digestive system Flashcards

(42 cards)

1
Q

what embryological layer are teeth formed from?
a) neuroectoderm
b) ectoderm and mesoderm
c) mesoderm only
d) ectoderm only

A

ectoderm and mesoderm in complex interactions

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2
Q

where in the tooth is cementum found in carnivores?
a) crown
b) pulp cavity
c) root
d) furcation

A

Root, for anchoring the periodontal ligaments

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3
Q

where to nerves and vessels enter the tooth?

A

apical delata/ root canal

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4
Q

which term cannot be used to describe carnivore teeth?
a) heterodonty
b) diphyodont
c) hypsodont

A

C
a) heterodonty- different teeth in different regions of the mouth
b) biphyodont- 2 sets of teeth that develop sequentially
c) hypsodont- high crowned teeth that continue to develop throughout life. (herbivores, rodents)

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5
Q

with the modified triadan system, the last premolar is always…
a) 07
b) 08
c) 09

A

08

Central incisor always = 01
Canines always = 04
Last premolar always = 08
First molar always = 09

see anatomy for more canine and feline teeth questions

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6
Q

how many maxillary and mandibular cheek teeth do rabbits have?

A

max- 6- PM (06-08)- M- (09-11)
mand- 5 PM (07-08)- M- (09-11)

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7
Q

what are radicular teeth?

A

Aradicular teeth are teeth that do not develop a true root with an apex and instead grow continuously throughout the animal’s life. This type of tooth is also referred to as elodont or ever-growing. Rabbits, guinea pigs, and chinchillas are examples of animals that have aradicular hypsodont teeth, meaning they have high-crowned teeth that continuously grow.

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8
Q

in dogs, where does the zygomatic salivary duct enter the mouth?
a) just caudal to 09 maxillary tooth
b) At the level of the caudal margin of the last maxillary premolar (PM4)
c) under the tongue
c) caudal aspect of the hard palate

A

A
b- parotid duct

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9
Q

what is the relationship between the mandibular salivary gland and the sublingual salivary glands in dogs?

A

the MONOSTOMATIC salivary gland is almost confluent with the mandibular gland. usually removed together in sx.

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10
Q

minor salivary glands have which secretions?
a) mucinous
b) serous
c) mucinous and serous

A

A

major have both in dogs
parotid has only serous in other species

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11
Q

what is the parotid ducts relationship to the masseter muscle
a) mostly lateral to it
b) mostly medial to it
c) mostly dorsal to it
d) mostly ventral to it

A

A

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12
Q

where does the mandibular salivary duct open?

A

sublingual caruncle, closely related to the major sublingual duct

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13
Q

what is the zygomatic salivary gland found?

A

pterygopalatine fossa

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14
Q

what ligament attaches the spleen to the stomach?

A

gastrosplenic ligament

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15
Q

is there a ligament between the stomach and the diaphragm?

A

yes.
The attachment from the gastrosplenic ligament to the left
crus of the diaphragm is the phrenicosplenic ligament (lig.
phrenicolienale). The portion of the greater omentum that
attaches the left crus of the diaphragm to the fundus of the
stomach is the gastrophrenic ligament (lig. gastophrenicum).
The gastrosplenic ligament is the most well developed of these
three ligaments in the dog.

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16
Q

blood supply to the stomach comes from?
a) celiac
b) cranial mesenteric

A

celiac
left and right gastric- along lesser curvature
left and right gastro-epiploic- lesser curvature
short gastric- from the splenic artery

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17
Q

the right gastric and gastroepiploic drain in to the…

A

gastroduodenal vein
The left gastric and left gastroepiploic veins are tributaries of the splenic vein

18
Q

is there a ligament between the ascending colon and the ascending duodenum?

A

yes, duodenocolic ligament

19
Q

how are the ileum and cecum different in a cat and dog?

A

in dogs there is an ileocolic and a cecocolic orifice that are separate. there is no direct communication in dogs. in cats the ceacum is a blind sac at the end of the ascending colon

in horses the ileum enters the cecum and there is a separate exit into the colon

20
Q

the first part of the duodenum is supplied by which artery?
a) hepatic
b) cranial mesenteric
c) caudal mesenteric
d) directly from celiac

A

A heptic which comes from the celiac

21
Q

in the cow, where does the reticulum lye in relation to the rumen?

A

cranial and on the left. The rumen is also left-sided. The omasum and abomasum are right-sided.

22
Q

how many cats have an accessory pancreatic duct?
a) 1%
b)15%
c) 20%
d) 25%

23
Q

in the dog, does the pancreas arise from one, two or three primordia?

