal groans and psychiatric moans
decreased DTR
increased excitations threshold for heart, nerves and muscles

50
Q

diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

hypercalcemia
decreased phosphate (inverse of Ca)
increased iPTH

51
Q

treatment of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

parathyroidectomy

52
Q

treatment of secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

vitD/Ca supplement

53
Q

symptoms of thyroid nodules

A

COMPRESSIVE
dysphagia
neck/jaw/ear pain
hoarseness

54
Q

T/F, most thyroid nodules are benign

A

TRUE

malignant nodule = rapid growth, fixed in place

55
Q

what does is mean to be a “cold nodule”

A

no iodine uptake

highly suspicious for malignancy!

56
Q

thyroid function tests in thyroid cancer reveal?

A

euthyroid

57
Q

MC type of thyroid nodule and in what population

A

papillary

young females

58
Q

risk factor for papillary thyroid nodule

A

radiation exposure

59
Q

most aggressive thyroid cancer

A

anapestic

worse prognosis

60
Q

treatment of most thyroid cancers

A

total thyroidectomy

subtotal thyroidectomy with radio iodine therapy and thyroid suppression with thyroid hormones

61
Q

distant METS are common for which type of thyroid cancer?

A

follicular

62
Q

medullary thyroid cancer is MC associated with what condition?

A

MEN II (multiple endocrine neoplasia)

63
Q

treatment for hypercalcemia

A

furosemide (AVOID thiazides)

calcitonin or bisphosphonates if severe

64
Q

what is a pheochromocytoma?

A

catecholamine-secreting adrenal tumor (NE and epi)

90% are BENIGN

65
Q

symptoms of pheochromocytoma

A

secondary HTN

“PHE” - palpitations, headaches, excessive sweating

66
Q

diagnosis of pheochromocytoma

A

increased 24h urine catecholamines including metabolites (i.e. metanephrine)

67
Q

treatment of pheochromocytoma

A

alpha blockade (phenocybensamine/phentolamine x7-14d) THEN beta blockers to control HTN

complete adenalectomy

68
Q

Adrenocortical carcinomas (ACCs) are rare, often aggressive tumors that may be functional and cause Cushing’s syndrome (cortisol-secreting tumor) and/or virilization

A

FACT

69
Q

multiple endocrine neoplasia I (MEN I)

A

rare inherited d/o of 1+ overactive endocrine gland tumors

70
Q

endocrine gland tumors

A

3 P’s
parathyroid
pancreas
pituitary

71
Q

MEN I symptoms

A
hyperparathyroidism (i.e. hypercalcemia) - 90%
pancreatic tumors = highest malignant potential (i.e. zollinger ellison syndrome = gastrinomas)
pituitary adenomas (MC prolactinomas)
72
Q

multiple endocrine neoplasia II (MEN II)

A

medullary thyroid carcinoma
pheochromocytoma
hyperparathyroidism