Dion Training CompTIA A+ Core 1 Flashcards

Question

HDMI Connector

Answer 1

Used to connect a monitor, TV, or another device for a video output display

Answer 2

Provides net access to local area networks over a wired connection

Answer 3

▪ An optical connector that allows high quality audio to a surround sound system ▪ USB 2.0 speeds are good for a microphone, a mouse, or a keyboard

Answer 4

▪ Allows the ability to place a metal cable from the desk to the computer tower to ensure the computer tower is not stolen

Answer 5

A D-shaped sub miniature pin that goes into the back of a computer and has two thumb screws on the side

Answer 6

A cable that sends data in ones and zeros in a straight line, but it can only send one bit at a time, which is measured at the speed of cables in bits per second

Answer 7

▪ A slow speed connection for much older mice keyboards and other external modems ▪ A USB 1 and a USB 2 run at a much slower speed and should be split across a hub ▪ A USB 1.0 has the slowest speed out of a USB with a maximum speed of 1.5 megabits per second

Answer 8

Known as full speed and runs at 12 megabits per second

Answer 9

▪ Known as high speed and runs at 480 megabits per second

Answer 10

▪ Known as super speed and is at least 5 gigabits per second

Answer 11

▪ Runs at 5 gigabits per second

Answer 12

▪ Runs at 10 gigabits per second

Answer 13

▪ Runs at 20 gigabits per second

Answer 14

▪ The most modern version of USB and can run at 40 gigabits per second ▪ A USB 4 and a USB 3.2 gen 2x2 must have a shorter cable because that is going to give the best performance ▪ The longer a cable, the more likelihood that the cable would not work as efficiently, or even at all ● Type A ● Type C ● Type B ● Type B Mini ● Type B Micro

Answer 15

Known as high-definition multimedia interface and it is the most widely used video interface in the world ▪ Lower resolution HDMI can support HD standard, but higher resolution HDMI can support up to 4k ● Full-Size (Type A Connector) ● Mini Connector (Type C) ● Micro Connector (Type D) ▪ Category 1 ● The standard HDMI that is used for video content ▪ Category 2 ● The high-speed HDMI that uses higher resolutions

Answer 16

▪ Higher speeds that are specified for data transfer using HDMI

Answer 17

▪ Used for digital displays with a high-performance replacement ● Full-Size Display Port ● Mini Display Port ▪ Display Ports can support high speed data transfer over its cables starting off with 2.7 gigabits per second, but can go up to 20 gigabits per second

Answer 18

Used to support both analog and digital outputs ● DVI A ● DVI D ● DVI I ▪ DVI A only supports analog signals, DVI D only supports digital signals, and DVI I support both signals

Answer 19

▪ The graphic standard that used a 15-pin standard analog video interface port that would connect to the computer

Answer 20

▪ A display interface that is used for data transfer ● Thunderbolt version 1 and 2 used a physical connector that were backwards compatible ● All thunderbolt version 3 will support USB-C, but not all USB-C we'll support Thunderbolt 3

Answer 21

Supports speeds of up to 40 gigabits per second for data transfer over cables

Answer 22

A specific proprietary connector that was created by apple their mobile devices

Answer 23

▪ The standard cables that are the main method of connecting a storage device to a motherboard inside of a desktop computer ▪ The SATA cable has two cables, one is a seven-pin data cable, which does not supply any power, and the other is a 15-pin SATA power connector to provide the power to the device ▪ SATA version 1 can support speeds of up to 1.5 gigabits per second, version 2 can support speeds of up 3 gigabits per second, and version 3 can support speeds of up to 6 gigabits per second

Answer 24

A SATA cable on the outside of the case

Answer 25

▪ The old IDE connectors with the exact same cables and connectors and standards but renamed for branding ▪ Parallel devices have each cable support up to two devices and they both can communicate at the same time

Answer 26

A 4-pin connector that would attach from the power supply directly to a device

Answer 27

▪ A legacy parallel bus connector that allows multiple devices to be Daisy chained together ▪ A narrow SCIS can support up to 7 devices, but a wide SCIS can support up to 15 devices

Answer 28

▪ Printed circuit board that contains computer components and provides connectors

Answer 29

▪ Process of accepting data in a form that the computer can use

Answer 30

Process of displaying the processed data or information

Answer 31

▪ Actions performed by the CPU when receiving information ▪ Processing is conducted by the CPU or GPU

Answer 32

▪ Process of saving or retaining digital data, temporarily or permanently ● Temporary storage o Non-persistent ● Permanent storage o Persistent ▪ Data transferred across the motherboard measures the speed of data in MHz or GHz ● Volatile storage o Speed is fast ● Non-volatile storage o Speed decreases rapidly

Answer 33

Full-size motherboard and measures 12” x 9.6” in size (305mm x 244 mm)

Answer 34

▪ Smaller than ATX but contains the same features (11.2” x 8.2” / 284mm x 208 mm)

Answer 35

▪ Measures 9.6 inches squared (244mm x 244mm) ▪ Micro-ATX is the same as ATX but only has 4 expansion card slots

Answer 36

▪ Designed as a replacement for the ATX but never produced

Answer 37

▪ Measures 6.7” x 6.7” with only one expansion slot (170 x 170mm squared) ● Nano-ITX ● Pico-ITX ● Mobile-ITX

Answer 38

▪ Shape, layout, and type of case in a power supply ● ATX o Full-size ATX o Mini-ATX o Micro-ATX ● ITX o Mini-ITX

Answer 39

▪ The brains of the computer that execute the different programing codes in the software and firmware ▪ The CPU is performing the basic operations for every instruction in the computer ▪ Once the processor has done the execution of the instruction, it will send that information back to the memory so that it can be stored and used for later use

Answer 40

▪ Can support a maximum of 4 gigabytes of Ram

Answer 41

▪ An extension of the X86 instruction set to be able to support 64-bit operations ▪ 32-bit systems can only run 32-bit programs, but 64-bit processors can run 64-bit programs and 32-bit programs because they are fully backwards compatible

Answer 42

▪ Used for low-power devices (tablets and cell phones) ● Extended battery life ● Produces less heat ▪ RISC systems use code to do tasks

Answer 43

▪ The ability to insert the CPU without pressing down and applying pressure to it ▪ If you bend, snap, or break a pin from a processor, the entire processor is no longer functional

Answer 44

▪ A form factor that positions all the pins to be able to connect the CPU processor into the socket

Answer 45

▪ The processor has the pins and the socket have holes which allows the holes to align when installing the processor

Answer 46

▪ Multiple CPU's or processors installed on a motherboard ▪ You cannot upgrade or change out the processor on a mobile device ▪ The two main types of CPU sockets are LGA, which is made by Intel, and we have PGA, which has made by AMD.

Answer 47

▪ Single stream of instructions is being sent by a software application to a processor ▪ Manufacturers developed a way to allow software to run multiple parallel threads at the same time

Answer 48

▪ Traditional workstation and servers have multiple processors

Answer 49

▪ Single CPU with multiple processors inside ▪ Multiple processors have multiple cores inside the CPU

Answer 50

▪ Two CPUs inside a single chip

Answer 51

Four CPUs inside a single chip

Answer 52

Six CPUs inside a single chip

Answer 53

▪ Eight CPUs inside a single chip ● Hyper-threading / SMT ● Symmetric Multiprocessing ● Multi-core Processors ● Virtualization

Answer 54

provide processor extensions to support virtualization

Answer 55

▪ Extended Page Table (EPT) ● Intel ▪ Rapid Virtualization Indexing (RVI) ● AMD

Answer 56

Features of software virtualization are underlying and supported by the hardware processor

Answer 57

1. Review the motherboard’s documentation 2. Place the motherboard aligned at the rear of the case 3. Insert standoffs that match the hole in the motherboard 4. Install the processor and memory modules before installing the motherboard 5. Verify the standoffs are properly aligned prior to installing the motherboard 6. Secure the standoffs using the appropriate screw type 7. Install the power supply, disk drives, and add-on cards

Answer 58

▪ 32-bit expansion card ● PCI 32-bit cards support only a maximum bus speed of 33 MHz or 133 MBps

Answer 59

▪ 64-bit expansion card (133 MHz)

Answer 60

▪ 266 MHz up to 533 MHz ● PCI and PCI-X are used for networking cards and audio cards

Answer 61

▪ Used for video graphics cards ● AGP 1x ● AGP 2x ● AGP 4x ● AGP 8x

Answer 62

▪ PCIe x1 ▪ PCIe x4 ▪ PCIe x8 ▪ PCIe x16 ● PCIe x1 is used for modems, network cards, wireless cards, input/output devices, and audio cards ● PCIe x16 is used for graphics cards

Answer 63

▪ Connects to the bus to get data to and from the motherboard for external devices ▪ PCIe bus is determined by the motherboard and its form factor ● 16 PCIe lanes ● 24 PCIe lanes ● 32 PCIe lanes ▪ PCIe x16 and PCIe x1 maximize the number of lanes used on a motherboard ● PCIe 1.0 ● PCIe 2.0 ● PCIe 3.0 ● PCIe 4.0 ● PCIe 5.0 ▪ All PCIe slots provide 25 watts of power ▪ PCIe x16 card slot provides up to 75 watts of power ● Up-plugging o Putting smaller card in a larger slot ● Down-plugging o Putting larger card in a smaller slot

