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Small (Chloe) > Dermatology > Flashcards

Dermatology Flashcards

(59 cards)

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1
Q

What are some allergy triggers?

A

Environmental allergens
Food
Ectoparasites
Contact allergens
Microorganisms
Drugs

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2
Q

What is canine atopic dermatitis?

A

Common, chronic, relapsing, pruritic and inflammatory skin syndrome with characteristic clinical features.

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3
Q

What are some common environmental allergens?

A

Dust mites, pollens and moulds

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4
Q

When does environmental canine atopic dermatitis occur?

A

On re-exposure of an allergen

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5
Q

What pathophysiology occurs on re-exposure to an allergen?

A

Degranulation of mast cells and production of cytokines from activated T-cells.

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6
Q

What are the 7 points of Favrot’s criteria for environmental CAD?

A
  1. Age of onset <3years
  2. Living mostly indoors
  3. Glucocorticoid-responsive pruritus
  4. Non-lesional pruritus
  5. Affected front feet and/pr pinnae
  6. Unaffected ear margins
  7. Unaffected dorsal/lumbar area
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7
Q

What are the clinical signs of uncomplicated environmental CAD?

A

Erythema, self-induced alopecia, excoriations, primary popular eruption

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8
Q

What common food sources can cause a food allergy in dogs?

A

Beef, dairy, chicken and wheat

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9
Q

What is feline atopic skin syndrome?

A

Inflammatory/pruritus skin syndrome likely associated with IgE

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10
Q

Pros and cons of using glucocorticoids for allergies

A

Pros: Highly effective for inflammation and pruritus, rapid onset (24hrs), inexpensive
Cons: Significant side effect risk

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11
Q

What is oclacitinib (apoquel) licenced for?

A

Dogs that are a minimum of 1 year old

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12
Q

What is the action of lokivetmab (cytopoint)?

A

Blocks interleukin-31

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13
Q

Pros and cons of lokivetmab?

A

Pros: Good safety profile, excellent anti-pruritic, rapid onset, use in dogs of any age, with impaired liver/kidney function and neoplasia
Cons: Dogs only, efficacy may be lost with time, minimal anti-inflammatory effect, rare anaphylaxis

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14
Q

What is ciclosporin licenced for?

A

Dogs and cats

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15
Q

What is the action of ciclosporin?

A

T-cell suppressor

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16
Q

What are the challenges with cat allergy management?

A
  • Few licenced products
  • Administration of treatments more difficult
  • Vet visits more stressful
  • Scratching can cause rapid and severe damage
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17
Q

What is the most common bacterial skin infection?

A

Staphylococcus pseudintermedius

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18
Q

What are signs of a bacterial skin infection?

A

Focal to multifocal patches of alopecia +/- pustules and crusts.

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19
Q

Most common species of ringworm

A

Microsporum canis

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20
Q

Indications for mild cases of ringworm

A

Scale and associated alopecia. Multifocal patches are often circular and typically 4-6cm +/- hyperpigmentation. Follicular casts.

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21
Q

Diagnostic options for ringworm

A

Woods lamp, trichography, in house DTM, external lab fungal culture +/- PCR

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22
Q

What causes demodicosis?

A

Demodex mites

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23
Q

Indications of juvenile onset demodicosis

A

Localised or generalised. Alopecia, scaling, blue-grey hyperpigmentation, comedones, follicular casts +/- superficial bacterial infection

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24
Q

What diseases are follicular casts a common presentation of?

Study These Flashcards
A

Demodicosis
Dermatophytosis
Sebaceous adenitis

25
Clinical signs of demodex cati
Comedones, alopecia, erythema, crust and scale
26
Treatment options for demodex cati
Isoxazolines, selemectin or sarolaner
27
Breed pre-disposition to sebaceous adenitis
Akitas and poodles
28
Breed pre-disposition to dermatomyositis
Collies
29
Main clinical sign of alopecia areata
Rapid hair loss followed by incomplete regrowth of white hair
30
What is telogen defluxion?
Sudden loss of hair that occurs 1-3 months post-stressful incident.
31
What is alopecia X?
Primary hair loss follows by complete alopecia and hyperpigmentation
32
What medications can cause injection alopecia?
Glucocorticoids, vaccines and depot antibiotics
33
4 hair synthesis defects
1. Congenital alopecia 2. Pattern alopecia 3. Follicular dysplasia 4. Anagen defluxion/effluvium
34
Age range of environmental atopic dermatitis
6 months to 3 years
35
Typical age of onset of food induced atopic dermatitis
Less than 1 year
36
Presentation of deep pyoderma
Furunculosis, abscess or cellulitis
37
Differentials for pinnal margin pruritus
Scabies Neotrombicular autumnalis
38
What 3 physiological factors can be associated with otitis?
Temperature, humidity and pH
39
Normal flora of the otitis externis
Predominantly gram positive cocci and malassezia
40
Otodecetes cyanotis treatment
Ear cream, cleaner =/- steroids
41
Consequences of otitis media
Conductive deafness, Horner's syndrome and vestibular syndrome
42
Clinical signs of otitis interna
Head tilt to affected side Spontaneous or rotatory nystagmus Asymmetrical limb ataxia Falling Vomiting +/- anorexia
43
The four feline cutaneous reaction patterns
Head and neck pruritus Miliary dermatitis Bilaterally symmetrical alopecia Eosinophilic granuloma complex lesions
44
What is dysbiosis?
Involves imbalance between types of organisms in the microbiome
45
Canine intertrigo
Skin fold infection
46
Acute moist dermatitis
Acute lesions caused by skin self-trauma
47
What is impetigo associated with?
Immature immune system/ immunosuppression
48
What drugs are contraindicated with deep pyoderma?
Corticosteroids and oclacitinib
49
What are the risk factors for meticillin-resistant staphylococcal pyoderma (MRS)?
Previous antimicrobial therapy, repeated visits to the vets and invasive procedures
50
Definition of pruritis
Unpleasant sensation that elicits the desire or reflex to scratch
51
Biggest cause of feline face, head and neck pruritus
Ectoparasites
52
Common sites of eosinophilic granuloma complex
Caudal thighs and oral cavity
53
Minimum length of time for an exclusion diet trial
8 weeks
54
What is scale?
Presence of flakes and keratin in the hair coat and on the skin
55
Breed predisposition to Zn-responsive dermatosis
Husky
56
Key histological finding of Zinc-responsive dermatosis
Hyperkeratosis
57
Breed pre-disposition of Ichthyosis
Golden retriever
58
Cutaneous lupus signalment for FDLE and MCLE
FDLE - GSDS - 7 year onset MCLE - Female GSDs, 6 year onset
59
Colloquial name for decubital ulcers
Pressure sores

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