Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

MSRA General > Dermatology > Flashcards

Dermatology Flashcards

(81 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What is the stepwise management of chronic plaque psoriasis?

A
  1. Potent corticosteroid + Vit D OD for up to 4 weeks
  2. > 8 weeks and no improvement - give vit D BD
  3. 8-12 weeks no improvement then offer potent corticosteroid BD up to 4 weeks OR coal tar O/BD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are some secondary care management methods for chronic plaque psoriasis?

A

Phototherapy
-UV B
-psoralen + UV A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are some side effects of phototherapy?

A

Skin ageing, SCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the systemic therapy options in the management of chronic plaque psoriasis?

A
  1. Methotrexate
  2. Ciclosporine
  3. Systemic retinoids
  4. Biological agents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is scalp psoriasis managed?

A
  1. Potent topical corticosteroid OD for 4 weeks +/- adjuncts if no improvement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

For which type of psoriasis is the following management used? Mild or moderate corticosteroid O/BD for 2 weeks

A

Facial/Flexural/Genital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do vitamin D analogues work?

A

Reduce cell division and differentiation which leads to reduced epidermal proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How are capillary haemiangiomas managed in children?

A

Propranolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which virus causes molluscum contagiousum and which family of viruses does it belong to?

A

Molluscum contagiousium virus

Poxviridae family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which condition is often seen along with molluscum

A

Atopic eczema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does molluscum present?

A

Pink white papules with central umbilication up to 5mm in diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which part of the body is not affected by molluscum

A

Palms and soles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the management option for eczema and itching related to molluscum

A

Emollient or mild topical corticosteroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which patients with molluscum should be referred

A

HIV +ve (GUM)
Eyelid margin or ocular lesions (Ophthal)
Anogenital lesions (GUM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which drug class commonly causes SJS

A

Anti-epileptics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which common medications can cause SJS

A

Penicillin
Sulphonamides
Anti-epileptics
Allopurinol
NSAIDs
OCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which malignancy is most common in post renal transplant patients

A

SCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What should the margins be in SCC excision

A

< 20mm 4mm
>20mm 6mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the management options for Actinic Keratoses

A
  1. Topical fluorouracil
  2. Topical diclofenac
  3. Topical imiquimod
  4. Cryo/curettage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the causative agent of serborrhoeic dermatitis?

A

Malassezia furfur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the classic features of seborrhoeic dermatitis?

A

Eczematous lesions in the scalpe, periorbital, auricular and nasolabial folds

Otitis external and blepharitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are some skin disorders associated with pregnancy

A

Atopic eruption
Polymorphic eruption
Pemphigoid gestationis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which is the commonest skin disorders associated with in pregnancy

A

Atopic eruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When is polymorphic eruption of pregnancy seen and how does it present