Answer 64

▪ Standard PCIe card with smaller form factor ▪ Mini PCIe cards are used inside of laptops, specifically for wireless networking ● PCIe x1 o Modems o Networking cards o Wireless cards o Audio cards ● PCIe x16 o Graphics and video cards (3D) o Gaming systems

Answer 65

▪ Gives quality signal for monitors

Answer 66

▪ A specialized processor designed to accelerate graphics rendering

Answer 67

▪ Embeds the memory to give additional capability to offload from the system

Answer 68

▪ Installed outside of the card (Thunderbolt, DisplayPort, and HDMI)

Answer 69

▪ Takes video signals and processes them inside the computer ▪ used for recording footage and for security devices

Answer 70

▪ Cables are plugged into a computer to get all cable TV channels

Answer 71

▪ Gives better output through audio ● RJ45 Port o 1 Gbps ● Install NIC into PCIe x1 slot o 10 Gbps ● ST / SC / MT-RJ connector o Supports fiber card

Answer 72

▪ Special type of expansion card on a motherboard

Answer 73

▪ Heat from different components inside the computer

Answer 74

▪ Type of cooling that doesn’t rely on moving parts or power

Answer 75

▪ Finned metal device that radiates heat away from the processor

Answer 76

▪ Compound that ensures heat transfer by eliminating air gaps ● Passive cooling requires no power to operate and is silent when operating

Answer 77

▪ Uses a fan to cool down the heat from the device

Answer 78

o Closed Loop System ▪ Cooling of a single component o Open Loop System ▪ Liquid cooling-based system of different components o Liquid Cooling ▪ High performance systems

Answer 79

▪ Cycled between positives and negatives repeatedly

Answer 80

is to deliver DC to all components inside the PC when receiving an AC power supply

Answer 81

▪ Allows to unhook the connectors and detach from the unit ▪ Modular power supply frees up space inside of the computer

Answer 82

Provides power to the motherboard ● ATX Standard o 20-pin connector ● ATX 12V o 24-pin connector ● 20+4 Pin o Two connectors are coupled together before plugging into a 24-pin connector

Answer 83

▪ Has a four, six, or eight-pin connector

Answer 84

▪ Used for IDE and PATA hard disks, CDs, and DVD drives

Answer 85

▪ One connector that can support multiple devices

Answer 86

▪ US-based power supply

Answer 87

▪ Europe and Asia power supply

Answer 88

will support multi-voltage outputs

Answer 89

▪ Detects the outlet and converts it into the voltage of DC

Answer 90

Wire that provides current at a particular voltage ● 12 VDC Rail o Cable or wire that provides 12 VDC o The 12 VDC rail is the most used voltage in the PC

Answer 91

▪ Power supply’s output capacity or capability ▪ The devices inside a computer require power from a power supply

Answer 92

A x V ▪ I x V

Answer 93

▪ Buy a power supply that is bigger than calculated

Answer 94

▪ A 500-watt power supply that is 70% efficient will draw 714 watts ▪ A 500-watt power supply that is 80% efficient will draw 625 watts

Answer 95

100% efficient

Answer 96

▪ Used to load applications and files into a non-persistent and fast storage area

Answer 97

High-speed memory

Answer 98

Mass storage device that holds more data but is slower than a cache

Answer 99

▪ Permanent storage area

Answer 100

▪ Temporary storage area/non-persistent storage

Answer 101

Pulls the files from the disc into memory and replaces the old file

Answer 102

Uses an electronic system that can access the RAM with instant speed

Answer 103

▪ Processor reaching the files inside RAM ● Single Channel Memory Controller o 32 or 64 bits ● x86 o 32-bit ● x64 o 64-bit ▪ An x86 or 32-bit processor can address a maximum of 4 GB of RAM ▪ An x64 or 64-bit processor can access more than 4 GB of RAM (8, 16, 32, or 64 GB)

Answer 104

▪ Can put any size of module in any slot ● Dual Inline Memory Module (DIMM) o With 240 or 184-pin connector

Answer 105

▪ Most common type of memory ● PC133 o 133 MHz

Answer 106

▪ Calculated based on the bus speed and the width of the data bus

Answer 107

▪ Oldest type of memory that requires frequent refreshing ● DRAM storage cell is dynamic

Answer 108

▪ First memory module that operates at the same speed as the motherboard bus (168-pin connector) ● PC66 (66 MHz bus) ● PC133 (133 MHz bus) ● PC266 (266 MHz bus)

Answer 109

▪ Doubles the transfer speed of an SRAM module (184-pin connector)

Answer 110

▪ Higher latency and has faster access to the external bus (240-pin connector) ● PC2-4200 o 4200 MB/s or 4.2 GB/s

Answer 111

▪ Runs at a lower voltage and at a higher speed than DDR2 (240 keyed pin connector) ● PC3-10600 o 10600 MB/s or 10.6 GB/s ▪ DDR3 throughput is 6.4 to 17 GB/s with a maximum module size of 8GB per memory module

Answer 112

▪ Classified as DDR3, DDR4, or DDR5

Answer 113

▪ Uses two different memory modules to increase the performance and throughput ● Single-channel Memory o 64-bit data bus ● Dual-channel Memory o 128-bit data bus ▪ Interleaving ● Provides increased performance ● In multi-channel configurations, use the same model, speed, and throughput of memory

Answer 114

● Uses one memory module on one bus (64-bit data bus)

Answer 115

● Requires two memory modules and two memory slots on the motherboard (128-bit data bus)

Answer 116

● Uses three memory modules and three memory slots (192-bit data bus)

Answer 117

● Uses four memory modules and four memory slots (256-bit data bus)

Answer 118

● Give faster speeds and add memory for storage

Answer 119

▪ Standard memory that does not check for errors and allows data to be put in or taken out

Answer 120

Performs basic error checking and ensures the memory contents are reliable ● A parity check does basic calculation o Every bit has an associated parity bit ▪ Bits can only be a zero or one

Answer 121

▪ Detects and corrects an error

Answer 122

▪ Additional hardware (register) between memory and CPU ● The system requires buffering or registering the data to reduce the electrical load

Answer 123

▪ Supports ECC modules

Answer 124

▪ Has an internal error checking for its modules ● DDR5 modules can still be sold as ECC or non-ECC modules

Answer 125

▪ Space on a hard drive that is allocated by the OS and pretends to be memory ● Check the available memory and the free memory

Answer 126

▪ A file that is hidden on a storage device and pretend as system memory

Answer 127

▪ Program that a CPU uses to start the computer system ▪ BIOS serves as a method of configuring the motherboard using a textbased interface

Answer 128

▪ Software on a chip and contains BIOS program code in the flash memory of a motherboard

Answer 129

▪ Supports 64-bit processors and provides a GUI

Answer 130

▪ Program a computer’s microprocessor uses to start and boot after being turned on ▪ BIOS is an example of firmware ● Power-on self-test ● Hardware configuration ● Boot order setup

Answer 131

▪ Type of chip embedded in the motherboard and can be upgraded through flashing

Answer 132

internal lithium-ion battery that can last up to 10 years

Answer 133

▪ Diagnostic testing sequence to check the computer’s basic input/output system

Answer 134

▪ Keyboard is not detected ● Two short beeps and one long beep

Answer 135

▪ To configure the settings inside CMOS, enter the BIOS configuration environment ▪ BIOS relied on a text-based menu system and a keyboard as its system of input

Answer 136

▪ Updated form of BIOS that allows keyboard and mouse as input and provides a GUI ● Supports 64-bit systems ● Supports larger HDDs and SSDs (9.4 zettabytes ~ 9.4 x 10^21 bytes) ● Supports the new GUID Partition Table (GPT) format ● Faster boot-up system ● Uses a larger ROM size ▪ Disable booting from an optical drive or USB drive ▪ Configure the system to boot from the installed hard drive using the installed OS ▪ Boot the OS using PXE as the primary option

Answer 137

▪ Performed during upgrades, security fixes, or feature improvements ● Back up the configuration and information ● Use a USB flash drive to flash the firmware ● The BIOS or UEFI will copy the firmware to the system and overwrite the old code

Answer 138

loading and booting up the OS

Answer 139

use MBR to hold the boot information

Answer 140

use GPT to hold the boot information

Answer 141

▪ Used to protect access to the BIOS or UEFI configuration program and prevents access from unauthorized users

Answer 142

▪ Used to lock access to the computer

Answer 143

▪ Password that locks access to a hard drive connected to the system and requires the end user’s password

Answer 144

▪ Enabled in the UEFI interface and settings and is not supported by BIOS

Answer 145

▪ a special type of malware

Answer 146

the USB ports on the motherboard

Answer 147

▪ Set passwords ▪ Enable secure boot ▪ Restrict or disable USB ports

Answer 148

of all secure operations of a computing system

Answer 149

▪ Cryptographic module embedded in a computer system that endorses trusted execution and attests to boot settings and metrics