A
  1. hence 2 ducts
24
Q

which is true in dogs?
a) the pancreatic duct enters the major and the cystic duct enters the minor duodenal papilla
b) the pancreatic duct and common bile duct join to enter the major duodenal papilla
c) the pancreatic duct and common bile duct join to enter the minor duodenal papilla
d) the accessory pancreatic duct enters the minor duodenal papilla

A

D
In a medium-sized dog, the CBD is 5-cm long and 2.5 mm in diameter and empties into the duodenum 1.5 cm to 6.0 cm distal to the pylorus at the major duodenal papilla. The CBD of the dog opens near the smaller of two pancreatic ducts (thepancreatic duct) at the major duodenal papilla; the larger pancreatic duct (accessory pancreatic duct) opens a few centimeters distally in the minor duodenal papilla.
the accessory pancreatic duct is larger and drains the left lobe, and the pancreatic duct drains the right side (somehow)

25
which is true in cats? a) the pancreatic duct enters the major and the cystic duct enters the minor duodenal papilla b) the pancreatic duct and common bile duct join to enter the major duodenal papilla c) the pancreatic duct and common bile duct join to enter the minor duodenal papilla d) the accessory pancreatic duct enters the major duodenal papilla
B
26
how many peristaltic contractions should the stomach do per minute?
4-5 S-1-3
27
which nerve innervates the muscles of the pharynx and palate?
CN 9- glossopharyngeal and vagus CN 10 https://www.physio-pedia.com/Anatomy_and_Physiology_of_Swallowing
28
which of the following is not a function of the glossopharyngeal nerve? a) general visceral afferent provide sensory information from the carotid body b) special visceral afferent provide taste from the caudal tongue c) general visceral efferent parasympathetic innerveration of the mandibular salivary gland d) general somatic efferent innervation of the stylopharyngeus muscle
C- but it is parasympathetic to the parotid and zygomatic salivary glands
29
which nerves control swallowing?
30
the primary oesophageal peristaltic wave is initiated in a) the pharynx b) the cranial oesophageal sphincter c) just caudal to the cranial oesophageal sphincter
A secondary are initiated in the oesophagus
31
which of the following stimulate the basic electric rhythm of the gastrointestinal tract? a) noradrenaline b) gastrin c) secretin d) Ach
B, D stimulate, the others inhibit Function of the BER --> coordinate peristaltic and other motor activity; contractions occur only during the depolarising part of the waves
32
which nerve innervates the external anal sphincter? a) sciatic b) vagus c) pudendal d) rectal
C
33
where is cholecystokinin produced and what is its role in digestion? a) mainly from the liver, stimulates biliary bicarbonate secretion b) from the duodenum, jejunum and ileum, but mainly the duodenum, stimulates enzyme secretion form the pancreas and inhibits gastric emptying c) from the distal stomach, stimulated gastric acid secretion d) from the duodenum, stimulated bicarbonate secretion from the pancreas
B. stimulated by protein and fat in the small intestine
34
which is false? a) gastrin is produced in the distal stomach, stimulating gastric acid secretion and gastric motility b) secretin is produced in the duodenumstimulating pancreatic and biliary bicarbonate secretion c) Motilin is produced in the duodenum and jejunum, stimulating enzyme secretion from the pancreas and regulating insulin secretion d) gastric inhibitory peptide is produced in the duodenum and upper jejunum, inhibiting gastric motility and secretions, and stimulating insulin secretion if enough glucose is present
C is false motilin probably regulates motility between meals
35
where is somatostatin produced (more than one may be correct)? a) pancreatic islets b) gi muscle c) gi mucosa d) gi myenteric plexus
A, C
36
how does peritonitis cause ileus?
Peritoneointestinal relfex- results from irritation of the peritoneum --> inhibits the excitatory enteric nerves --> can cause intestinal paralysis, especially in patient with peritonitis Other reflexes Renointestinal - inhibit intestinal activity as a result of kidney infection - Vesicointestinal - inhibit intestinal activity as a result of bladder infection
37
how does the pancreas protect against autodigestion?
pancreatic enzymes are stored in an inactive form (zymogens), The acini also release trypsin inhibitors (trypsin is one enzyme from protein digestion)
38
where are insulin, glucagon and somatostatin produced in the pancreas?
islets of langerhans- beta, alpha and delta cells respectively
39
what are the functions of insulin?
Liver - promotes synthesis of glycogen, protein and fat; inhibits catabolic effect of glucagon. increased use of glucose, inhibits gluconeogenesis Adipose tissue - TGA storage in fat cells muscle- promotes glucose uptake, storage of glycogen
40
what does somatostatin do? a) decrease secretion of insulin and glucagon b) increase secretion of insulin and glucagon c) increase secretion of insulin d) increase secretion of glucagon
A
41
which form of bilirubin is stored and concentrated in the gallbladder
uncongugated
42
what are the arrows pointing to?
blue spleen green ventriculus of stomach proventriculus small