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A - RESPIHEMA > Diagnostic Test > Flashcards

Diagnostic Test Flashcards

(50 cards)

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1
Q

What anatomical feature does a chest x-ray assess?

A

The anatomical and appearance of the lungs

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2
Q

What type of radiation is used in a chest x-ray?

A

Low beam radiation

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3
Q

Can pregnant women undergo a chest x-ray?

A

Yes, but only if they wear ‘lead aprons’

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4
Q

What should be assessed on a pregnant woman before a chest x-ray?

A

LMP, sexual history, marital status, and occupation

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5
Q

What is another name for the Mantoux test?

A

Purified Protein Derivative (PPD)

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6
Q

What is the purpose of the Mantoux test?

A

Screening test for TB exposure

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7
Q

When should a patient return after a Mantoux test?

A

After 48-72 hours

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8
Q

Why should a patient return after a Mantoux test?

A

For the interpretation of the results

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9
Q

What classification indicates a patient is considered normal?

A

Normal Individual

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10
Q

What classification indicates a patient is suffering from high blood pressure?

A

Hypertensive

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11
Q

What is the classification for a patient with high blood sugar levels?

A

Diabetes Melitus

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12
Q

What chronic illness is characterized by obstructed airflow from the lungs?

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Diseases

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13
Q

What condition is characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways?

A

Asthma

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14
Q

What classification indicates a patient has impaired kidney function?

A

Chronic Kidney Disease

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15
Q

What is the PPD result threshold for a negative test?

A

<10mm - negative

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16
Q

What is the PPD result threshold for a positive test?

A

> 10mm - positive

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17
Q

What classification is given to individuals with compromised immune systems?

A

Immunocompromised Individual

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18
Q

What virus is associated with the classification of immunocompromised individuals?

A

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

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19
Q

What syndrome is associated with HIV?

A

Acquired immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)

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20
Q

What disease classification may involve cancer?

A

Cancer

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21
Q

What is the PPD result threshold for a negative test in immunocompromised individuals?

Study These Flashcards
A

<5mm - negative

22
Q

What is the PPD result threshold for a positive test in immunocompromised individuals?

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A

> 5mm - positive

23
Q

What does a positive PPD indicate?

24
Q

What imaging is used to assess the extent of lesions in TB?

25
What are the confirmatory tests for tuberculosis?
* Sputum Exam * TB QuantiFERON gold test (blood)
26
What should be done if the PPD test is negative?
Continue to monitor signs and symptoms
27
What is the purpose of a sputum exam?
To analyze respiratory secretions
28
What is the recommended time to collect a sputum sample?
Early in the morning (5-6 am)
29
What is the recommended amount of sputum to collect?
10-15ml (1 spoonful)
30
What should be done before collecting a sputum sample?
Don't do oral care, only rinse with water
31
What is the viability time for a sputum sample?
<30 minutes, properly stored
32
What is the purpose of bronchoscopy?
* Visualization * Bronchial washing * Bronchial suctioning * Collection of tissue sample
33
What is required before performing a bronchoscopy?
* Consent + money * Baseline vital signs for comparison * Fasting or NPO for 4-6 hours
34
What type of equipment is needed for emergency procedures?
Emergency Equipment
35
What is essential to have on hand during emergency procedures?
Emergency Medications
36
What is a tracheostomy set used for?
Emergency airway ## Footnote A tracheostomy set is essential in emergency situations to secure an airway.
37
What are common emergency medications?
* Epinephrine * Muscle Relaxant * Bronchodilator * Steroids ## Footnote Epinephrine is frequently highlighted in board exams.
38
What is the NPO requirement for procedures?
4-6 hours ## Footnote NPO stands for 'nil per os', meaning nothing by mouth.
39
What is the NPO requirement for surgery?
Minimum of 8 hours ## Footnote This is to ensure an empty stomach before anesthesia.
40
What should be assessed after a procedure?
Respiratory status ## Footnote Monitoring respiratory status is crucial for patient safety.
41
What is the positioning for uncomplicated cases?
Semi-fowler's position ## Footnote This position helps in reducing laryngeal edema.
42
What is the positioning for complicated cases?
Side lying position ## Footnote This position is important for patients at risk of aspiration.
43
What are the complications associated with airway management?
* Bleeding: bright red sputum, frequent swallowing * Laryngospasm: most fatal; complete obstruction of airway ## Footnote These complications require immediate medical intervention.
44
What is thoracentesis used for?
Removal of pleural fluid ## Footnote This procedure alleviates pressure on the lungs.
45
What is the best position for thoracentesis?
Orthopneic position ## Footnote This position allows for maximum lung expansion.
46
What does 'A' signify in patient transfer ability during thoracentesis?
Can transfer from bed to chair, can sit ## Footnote Mild signs and symptoms are observed in this category.
47
What does 'B' signify in patient transfer ability during thoracentesis?
Patient is not able to transfer but can sit ## Footnote This category presents mild to moderate signs and symptoms.
48
What does 'C' signify in patient transfer ability during thoracentesis?
Patient is not able to transfer and sit ## Footnote This situation indicates moderate to severe signs and symptoms.
49
What is the recommended positioning after thoracentesis?
Unaffected side for lung expansion ## Footnote This positioning helps in promoting lung recovery.
50
What is the head of bed angle recommended after thoracentesis?
30-45 degrees ## Footnote This angle assists in optimal lung expansion post-procedure.

A - RESPIHEMA (14 decks)

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