Answer 150

is used to scan the boot metrics in the OS files to verify signatures and then use them to sign the report

Answer 151

▪ Specification for hardware-based storage of digital certificates, keys, hashed passwords, and other user and platform identification information ● TPM is a hardware RoT ● Secured boot-up ● Provides encryption ▪ A TPM can be managed in Windows via tpm.msc console or through group policy

Answer 152

▪ Appliance for generating and storing cryptographic keys that is less susceptible to tampering and insider threats

Answer 153

▪ Quiet mode ● Reduces the fan speed and allows higher temperatures to occur ▪ Balanced mode ● Normal setting on most computers by default ▪ Cool mode ● Able to run the fans harder and faster to create more air flow

Answer 154

the processor generates excess heat

Answer 155

▪ Temperature is rising ● Speed up ▪ Temperature is lower than set point ● Turn off or slow down

Answer 156

▪ Form of mass storage device

Answer 157

▪ Non-volatile storage device that holds the data when the system is powered down (GB or TB)

Answer 158

▪ Device that is placed inside the computer case or tower

Answer 159

▪ Device that is placed outside the computer case or tower and connected to an external port

Answer 160

▪ Uses flash memory technology to implement mass storage ▪ Faster and more durable

Answer 161

▪ 2.5 inch ● Used when replacing an HDD inside a laptop or a small desktop ▪ 1.8 inch ● Used inside of small laptops ▪ M2 ● Like a memory chip, small, sleek, and light ● Used in a laptops

Answer 162

▪ Older SSDs rely on SATA connectors (7+15 pin SATA) ● Used in both 2.5- and 1.8-inch SSDs

Answer 163

● Allows the SSD to be used as an adapter card that can be plugged into a combined data and power port on the motherboard ● SSDs are faster than SATA speeds

Answer 164

● A communication protocol used with the M2 form factor to plug directly into the motherboard

Answer 165

● Use PCIe slots on the motherboard

Answer 166

▪ Higher speed from the SSD ▪ Larger and cheaper storage from the HDD

Answer 167

▪ Created as a transitional technology ▪ Less common today ▪ Looks like a hard drive (2.5-inch form factor) ▪ Has both an SSD and an HDD in it

Answer 168

Combination of multiple physical hard disks that is recognized by the operating system

Answer 169

RAID 0 is great for speed but provides no data redundancy o RAID 0 has no loss of space on the disks

Answer 170

RAID 1 provides full redundancy

Answer 171

Striping with parity o One disk can be lost without losing any data

Answer 172

o Double striping with parity o Two disks can be lost without losing any data

Answer 173

o Redundancy and performance

Answer 174

▪ Protection against the loss of erased data (RAID 1/RAID 5)

Answer 175

▪ Raid can function even when a component fails (RAID 1/RAID 5/RAID 6)

Answer 176

▪ RAID with two independent zones with full data access (RAID 10) ▪ RAIDs provide redundancy and high availability

Answer 177

▪ Capable of being removed or replaced without disruption or powering off the device ▪ Hot-swappable drives are safe to remove without losing the data ● This feature gives the ability to add/remove additional storage

Answer 178

▪ Technical standard developed by Intel that allows hot-swappable capability with SATA devices

Answer 179

replacement for PATA as an internal connector

Answer 180

of 10, 20, or 40 Gbps

Answer 181

▪ Takes an internal hard drive and puts it in an enclosure ● Memory Stick o Proprietary protocol that is used on Sony devices ● The original secure digital (SD) cards had a maximum capacity of 2 GB o Original (Up to 25 MB/s) o UHS-1 (Up to 108 MB/s) o UHS-2 (Up to 312 MB/s) o UHS-3 (Up to 624 MB/s) ● A tape drive uses a magnetic tape and is placed into a reader o Standard Tape ▪ 140 GB data o LTO Ultrium Tape ▪ 3 TB data

Answer 182

is any device that can store data and can be carried

Answer 183

is the same type of device that is used inside a system

Answer 184

▪ Oldest form of optical drive that stores 74 to 80 minutes of music (650- 700 MB)

Answer 185

▪ Stores 4.7 GB or 8.4 GB (DL)

Answer 186

▪ Stores 25 GB or 50 GB (DL)

Answer 187

▪ Read-only (ROM) ▪ Write-once (R) ▪ Write-many/Erasable (RW/RAM/RE) ▪ The CD-ROM, DVD-ROM, or BD-ROM is a read-only disc ● Write-once (R) o Writing that cannot be erased (CD-R, DVD-R, DVD+R, and BD-R) ▪ CD-RW allows to write and erase the file to create a new one ● DVD-RW versions are like the CD-RW versions ● The DVD-RAM discs are like DVD-RW but have a different type of form factor ● Blu-ray Disc (BD-RE) o Has write-many type of disc called erasable disc o BD-RE is like CD-RW or DVD-RW

Answer 188

CD (1X = 150 KB/s) ● 1X = Music ● 2X/44X/16X/24X =Data ● 52X drive is 150 KB/s multiplied by 52 (7800 KB/s or 7.6 MB/s) ▪ DVD (1X = 1.385 MB/s) ▪ Blu-ray (1X = 4.5 MB/s)

Answer 189

▪ Host computer installed with a hypervisor that can be used to install and manage multiple guest operating systems or virtual machines (VMs)

Answer 190

o Runs directly on the host hardware and functions as the operating system

Answer 191

o Runs within the normal operating system

Answer 192

● Server-based (Terminal services) o Server-based solution that runs the application on servers in a centralized location ● Client-based (Application streaming) o Client-based solution that allows an application to be packaged up and streamed directly to a user’s PC

Answer 193

▪ Type of virtualization applied by a host operating system to provision an isolated execution environment for an application ● Docker ● Parallels Virtuozzo ● OpenVZ

Answer 194

all the organizations hosted on that same server are affected

Answer 195

▪ Set up virtual servers in the cloud with proper failover, redundancy, and elasticity ▪ Hosting all VMs on the same type of hypervisor can also be exploited ● Proper configurations ● Patched and up-to-date hypervisor ● Tight access control

Answer 196

▪ Manages the distribution of the physical resources of a server to the VMs ● Type I o Bare metal ● Type II o Hosted

Answer 197

▪ Each container relies on a common host OS as the base for each container ▪ Container-based virtualization has less resources because it doesn’t require its own copy of the OS for individual container

Answer 198

▪ Allows for the full integration of the storage, network, and servers without hardware changes

Answer 199

▪ Encapsulates computer programs from the underlying OS on which they are executed

Answer 200

▪ Hosts desktop OSs within a virtualized environment hosted by a centralized server or server farm

Answer 201

▪ An isolated environment for analyzing pieces of malware

Answer 202

▪ Allows for the testing and running of software applications for different operating systems ● Emulation o System imitation ● Virtualization o New “physical” machine

Answer 203

▪ Improves the performance of virtual memory when running multiple virtual machines on a single physical host ● Intel o Extended Page Table (EPT) ● AMD o Rapid Virtualization Indexing (RVI)

Answer 204

● 32-bit processor ● 32-bit operating system can only access 4GB of RAM

Answer 205

● 16 exabytes of RAM ● 32-bit processor cannot run a 64-bit application

Answer 206

▪ Reduced instruction set and computer architecture in a computer processor

Answer 207

▪ Amount of physical memory installed on a physical server ▪ Barebones Windows installation takes 20-50 gigabytes of space ▪ Linux installation takes 4-8 gigabytes of space ▪ Mac environment takes 20-40 gigabytes of space

Answer 208

▪ CPU, processor, and capabilities ▪ System memory ▪ Networking ▪ Storage

Answer 209

▪ Threat attempts to get out of an isolated VM and send commands to the underlying hypervisor ▪ VM escape is easier to perform on a Type II hypervisor than a Type I hypervisor ● Patched ● Up to date

Answer 210

▪ Threat attempts to move from one VM to another on the same host ● VM Hopping o VM to VM ● VM Escape o VM to hypervisor or host OS ▪ Up to date ▪ Patched ▪ Securely configured

Answer 211

▪ Separates running processes and programs to mitigate system failures or software vulnerabilities

Answer 212

▪ Occurs when an attacker circumvents sandbox protections to gain access to the protected OS or other privileged processes o Patched o Up to date o Strong endpoint software protection o Limited extensions or add-ons

Answer 213

▪ Migrates the virtual machine from one host to another while it is running ▪ Ensure that live migration only occurs on a trusted network or utilizes encryption

Answer 214

▪ Leftover pieces of data that may exist in the hard drive which are no longer needed ● Encrypt virtual machine storage location ● Destroy encryption key

Answer 215

▪ Uncontrolled deployment of virtual machines

Answer 216

▪ The practice of using a network of remote servers hosted on the Internet

Answer 217

▪ Services experience very little downtime when using the cloud ▪ Availability is the percentage of uptime versus downtime

Answer 218

▪ Ability to increase the number of items in a system at a linear rate or less than a linear rate

Answer 219

▪ Increasing the power of the existing resources in the working environment

Answer 220

▪ Adding additional resources to help handle the extra load being experienced

Answer 221

▪ The ability to quickly scale up or down ● Elasticity is the system’s ability to handle changes to demand in real time

Answer 222

▪ Being charged for a service on a pay per use basis The benefit of using the cloud is that most things are done on a metered basis

Answer 223

▪ Charging is based upon the actual usage of the service being consumed ▪ Measured services are charged based on the actual usage of the service being consumed

Answer 224

▪ The ability to minimize the costs by putting VMs on other servers ▪ Shared resources is pooling together all the hardware to make a cloud provider

Answer 225

▪ The ability to store data that can spread to other places depending on the configuration

Answer 226

▪ Systems and users interact with devices on public networks, such as the Internet and other clouds

Answer 227

▪ Systems and users that only have access with other devices inside the same private cloud or system

Answer 228

▪ Combination of private and public clouds

Answer 229

▪ Collaborative effort where infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns

Answer 230

▪ The ability for customers to share computing resources in a public or private cloud

Answer 231

▪ Assigns a particular resource to a single organization

Answer 232

▪ The need to procure hardware, software, and personnel necessary to run the organization’s cloud ▪ On-premise solution allows the ability to control all the physical and logical access to servers

Answer 233

▪ Third-party service provider that provides all the hardware and facilities needed to maintain a cloud solution

Answer 234

Hosts desktop OSs within a virtualized environment hosted by a centralized server or server farm

Answer 235

▪ Performs all the application processing and data storage

Answer 236

▪ Hosts all the desktop instances on a single server or server farm

Answer 237

▪ Maintained by a service provider and provided to the end user as a service

Answer 238

▪ Copies the desktop image to a local machine prior to being used by the end user

Answer 239

▪ Amount of space on a cloud-based server as file storage

Answer 240

▪ The ability to synchronize from different devices using a single account

Answer 241

▪ Network of servers that locates the nearest server to minimize delay or download time

Answer 242

▪ Enables the network to be intelligently and centrally controlled, or programmed, using software applications ● Can be changed automatically by the network itself using automation and orchestration

Answer 243

▪ Focuses on the communication resource requests or information about the network as a whole

Answer 244

▪ Uses the information from the applications and decides how to route a data packet on the network

Answer 245

▪ Contains the network devices that receive information about where to move the data

Answer 246

▪ Used to monitor traffic conditions and the status of the network ● Provides a layer of abstraction between the devices and the control and data flow that happen on the network

Answer 247

▪ Provides an ethernet connection to the network

Answer 248

▪ Has several different ports between 4 and 48 ports

Answer 249

▪ Smart hubs that remember the ports that are connected to them ● Switches can have multiple people talking at one time

Answer 250

▪ Performs its functions without requiring a configuration

Answer 251

▪ Performs its functions with configuration

Answer 252

▪ Device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network

Answer 253

▪ Used to connect different networks together

Answer 254

▪ Scans and blocks traffic that enters or leaves a network ● Unified threat management (UTM) contains firewall features

Answer 255

▪ Device that allows cable network jacks from a wall into a central area

Answer 256

▪ Supplies electrical power from a switch port over an ordinary data cable to a power device

Answer 257

▪ Plugs into a wall outlet to get power

Answer 258

▪ Device that translates coaxial cable signals into radio frequency waves

Answer 259

▪ Device that translates coaxial cable signals into phone lines

Answer 260

▪ Terminates fiber connection

Answer 261

▪ Way of virtualizing the network hardware

Answer 262

▪ Smallest type of wired or wireless network and covers the least amount of area

Answer 263

▪ Connects components within a limited distance ● Up to a few hundred feet

Answer 264

▪ Connects LANs that are building-centric across a university, industrial park, or business park ● Up to a few miles

Answer 265

▪ Connects scattered locations across a city or metro area ● Up to about 25 miles

Answer 266

▪ Connects geographically disparate internal networks and consists of leased lines or VPNs ● Worldwide coverage

Answer 267

▪ A wireless distribution method for two or more devices that creates a local area network using wireless frequencies

Answer 268

▪ Provisions access to configurable pools of storage devices that can be used by application servers

Answer 269

▪ Uses a centralized server or simply provides clients access to local devices like printers, file storage, or the Internet

Answer 270

▪ A global network of appliances and personal devices that have been equipped with sensors, software, and network connectivity to report state and configuration ● Segregation of IoT devices is critically important for the business network’s security

Answer 271

operate about the same

Answer 272

from the IDF to the office

Answer 273

▪ Carries voice or data which specifies the standards a device needs to meet to connect to the phone or data network

Answer 274

▪ The theoretical measure of how much data could be transferred from a source to its destination

Answer 275

▪ The actual measure of how much data is successfully transferred from a source to its destination

Answer 276

▪ A designation given to a particular category that provides the ability to understand the bandwidth and the cable type to be used

Answer 277

▪ Contains the exact same pinouts on both ends of the cable

Answer 278

▪ The standard that's preferred when wiring jacks inside of buildings

Answer 279

▪ The ability to take send and receive pins from one cable and swap those on the other end

Answer 280

▪ A medium dependent interface crossover (MDIX) is an automated way to electronically simulate using a crossover cable

Answer 281

▪ A cable rating that specifies that a cable has a stronger sheathing and jacket that can withstand more extreme weather conditions ● A plenum rated cable is more fire resistant and it minimizes the amount of dangerous fumes that are released

Answer 282

▪ Uses light from an LED or laser to transmit information through a thin glass fiber ● Greater usable range ● Greater data capacity

Answer 283

can become a limitation

Answer 284

▪ Used for longer distances and has smaller core size which allows for only a single mode of travel for the light signal ● SMF’s core size is 8.3-10µ in diameter

Answer 285

▪ Used for shorter distances and has larger core size which allows for multiple modes of travel for the light signal ● MMF’s core size is 50-100µ in diameter ● Up to 2 kilometers or less

Answer 286

▪ One of the oldest categories of copper media that is still used in networking today

Answer 287

▪ Like coaxial cable but uses two inner conductors to carry the data instead of just one

Answer 288

▪ Used to cut a piece of cable off a larger spool or run of cable

Answer 289

▪ Used to strip off the end of the cable and prepare it for attachment to a connector

Answer 290

▪ Used to attach the connector to the end of the cable

Answer 291

▪ Works like a cable tester, but specifically for twisted pair ethernet cables

Answer 292

▪ Used to determine a cable’s category or data throughput

Answer 293

▪ Terminates the wires and strips off excess installation and extra wires that are no longer needed

Answer 294

▪ Used to generate a tone on one end of the connection and use the probe to audibly detect the wire connected on the other side

Answer 295

▪ Facilitates the testing of simple networking issues

Answer 296

▪ Connects directly to the cable infrastructure and splits or copies those packets for analysis, security, or general network management

Answer 297

▪ Ensures proper coverage and prevents overlap between wireless access point coverage zones and channels

Answer 298

▪ Modulates data over an entire range of frequencies using a series of signals known as chips

Answer 299

▪ Allows devices to hop between predetermined frequencies

Answer 300

▪ Uses a slow modulation rate with simultaneous transmissions over 52 different data streams

Answer 301

to avoid overlapping with other signals

Answer 302

▪ A virtual medium through which wireless networks can send and receive data ● For the 2.4 GHz spectrum, there can be 11 or 14 channels ● Channels 1, 6, and 11 avoid overlapping frequencies in the 2.4 GHz band ● We can use 5.725-5.875 GHz to run our wireless networks in the 5 GHz band ● There are 24 non-overlapping channels in the 5 GHz band

Answer 303

▪ Allows for the creation of a wider channel by merging neighboring channels into one ● The standard channel size for both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz networks is 20 MHz

Answer 304

▪ Uses multiple antennas to send and receive data than it could with a single antenna

Answer 305

▪ Allows multiple users to access the wireless network and access point at the same time

Answer 306

▪ Occurs when there are similar frequencies to wireless networks in the area

Answer 307

the signal-to-noise ratio worsens

Answer 308

▪ Both the access point and the client use the same encryption key ▪ It’s not a good idea to use pre-shared keys in large environments

Answer 309

▪ Original 802.11 wireless security standard which is an insecure security protocol ▪ WEP uses 24-bit Initialization Vector (IV) sent in clear text

Answer 310

▪ Replaced WEP and follows the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) ▪ WPA uses 48-bit Initialization Vector (IV) instead of 24-bit ● Rivest Cipher 4 (RC4) o For encryption ● Message Integrity Check (MIC) o To confirm data was not modified in transit ● Enterprise Mode o To authenticate users before exchanging keys

Answer 311

▪ Created as part of IEEE 802.11i standard and requires stronger encryption and integrity checking through CCMP ● Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) o To provide additional security by using a 128-bit key or higher ● Personal Mode o Pre-shared key ● Enterprise Mode o Centralized authentication

Answer 312

▪ Configures an access point with a listing of permitted MAC addresses (like an ACL)

Answer 313

Configures an access point not to broadcast the name of the wireless LAN

Answer 314

▪ Creates point to point connections from one building to another over a relatively short distance

Answer 315

▪ Uses a larger antenna and a larger hotspot powered by a power outlet within an office or home

Answer 316

▪ Creates point to point connection between two or more buildings that have longer distances ▪ A traditional microwave link can cover about 40 miles of distance

Answer 317

▪ A long range and fixed wireless solution that can go for miles ● Low Earth Orbit o Requires more satellites to cover the entire planet but gives lower latency speeds ● Geosynchronous Orbit o One satellite can cover a large portion of the Earth o Geosynchronous orbit gives higher latency and lower quality

Answer 318

▪ Uses radio frequency to send electromagnetic charge containing the transaction data over a short distance

Answer 319

▪ A form of radio frequency transmission modified for use in authentication systems

Answer 320

▪ Allows two devices to communicate using line of sight communication in the infrared spectrum

Answer 321

▪ Creates a personal area network over 2.4 GHz to allow for wireless connectivity ● Bluejacking o Sending unsolicited messages to a Bluetooth device ● Bluesnarfing o Making unauthorized access to a device via Bluetooth connection ● BlueBorne o Allows the attacker to gain complete control over a device without even being connected to the target device

Answer 322

▪ Sharing cellular data Internet connection from a smartphone to multiple other devices ▪ Only connect to trusted wireless networks

Answer 323

▪ Establishes high speed links between their network and clients

Answer 324

▪ Runs as a dial-up connection and is used on the public switched telephone network (PSTN) ▪ Analog connections can be voice or data converted from ones and zeros ▪ Dial-up modems have a maximum bandwidth of 53.3 kb/s

Answer 325

▪ Old system that is still used in some critical functions

Answer 326

▪ Supports multiple 64 Kbps channels ▪ ISDN is an older technology designed to carry voice, video, or data over B (bearer) channels

Answer 327

▪ Has different speeds of download and upload ● Maximum Download Speed o 8 Mbps ● Maximum Upload Speed o 1.544 Mbps ▪ ADSL maximizes the download and minimizes the uploads

Answer 328

▪ Has equal speeds of download and upload

Answer 329

▪ Has high speeds of download and upload ● Download Speed o 50 Mbps or more ● Upload Speed o 10 Mbps or more ▪ ADSL Maximum Distance to DSLAM ● 18,000 ft. ▪ VDSL Maximum Distance to DSLAM ● 4,000 ft.

Answer 330

▪ Uses a cable TV network that is made up of a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) distribution network

Answer 331

▪ Specific frequency ranges used for upstream and downstream transmissions ● Upstream o 5 MHz to 42 MHz ● Downstream o 50 MHz to 860 MHz

Answer 332

over cable television infrastructure

Answer 333

▪ Runs a fiber optic cable from an internet provider access point to a curb

Answer 334

▪ Fiber optic that connects directly to a building and connects to an optical network terminal (ONT)

Answer 335

▪ Physical devices that convert optical signals to electrical signals

Answer 336

▪ SMS and text messaging ▪ International roaming ▪ Conference calling ▪ Use of internet ▪ Introduction to EDGE

Answer 337

▪ Used by the UMTS standard and could reach data speeds of up to 2 Mbps

Answer 338

▪ Reaches speeds of up to 14.4 Mbps and is sometimes referred to as 3.5G

Answer 339

▪ Reaches speeds of up to 50 Mbps and is sometimes referred to as 3.75G

Answer 340

▪ 100 Mbps

Answer 341

▪ 1 Gbps

Answer 342

in the millimeter wave band

Answer 343

the newer standard, it has increased in speeds

Answer 344

▪ Uses a beam of radio waves in the microwave frequency range to transmit information between two fixed locations ● Ultra-high frequency (UHF) ● Super high frequency (SHF) ● Extremely high frequency (EHF) ▪ Both antennas must maintain a line of sight

Answer 345

▪ A method of using communication satellites located in space to connect a user to the Internet ● Slow ● Expensive ● High latency

Answer 346

▪ Responsible for putting frames in the physical network’s transmission media ▪ In the link/network interface layer, the data can only travel through the local area network

Answer 347

▪ Used to address packets and route them across the network

Answer 348

▪ Shows how to send the packets ● TCP o Transmission Control Protocol ● UDP o User Datagram Protocol

Answer 349

▪ Contains all the protocols that perform higher-level functions

Answer 350

▪ A logical identifier for a group of hosts in a computer network

Answer 351

▪ Default subnet mask for a given class of IP addresses

Answer 352

▪ Allows for borrowing some of the host bits and reassigning them to the network portion

Answer 353

Can be accessed over the Internet and is assigned to the network by an Internet service provider

Answer 354

▪ Can be used by anyone any time, but only within their own local area network ▪ Private IP ranges include those that start with either 10, 172, or 192

Answer 355

allows for routing of private IPs through a public IP

Answer 356

▪ Creates a loopback to the host and is often used in troubleshooting and testing network protocols on a system

Answer 357

▪ Used when a device does not have a static IP address or cannot reach a DHCP server ● 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255 D iscover O ffer R equest A cknowledge

Answer 358

▪ Manually type the IP address for the host, its subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server ▪ Static assignment of IP addresses is impractical on large enterprise networks

Answer 359

▪ Dynamic allocation of IP addresses

Answer 360

▪ Converts the domain names used by a website to the IP address of its server ▪ DNS is the internet version of a phone book

Answer 361

▪ Identifies NetBIOS systems on a TCP/IP network and converts those NetBIOS names to IP addresses

Answer 362

▪ Dynamically assigns IP addresses and allows a workstation to load a copy of boot image to the network

Answer 363

▪ Assigns an IP based on an assignable scope or addresses and provides the ability to configure other options ▪ 192.168.1.100 through 192.168.1.200 ● Each IP is leased for a period of time and returns to the pool when the lease expires

Answer 364

▪ Manages the IPs being assigned and returned over time

Answer 365

implementation of BOOTP

Answer 366

▪ Used when a device does not have a static IP address or cannot reach a DHCP server ▪ Allows for the quick configuration of a LAN without the need for a DHCP server ▪ APIPA-assigned devices cannot communicate outside the LAN or with non-APIPA devices

Answer 367

▪ New technology that provides the same features as APIPA ▪ Assign an IPv4 link-local address to a client ▪ Resolve computer names to IP addresses without the need for DNS by using mDNS (multicast domain name service) ▪ Perform service discovery on a network ● Windows o Link-Local Multicast Name Resolution (LLMNR) ● Linux o SystemD

Answer 368

▪ Provides an IP address to every machine on the network and eliminates configuration errors

Answer 369

▪ List of valid IP addresses available for assignment or lease to a client computer or endpoint device on a given subnet ▪ 254 available Ips

Answer 370

▪ Excludes some IP addresses from being handed to devices unless they meet a certain condition Discover Offer Request Acknowledge

Answer 371

also be statically assigned

Answer 372

▪ Helps network clients find a website using human-readable hostnames instead of numeric IP addresses

Answer 373

▪ Domain name under a top-level provider

Answer 374

▪ Contains the FQDN with the method of accessing information

Answer 375

to point to another domain or subdomain, not to an IP address

Answer 376

▪ DNS record that identifies the host authorized to send mail for the domain

Answer 377

▪ provides the cryptographic authentication mechanism for mail using a public key published as a DNS record

Answer 378

▪ Framework that is used for proper application of SPF and DKIM, utilizing a policy that’s published as a DNS record

Answer 379

▪ Type of DNS server that stores all the DNS records for a given domain

Answer 380

▪ Allows cloud instances on the same network access each other using internal DNS names

Answer 381

▪ Records created around the domain names from a central authority and used on the public Internet

Answer 382

▪ Tells the DNS resolver how long to cache a query before requesting a new one

Answer 383

▪ Makes a local copy of every DNS entry it resolves as connected to websites

Answer 384

▪ DNA server communicates with several other DNS servers to hunt down the IP address and return to the client

Answer 385

▪ Each DNS server responds directly to the client with an address for another DNS server that may have the correct IP address

Answer 386

▪ Allows different logical networks to share the same physical hardware and provides added security and efficiency

Answer 387

▪ Tag Protocol Identifier (TPI) ▪ Tag Control Identifier (TCI)

Answer 388

▪ Extends a private network across a public network and enables sending and receiving data across shared or public networks

Answer 389

▪ Routes and encrypts all network requests through the VPN connection back to the headquarters

Answer 390

▪ Routes and encrypts only the traffic bound for the headquarters over the VPN, and sends the rest of the traffic to the regular Internet

Answer 391

▪ Creates a secure remote-access VPN tunnel using a web browser without requiring a software or hardware client

Answer 392

▪ Provides cryptography and reliability using the upper layers of the OSI model (Layers 5, 6, and 7)

Answer 393

▪ Provides secure web browsing over HTTPS

Answer 394

▪ 4.2 billion addresses

Answer 395

▪ Running out of network addresses in IPv4 ● IPv4 = 2³² o 4.2 billion addresses ● IPv6 = 2128 o 340 undecillion addresses

Answer 396

● Larger address space ● No broadcasts ● No fragmentation ● Can coexist with IPv4 ● Simplified header

Answer 397

▪ Simultaneously runs both the IPv4 and IPv6 protocols on the same network devices

Answer 398

▪ Allows an existing IPv4 router to carry IPv6 traffic

Answer 399

hexadecimal digits and allows the use of shorthand notation

Answer 400

▪ Used to identify a single interface ● Globally Routed o Like IPv4’s unicast class A, B, and C addresses and begins with 2000-3999 ● Link-Local/Local Use o Used like a private IP in IPv4 that can only be used on the local area network and begins with FE80

Answer 401

▪ Eliminates the need to obtain addresses or other configuration information from a central server

Answer 402

▪ Used to identify a set of interfaces and begins with FF

Answer 403

▪ Used to identify a set of interfaces so that a packet can be sent to any member of a set

Answer 404

▪ Allows a host to assign itself a unique 64-bit IPv6 interface identifier called EUI-64

Answer 405

▪ Allows DHCP to automatically assign addresses from a DHCPv6 server

Answer 406

Used to determine the Layer 2 addresses that are on a given network

Answer 407

▪ Logical communication endpoint that exists on a computer or server

Answer 408

Logical communication opening on a server that is listening for a connection from a client

Answer 409

▪ Logical communication opening created on a client to call out to a server that is listening for a connection

Answer 410

0 and 65,535

Answer 411

▪ Ports 0 to 1023 are considered well-known and are assigned by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)

Answer 412

▪ Ports 1024 to 49151 are considered registered and are usually assigned to proprietary protocols

Answer 413

by any application without being registered with IANA

Answer 414

for gaming, instant messaging, and chat

Answer 415

o Ports 20, 21 o Provides insecure file transfers

Answer 416

o Port 22 o Provides secure remote control of another machine using a text-based environment

Answer 417

o Port 22 o Provides secure file transfers

Answer 418

o Port 23 o Provides insecure remote control of another machine using a text-based environment

Answer 419

o Port 25 o Provides the ability to send emails over the network

Answer 420

o Port 53 o Converts domain names to IP addresses, and IP address to domain names

Answer 421

o Ports 67, 68 o Automatically provides network parameters such as assigned IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and the DNS server

Answer 422

o Port 80 o Used for insecure web browsing

Answer 423

o Port 110 o Used for receiving incoming emails

Answer 424

o Ports 137, 139 o Used for file or printer sharing in a Windows network

Answer 425

o Port 143 o A newer method of retrieving incoming emails which improves upon the older POP3

Answer 426

o Ports 161, 162 o Used to collect data about network devices and monitor their status

Answer 427

o Port 389 o Used to provide directory services to your network

Answer 428

o Port 443 o Used as a secure and encrypted version of web browsing ▪ SSL (Secure Socket Layer) ▪ TLS (Transport Layer Security)

Answer 429

o Port 445 o Used for Windows file and printer sharing services

Answer 430

o Port 3389 o Provides graphical remote control of another client or server o RDP provides a full graphical user interface

Answer 431

▪ Connection-oriented protocol, which means it’s a reliable way to transport segments across the network

Answer 432

▪ Unreliable and it transmits segments called data grams ● TCP (Connection-Oriented) o SSH, HTTP or HTTPS ● UDP (Connectionless) o Audio, video streaming, DHCP, and TFTP ▪ Dynamic Host Control Protocol (DHCP) ● Ports 67, 68 ● Automatically provides network parameters such as assigned IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and the DNS server ▪ Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) ● Ports 69 ● a connectionless protocol that uses UDP as its transport

Answer 433

▪ Can be configured to allow the clients on the network to access the network and be able to read and write to its disk (file share)

Answer 434

▪ Another server that could be a physical workstation or network infrastructure that provides printing functionality

Answer 435

▪ Relies on the NetBIOS protocol or SMB ● Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS) o Ports 137, 139 o Used for file or printer sharing in a Windows network ● Server Message Block (SMB) o Port 445 o Used for Windows file and printer sharing services

Answer 436

▪ Provides the ability for a Linux or Unix server to be able to host files or printers that can then be used by Windows clients running the SMB protocol

Answer 437

▪ Supports windows machines known as Samba ● File Transfer Protocol (FTP) o Ports 20, 21 ▪ Provides insecure file transfers o IP-based File and Print Server / Cloud Printing ▪ Allows for printing anywhere in the world

Answer 438

▪ Any server that provides access to a website ● HTTP o Port 80 ● HTTPS o Port 443

Answer 439

▪ Extensible web server software, created by Microsoft (HTTP, HTTP/2, and HTTPS)

Answer 440

▪ Most popular way to run a web server these days

Answer 441

▪ Reverse proxy, load balancer, mail proxy, and HTTP cache

Answer 442

▪ Combines the fully qualified domain name with a protocol at the beginning

Answer 443

it will be able to see a digital certificate to create a random code

Answer 444

▪ Servers that are set up to compose a message and send it to another user

Answer 445

o Specifies how emails should be delivered from one mail domain to another o Send mail transfer protocol o SMTP operates over port 25

Answer 446

o Older email protocol which operates over port 110

Answer 447

Older email protocol which operates over port 110

Answer 448

o Mail retrieval protocol o IMAP operates over port 143 and can connect to a server and receive and read messages

Answer 449

o Mailbox server environment designed for Windows-based domain environments o Microsoft Exchange Server is widely used in many corporate environments

Answer 450

▪ Standardized framework used for port-based authentication on wired and wireless networks

Answer 451

▪ Occurs when a person’s identity is established with proof and is confirmed by the system ● Something you know ● Something you are ● Something you have ● Something you do ● Somewhere you are

Answer 452

A database used to centralize information about clients and objects on the network

Answer 453

Used to organize and manage the network, including clients, servers, devices, users, and groups

Answer 454

▪ Provides centralized administration of dial-up, VPN, and wireless authentication services for 802.1x and the EAP ● RADIUS operates at the application layer ● RADIUS utilizes UDP for making connections

Answer 455

▪ Proprietary version of RADIUS that can perform the role of an authenticator in 802.1x networks

Answer 456

▪ Occurs when a user is given access to a certain piece of data or certain areas of a building

Answer 457

▪ Authentication protocol used by Windows to provide for two-way (mutual) authentication using a system of tickets ▪ A domain controller can be a single point of failure for Kerberos

Answer 458

▪ Ensures the tracking of data, computer usage, and network resources is maintained

Answer 459

▪ Occurs when you have proof that someone has taken an action

Answer 460

▪ Sends text-based commands to remote devices and is a very old networking protocol ▪ Telnet should never be used to connect to secure devices

Answer 461

▪ Encrypts everything that is being sent and received between the client and the server

Answer 462

▪ Provides graphical interface to connect to another computer over a network connection ▪ Remote desktop gateway (RDG) creates a secure connection to tunnel into the RDP

Answer 463

▪ Designed for thin client architectures

Answer 464

▪ Any kind of software that replicates the TTY I/O functionality to remotely connect to a device ▪ TTY is the terminal or end point of the communication between the computer and the end-user

Answer 465

▪ Enables different appliances and software applications to transmit logs to a centralized server ▪ Syslog is the de facto standard for logging events ● PRI code (Priority code) ● Header ● Message

Answer 466

▪ TCP/IP protocol that aids in monitoring network-attached devices and computers

Answer 467

▪ Computers and other network-attached devices monitored using agents by a network management system

Answer 468

▪ Software that is loaded on a managed device to redirect information to the network management system

Answer 469

▪ Software running on one or more servers to control the monitoring of network-attached devices and computers

Answer 470

an out-of-band network to increase security

Answer 471

▪ Devices that create a network connection between an end user’s client machine and a remote resource (web server) ● Increased network speed and efficiency ● Increased security ● Additional auditing capabilities

Answer 472

▪ Distributes incoming requests across several servers inside a server farm or a cloud infrastructure ▪ A load balancer is one of the key things to help defend against a DoS attack or a DDoS attack

Answer 473

o Involves a continual flooding of victim systems with requests for services, causing the system to crash (single attacker)

Answer 474

Multiple machines simultaneously launch attacks on the server to force it offline (multiple attackers)

Answer 475

Identifies any attacking IP addresses and routes their traffic through a Knoll interface

Answer 476

o Works for small-scale attacks against DoS

Answer 477

o Allows to scale up the demand as needed

Answer 478

▪ Rule sets placed on the firewalls, routers, and other network devices that permit or allow traffic through a particular interface ▪ The actions are performed top-down inside of an ACL ● Top o Specific rules ● Bottom o Generic rules

Answer 479

Inspects and controls the traffic that is trying to enter or leave a network’s boundary ● Packet-filtering ● Stateful ● Proxy ● Dynamic packet-filtering ● Kernel proxy

Answer 480

▪ Provides the ability to conduct security functions within a single device or network appliance

Answer 481

▪ Includes computers, servers, networks, and cloud platforms

Answer 482

▪ Communications network designed to implement an ICS ▪ Technology that interacts with the real world