A

Third trimester
Pruritis
Abdominal striae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How is polymorphic eruption managed?
Emollients, mild topical or oral steroids
26
How do pemphigoid gestationis present?
Pruritic blistering lesions
27
How does pemphigoid gestationis spread?
Peri-umbilical outwards in the 2nd/3rd trimester
28
How is pemphigoid gestationis treated?
Oral corticosteroids
29
What are some side effects of topical corticosteroid treatment?
Skin depigmentation Skin atrophy Excessive hair growth
30
Which are the mild and moderate topical corticosteroids
Mild - hydrocortisone Moderate - betamethasone, clobetasone
31
Potent and very potent corticosteroids
Potent - fluticasone, betamethasone Very potent - clobetasol
32
Which are the most common medications associated with the development of erythema nodosum
Penicillins Sulphonamides COCP
33
What are some causes of erythema nodosum
Strep TB Brucellosis Sarcoidosis IBD Behcets Malignancy Pregnancy
34
Which common cardiac drug is known to exacerbate plaque psoriasis
Beta-blockers
35
Which antihypertensives are known to exacerbate psoriasis?
ACEi
36
Which drugs can exacerbate psoriasis
Beta blockers NSAIDs ACEi Lithium Infliximab Antimalarials
37
When should antivirals be prescribed in Shingles?
Within 72 hours of onset of symptoms
38
Which is the first line antiviral for herpes zoster?
Oral Famciclovir or Oral Valacyclovir
39
Which are they. Most commonly affected dermatomes in shingles
T1-L2
40
If the pain is not improving with neuropathic or OTC meds, in shingles, what else may be used?
Oral corticosteroids if in the first 2 weeks in immunocompetent adults
41
How does lichen planus present?
Itchy, popular rash - palms, soles, genitalia and flexors
42
Wickhams striae are seen in which condition?
Lichen planus
43
What is Koebner phenomenon
New skin lesions in lichen planus
44
How is lichen planus managed?
Potent topical steroids
45
How is oral lichen planus managed?
Benzydamine mouthwash
46
How are bullous pemphigoid and pemphigus vulgaris differentiated?
No mucosal involvement = bullous Mucosal involvement = pemphigus vulgaris
47
What is the different in blister type between pemphigoid and pemphigus
Pemphigoid - tense Pemphigus - flaccid
48
Dermatitis herpetiformis is associated with what?
Gluten sensitivity and coeliac disease
49
Which group of people is pemphigus vulgaris more common in?
Ashkenazi Jewish
50
How is pemphigus vulgaris managed?
Steroids + immunosuppressants
51
How does livedo reticularis present?
Purplish, none blanching, reticulated
52
Which conditions are associated with Vitiligo?
Autoimmune conditions such as thyroid disease, pernicious anaemia, SLE, alopecia, T1DM, Addisons
53
Which mediations might be used in the management of Vitiligo?
Topical corticosteroids
54
What are the criteria for mild, moderate and severe acne?
Mild: open and closed commodores with little to no inflammation Moderate: widespread non-inflamm lesions + papule and pustules Severe: inflammatory lesions, nodules, pitting, scarring
55
For mmild to moderate acne, what is the treatment?
12 week course of retinoid/retinoic acid + antibiotic or benzoyl peroxide
56
Which groups cannot take tetracylines?
Preggos Beastfeeding < 12y
57
What is a complication of long term topical antibiotic use in acne?
Gram negative folliculitis
58
Port Wine stain can be associated with which other condition?
Sturge Weber
59
Tear dropped shape rash =
Guttate psoriasis
60
Macular papular vesicular rash with crusting =
Chickenpox VZV
61
Which condition classily precedes Guttate psoriasis?
Strep throat
62
How does briminodine work?
Alpha adrenergic agonist
63
Which drugs are used in the management of acne rosacea?
1. Topical Ivermectin or metronidazole or azalaic acid 2. Topical ivermectin + doxy if severe 3. Flushing - briminodine
64
Which conditions are associated with Vitiligo?
T1DM, Addisons, Autoimmune thyroid problems, pernicious anaemia, alopecia
65
What is the difference between scarring and none scarring alopecia?
Scarring involves destruction of the hair follicle
66
Which conditions are linked to scarring alopecia
Lichen planus, discoid lupus, tinea capitis
67
which drugs can cause none scarring alopecia?
Cytotoxic drugs, colchicine, OCP, heparin, carbimazole
68
What is the difference between a Curling's ulcer and a Cushing's ulcer
Curlings - after burns Cushing's - after severe head trauma
69
Herald patch =
Pityriasis rosea
70
Raised pearly white umbilical lesions =
Molluscum
71
Which skin conditions are associated with diabetes?
Necrobiosis lipoidica Candida Staph Neuropathic ulcers Vitiligo Lipoatrophy Granuloma annulare
72
Target lesions =
Erythema multiforme
73
How can pityriasis be diagnosed?
Woods light showing yellow green fluorescence
74
Which drugs cause erythema nodosum
Penicillins, sulphonamides, COCP
75
What are the common causes of impetigo?
S. aureus S. pyogenes
76
How is impetigo treated?
1. Hydrogen peroxide 1% if not unwell 2. Topical fusidic acid 3. Topical mupirocin if (2) fails or MRSA 4. Oral fluclox in extensive disease (erythro if pen allergy)
77
Which is the most common type of BCC
Nodular
78
Which antihistamines are none sedating?
Loratadine Cetirizine
79
Which areas can plaque psorias commonly affecyt
Extensors Scalp Shins Trunk
80
Itchy papulovesicular rash =
Dermatitis herpetiformis
81
Which is the best skin test for contact dermatitis?
Patch testing

MSRA General (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions