Rheumatology Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

Which drug has side effects of pneumonitis, liver cirrhosis and myelosupression?

A

Methotrexate

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2
Q

What are the common side effects of sulfasalazine?

A

Rashes
Low sperm count
Heinz body anaemia
ILD

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3
Q

Luflunomide can cause which side effects?

A

Liver impairment
ILD
Hypertension

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4
Q

Which common rheumatology drug has ocular side effects and what are they?

A

Retinopathy
Corneal deposits

Hydroxychloroquine

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5
Q

Which rheumatology drugs cause proteinuria?

A

Gold and penicillamine

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6
Q

Which common rheum drugs cause reactivation of TB?

A

TABs and etanercept

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7
Q

Which antibodies test for Sjogrens?

A

Anti Ro (70%)
Anti La (30%)
ANA (70%)
RF (50%)

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8
Q

Anti smooth muscle antibodies can be tested for in what

A

Autoimmune Hepatitis

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9
Q

Anti centromere antibodies can be a sign of what

A

CREST

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10
Q

Anti Sm are specific for what?

A

SLE

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11
Q

How does methotrexate work

A

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

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12
Q

How long after stopping MTX should women abstain from pregnancy?

A

6 months

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13
Q

How often are bloods done in relation to MTX treatment?

A

LFT, UEs, FBC before and weekly until stable
Then every 2-3 months

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14
Q

Which drugs should not be prescribed with MTX

A

aspirin
trimethoprim
co-trimoxazole

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15
Q

Which enzyme is required to metabolise azathioprine?

A

Thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT)

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16
Q

How does azathioprine work?

A

Inhibits purine synthesis

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17
Q

Bone marrow depression
Pancreatitis
None melanoma skin cancer
N+V

Side effects of which drug

A

Azathiprine

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18
Q

Around 80% of patients with dermatomyositis are positive to which antibody?

A

ANA

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19
Q

Which antibiotics are used in the management of septic arthritis?

A
  1. Flucloxacillin. Clindamycin if penicillin allergic
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20
Q

What are the T score results and what do they mean

A

> 0 = reassure
0 - -1.5 = repeat DEXA 1-3 years
< -1.5 = offer bone protection with aledronate (bisphosophonate +/- calcium and vitamin D)

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21
Q

Antiphosopjholipd syndrome results in which blood results

A

Anti phosphospholipid positive (30%)
Thrombocytopenia
Extended APTT

22
Q

Crsytals in pseudo gout show what?

A

Positive bifringence

23
Q

In young patients with pseudogout, which other conditions might they have?

A

Haemochromatosis
Hyperparathyroidism
Low Mg
Low phos
Acromegaly
Wilsons DIsease

24
Q

When should aledronate be started in patients without DEXA

A

> 75 with fragility fracture

25
What are the types of Hypersensitivity reactions?
1 = anaphylaxis 2 = antibody cell complex 3 = antibody antigen complex 4 = cell mediated
26
Which antibodies are associated with drug induced lupus?
Antihistone (80-90%) ANA (100%)
27
Which common drugs can cause drug induced lupus?
Procainamide Hydralazine
28
What are the blood results seen in Osteomalacia?
Low vit D, Ca, Phos High ALP, High PTH
29
Why does Vit D/Ca correction need to be given to patients receiving bisphosphonates?
It can make hypocalcaemia worse
30
Which foods are high in purine?
Liver, kidneys, seafood, yeast
31
Which bones are most affected in Paget's disease?
Skull, spine, pelvis, leg bones
32
What causes Paget's
Uncontrolled bone turnover
33
What are the 6 As of Anky Spond
Apical fibrosis Anterior uveitis Aortic regurg AV node block Achilles tendonitis Amyloidosis
34
Which X-Ray changes are seen in OA
Loss of joint space Osteophytes Subchondral sclerosis Subchondral cysts LOSSteoarthritis
34
What does Schooners test, test?
Forward flexion which is reduced. Normal is >5cm increase
35
Which drugs can be used in the management of Anky Spond, when conventional treatments have failed?
Etanercept Adalimumab
36
What is second line in urate lowering therapy?
Febuxostat
37
Drug induced lupus is dsDNA negative
True
38
Which drugs less commonly cause lupus?
Isoniazid Minocycline Phenytoin
39
Which DMARDS are used in RA
Methotrexate Sulfasalazine Leflunomide Hydroxychloroquine
40
Which is the most common connective tissue disease which can cause Raynauds
Scleroderma
41
First line treatment in Raynaud's
CCB
42
What does CREST stand for?
Calcinosis Raynauds Oesophageal dysmotility Sclerodactyly Telangiactiasia
43
Which antibody test is useful in DIFFUSE cutaneous systemic sclerosis?
Anti SCL
44
Which antibody test is useful in LIMITED cutaneous systemic sclerosis?
Anti centromere
45
This antibody is positive in 90% of systemic sclerosis patients
ANA
46
What are second line options if patients are intolerant to alendronate
Risedronate Etidronate
47
SLE is more common in which groups?
F, black
48
Which are the most common primary malignant and benign bone tumours?
Malignant: osteosarcoma Benign: oesteochondroma
49