Answer 483

▪ Provides the mechanisms for workflow and process automation by controlling machinery using embedded devices ▪ Multiple ICSs can create a distributed control system (DCS)

Answer 484

▪ Digital serial data communication protocol used in OT networks to link different PLCs

Answer 485

▪ Type of digital computer used in industrial settings that enables automation and assembly lines, autonomous field operations, robotics, and other applications

Answer 486

▪ Can be a local control panel or software that runs on a computer

Answer 487

▪ Type of ICS used to manage large scale multi-site devices and equipment in a geographic region from a host computer ● Cellular ● Microwave ● Satellite ● Fiber ● VPN-based LAN

Answer 488

▪ Computer system that is designed to perform specific and dedicated functions ▪ These systems are considered static environments, where frequent changes are not allowed

Answer 489

▪ Type of digital computer used in industrial or outdoor settings ▪ The PLC patch is every six months or two years

Answer 490

▪ Type of OS that prioritizes deterministic execution of operations that ensure consistent response for time-critical tasks ▪ Embedded systems in critical applications

Answer 491

▪ Processor integrates the platform functionality of multiple logical controllers onto a single chip ● Processor ● Memory ● Storage ● Graphics processor ● Peripherals

Answer 492

▪ Computer system that is no longer supported by its vendor and no longer provided with security updates and patches ▪ Identify legacy systems and put mitigations in place to keep operating such systems

Answer 493

▪ System that is owned by its developer or vendor

Answer 494

▪ Any device that makes it portable and easy to use

Answer 495

Any touchscreen that works by seeing the distortion in an electrostatic field ▪ A single tactile input is one touch at a time

Answer 496

▪ Can process two or more contact points simultaneously

Answer 497

▪ Uses liquid crystal where the properties can change with the application of voltage

Answer 498

▪ Individual point on a screen inside of a display ▪ A thin-film transistor (TFT) is referred to as an LCD panel

Answer 499

▪ Contains crystals that twist or untwist in response to the voltage being applied or removed ▪ TN supports fast response time in comparison to other TFT technologies and displays

Answer 500

▪ Uses crystals that rotate to be able to deliver color ▪ IPS panels can support 178° horizontal and vertical viewing angles

Answer 501

▪ Crystals are tilted to be able to deliver color ▪ A VA display has a contrast ratio of two to three times better than a standard IPS display

Answer 502

▪ Lamp that sits behind the display and lights up the liquid crystal display to show the colors and images properly on the screen ▪ CCFL requires AC voltage

Answer 503

▪ Newer form of light that uses direct current (DC) ▪ The use of LEDs uses less power, leading to longer battery life and better performance

Answer 504

o Organic LED (OLED) ▪ Each pixel has its own separate LED that provides the light ▪ OLEDs can be made from plastic ▪ OLEDs can be folded, rolled up, or manipulated to create different shapes and sizes of displays

Answer 505

o Digitizer ▪ Layer sandwiched between a layer of protective glass and the display panel inside of a touchscreen display ▪ Haptic feedback provides a form of touch responsiveness from the display back to the end-user

Answer 506

▪ Combination device that uses hardware and software to measure the velocity, rotation, and shaking of a mobile device ▪ The accelerometer works when dealing with the X (horizontal) and Y (vertical) axis

Answer 507

▪ An improved version of the basic accelerometer ● Detects pitch (Y), roll (X), and yaw (Z) ● Performs actions ● Stabilizes images

Answer 508

▪ Device that can be used to manipulate the cursor on the screen

Answer 509

▪ Large format touch device attached as a peripheral to a laptop, smartphone, or tablet ▪ A drawing pad uses a touch pen

Answer 510

▪ Any device used to record audio or capture voice when making a phone call

Answer 511

▪ Allows to hear things that are coming out from devices, such as music or videos

Answer 512

▪ Combines both the microphone and speaker into one device

Answer 513

▪ Provides the ability to capture a live image in a still format

Answer 514

▪ Comes in different types of Wi-Fi, including wireless a, b, g, n, ac, and ax ▪ Wireless connectivity on smaller devices is slower than it is on larger devices ▪ Larger antennas pick up signals with more strength and faster speeds

Answer 515

▪ Network that allows to connect to the Internet using cellular radio inside the handset and connect to a network service provider

Answer 516

▪ Cellular technology that takes the voice during a call and converts it into a digital format

Answer 517

▪ Cellular technology that uses code division to split up the channel ▪ CDMA is a more powerful and flexible technology than GSM ● W-CDMA o Wideband CDMA ● UMTS o Universal Mobile Telecommunications System ▪ An electronic SIM is a cheaper way of getting a data service when overseas

Answer 518

▪ Contains all the information about different cellular towers ▪ Restrictions vary from model to model and depends on the device’s country of origin

Answer 519

▪ Used as a short-range point-to-point network connection between a mobile device and an accessory

Answer 520

▪ Allows a device to receive and send information in the NFC format ▪ The pairing process can be done automatically by using NFC connection

Answer 521

▪ Proprietary cable that is only used by Apple devices

Answer 522

▪ Modern version of USB that operates at USB 3.0 speeds and can provide data

Answer 523

▪ D-shaped connector with 9 pins that is used to connect external serial devices like modems

Answer 524

▪ Device that allows to connect to a device and get information from it

Answer 525

▪ Uses the exact same features as a laptop ▪ Port replicator makes life easier by providing easier access to all the ports

Answer 526

▪ Advanced type of port replicator that provides all the capabilities and features of a laptop ● Port Replicator o Port mirror ● Docking Station o Additional ports

Answer 527

Used to provide different features and functionality to a mobile device

Answer 528

▪ Offers an open-source code base

Answer 529

▪ Developed by Apple for use on iPhones and iPads ▪ iOS relies on closed-source code

Answer 530

▪ The software and the original source code are available to download, modify, and redistribute ▪ Android OS has a lower cost of services by using an open-source platform as a code base

Answer 531

▪ Proprietary software that is licensed under the exclusive legal rights of the copyright holder ● Open-Source Software o Creativity and change ● Closed-Source Software o Change is not allowed

Answer 532

▪ Application on an iOS device to access a store to purchase and download applications ● iOS Application o Swift and Xcode ● Android Application o Java and Android Studio

Answer 533

▪ Provides the ability to have office productivity software and a large amount of storage space in the cloud (OneDrive)

Answer 534

▪ Act of copying data back and forth between different devices

Answer 535

Record inside of an address book that contains fields of names, addresses, emails, phone numbers, notes, etc.

Answer 536

▪ Standard format and is widely supported by most address books and software applications

Answer 537

▪ Any record with fields for appointments or tasks with their corresponding subject, date, location, and attendees ▪ Cloud-based service is easier and more synchronized

Answer 538

▪ Oldest format and does not support the synchronization across devices

Answer 539

manage the state of an email

Answer 540

consider what apps are supported on which devices

Answer 541

the ability to generate strong, random passwords when signing up for a new account

Answer 542

▪ Provides the access to the cloud from all devices and becomes the central repository of all data ▪ Encrypted data that is stored in the cloud is relatively safe ▪ Synchronization to the cloud requires a large amount of data

Answer 543

▪ Synchronizes directly to the desktop or laptop using a USB or Bluetooth connection ▪ Install the iTunes app on the Windows PC to transfer the data from the iPhone

Answer 544

▪ Class of software designed to apply security policies for use on mobile devices

Answer 545

▪ Sets device-level policies for authentication, feature use, and conductivity ▪ MDM is a type of software that allows to control the device

Answer 546

▪ Sets forth policies for apps that can process corporate data and prevent data transfer to personal apps

Answer 547

▪ Configures an enterprise-managed container or workspace where the company’s data is stored

Answer 548

Detects when data is being taken from a device, ensuring it’s only being used in the proper way

Answer 549

▪ MAM suite that allows applications from a private repository to devices that are part of the corporate network

Answer 550

▪ Managed version of the Google Play store that contains apps that are distributed to employees’ devices

Answer 551

▪ Simplest form of authentication and refers to something you know

Answer 552

▪ Refers to something you have

Answer 553

▪ Refers to something you are

Answer 554

▪ Refers as something you do ▪ Voice recognition systems are not looking at what is said, but at how it is said

Answer 555

▪ Refers to somewhere you are

Answer 556

▪ Application that serves as a possession factor inside of a mobile device

Answer 557

two or more factors

Answer 558

▪ Oldest method of positioning using mobile phones

Answer 559

▪ Space-based radio navigation system, consisting of satellites and networks of ground stations

Answer 560

Allows a device to be used indoors to figure out the location

Answer 561

as a privacy aspect

Answer 562

▪ Tracking of a location for a given amount of time ▪ Disable GPS and IPS to block geo-tracking ▪ Geotagging is the GPS coordinates inside photos

Answer 563

when connecting to the email servers

Answer 564

▪ Receiving email/Inbound mail

Answer 565

▪ Sending/Outbound mail ▪ Major providers like Gmail, Outlook, or Yahoo use auto configuration ▪ Small or medium-sized businesses use their own institutional email server

Answer 566

▪ New and advanced secure version of encryption

Answer 567

Allows users to create a template of a feature of the laptop’s body (fingerprint, facial scan, or voice recognition)

Answer 568

▪ Used to pair peripheral devices to a smartphone or tablet

Answer 569

▪ Small port on the side of a laptop that able to connect a metal braided cable to lock

Answer 570

o Entire keyboard o Particular key o Touch pad o When replacing the keyboard or touch pad, use one from the manufacturer

Answer 571

instructions before starting the process

Answer 572

▪ Printhead ● Inkjet printer ▪ Drum and toner cartridges ● Laser printer

Answer 573

condensation and moisture inside the printer

Answer 574

should be well-ventilated

Answer 575

▪ Print queuing system ▪ Print authentication system

Answer 576

▪ Found in a home environment ▪ Windows has the ability to detect a printer using plug and play

Answer 577

▪ Network cable that uses an RJ45 port ▪ A printer with Ethernet capability supports DHCP

Answer 578

▪ Comes with either Wi-Fi or Bluetooth ● Infrastructure Mode o Printer is connected to the access point ● Wi-Fi Direct Mode o Allows the printer to act as an access point

Answer 579

▪ Uses a wireless point-to-point connection from the printer to the computer

Answer 580

▪ Program that controls physical printers

Answer 581

▪ Integrated into a printer ▪ You must have administrative rights to install print drivers

Answer 582

▪ Start > Settings > Bluetooth & devices > Printers & scanners

Answer 583

▪ Start > Settings > Devices > Printers & scanners

Answer 584

▪ Settings > Printers & scanners

Answer 585

▪ Used to create a raster file from the print commands that are sent by a software application

Answer 586

▪ Capable of being resized to any size

Answer 587

▪ Size can be changed before printing ● Bitmap o Distorted ● Vector o Clear ● Additive o Display ● Subtractive o Printer

Answer 588

▪ Developed by HP and is closely tied to the features of different printer models

Answer 589

Created by Adobe and is designed to be a device-independent PDL

Answer 590

Microsoft’s page description language (PDL)

Answer 591

▪ Created by Adobe which keeps a file’s original look when viewed or printed on different systems ▪ PDF is larger in size than XPS format files 1. When installing a printer, also install the appropriate driver 2. Two generic formats: PCL and Postscript 3. Virtual printers: XPS and PDF

Answer 592

▪ Software application or hardware device that manages print requests and printer queue status information ▪ Centralized print server allows to control, to configure, and to troubleshoot the devices remotely from a network ▪ Print servers are suitable for small and home offices with up to fifty servers ▪ Embedded print servers support one printer

Answer 593

▪ Allows to share network printers and centralize the print server from the centralized window server

Answer 594

▪ Allows to connect a printer using Bluetooth or USB

Answer 595

▪ Service built into the Windows OS and exists to help print jobs

Answer 596

▪ Sets permissions for the printer that require a log in with a username or password

Answer 597

▪ Record of jobs that have been sent and printed on a particular device

Answer 598

▪ Device held on the printer until the user’s authentication

Answer 599

▪ Allows the printer to be used as a copy machine or a scanner

Answer 600

▪ Digital imaging device

Answer 601

▪ Convert scanned text into digital documents that can be manipulated using a word processing program

Answer 602

▪ Creates an entire page at one time during the printing process

Answer 603

Main component that creates the image to be applied to the paper

Answer 604

▪ Heats up and melts the toner onto the page to adhere properly to the page

Answer 605

▪ Used to transfer the image from the image drum and become fused

Answer 606

▪ Used to pick up the paper from the feed tray and feed it through the system

Answer 607

▪ Helps the pickup rollers to ensure they only pick up a single piece of paper at a time

Answer 608

▪ Moves the paper from the front to the back

Answer 609

a plastic housing that contains toner powder

Answer 610

last longer than the toner

Answer 611

▪ The OS uses a print driver to translate what’s on the screen to print

Answer 612

memory upgrading using a SODIMM module

Answer 613

▪ The imaging drum is conditioned with the primary charge roller

Answer 614

▪ The surface coding of the photosensitive imaging drum is losing its charge when exposed to light

Answer 615

▪ The laser printer takes the toner and applies it to a developer roller

Answer 616

Moving the toner from the imaging drum into the print media

Answer 617

▪ The fuser squeezes the paper between a hot roller and a pressure roller

Answer 618

▪ The photosensitive drum needed to be cleaned and get all the remaining toner particles cleaned off

Answer 619

-600 VDC (negative 600 volts DC)

Answer 620

a duplexing assembly installed

Answer 621

and allow it to cool down

Answer 622

Buy laser paper that is rated for the type of printer ▪ Store the paper in a nice dry area that does not have high humidity or excessive dust

Answer 623

▪ Standard toner cartridge has 2500 pages ▪ High-yield cartridge has 6000 pages

Answer 624

▪ Feed rollers pull up one sheet at a time and feed it through the system ▪ Transfer rollers are used to take the toner off the imaging drum and apply it to the paper ▪ Fuser unit is responsible for heating up the toner and making it bond to the page ▪ Page count indicates when to change the feed roller, transfer roller, or the fuse unit

Answer 625

▪ Process by which the printer determines the print density or color balance to use

Answer 626

▪ If toner gets on the skin, wash it with cold water ▪ Do not use compressed air ▪ Some printers with filters must be kept free from dust and dirt

Answer 627

a nozzle or jet on a print head onto the paper

Answer 628

seven different cartridges

Answer 629

▪ Device that takes the droplets of ink and directs into the paper

Answer 630

▪ Uses a nozzle that reacts to changes in voltage

Answer 631

▪ Used by HP, Canon, and Lexmark printers, and relies on heating up the ink in the nozzle of the printhead

Answer 632

replacing the ink cartridge

Answer 633

to replace the printhead when replacing the ink cartridge

Answer 634

▪ Responsible for advancing the paper through the inkjet printer

Answer 635

▪ Allows multiple pieces of paper in a tray to be selected one piece of paper at a time and passes it to the roller

Answer 636

▪ Allows an inkjet printer to print on both sides of a piece of paper

Answer 637

▪ Allows the printhead to move back and forth across the page

Answer 638

▪ Printhead will only apply ink from left to right

Answer 639

▪ Apply ink from left to right and from right to left

Answer 640

▪ Type of printer that uses a heating element to create an image

Answer 641

high-speed environments

Answer 642

(CMYK) and is used to create the heat transfer

Answer 643

▪ Laser Printer ● 300 - 600 dpi ▪ Thermal Printer ● 100 - 300 dpi

Answer 644

▪ Uses thermal ribbon to create images

Answer 645

▪ Open the printer case ▪ Insert the role (shiny part facing outward) ▪ Place the end of the paper by the printhead and close again

Answer 646

▪ Use isopropyl alcohol with cotton swab to clean the printhead

Answer 647

▪ Unplug the thermal printer ▪ Take out the paper role ▪ Clean the feed mechanism

Answer 648

the quality of the dots

Answer 649

▪ Series of holes going down the side of the paper with a perforation between the regular paper and tracks

Answer 650

▪ Device that has a series of pins that make up the dot matrix that forms the image

Answer 651

▪ Fabric or material held within a plastic housing in front of the printhead

Answer 652

▪ Exists on both sides of the printer and pulls the paper through the printer using tractor fed paper

Answer 653

cool down for 30 to 60 minutes

Answer 654

▪ Type of printer that creates images in three dimensions (height, width, and depth)

Answer 655

of the overall 3D model

Answer 656

▪ Flat plate where the material will be extruded and built

Answer 657

▪ Sheet placed on top of the base plate that hold the object into position while printing

Answer 658

▪ Printhead for 3D printers

Answer 659

Helps to cool down the melted filament to retain the consistency

Answer 660

Ink for 3D printers (1.75 mm or 3 mm)

Answer 661

1. Identify the problem 2. Establish a theory of probable cause 3. Test the theory to determine the cause 4. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution 5. Verify full system functionality 6. Document the findings, actions, and outcome

Answer 662

o What happened? o What was the status before? o What is the status after that? o Are there any changes in the system?

Answer 663

▪ Different possible causes that may have happened

Answer 664

▪ Damaged processor or motherboard components

Answer 665

▪ Hard drive

Answer 666

▪ Power issue or broken fan

Answer 667

o Theory is confirmed o Theory is not confirmed o Lack skills or authority o Unable to solve o Escalate when there is an issue

Answer 668

o Repair o Replace o Workaround o How many are the resources o How much time does it take o How much is the cost o Impact on the users and system o A change of plan needs to get the authorization again

Answer 669

o Identify the problem o Establish a theory o Test the theory o Establish a plan of action o Verify system functionality o Check that the problem has been solved o Inspect the other components to ensure nothing else is damaged, broken, or disconnected o Check the logs and diagnostic tools to confirm everything is working the way they should o Verify system functionality o Implement preventative measures

Answer 670

Documentation ▪ Document the findings, actions, and outcomes o The trouble ticketing system allows to do the trend analysis o The trouble ticketing system can document the amount of work

Answer 671

o Power button is not connected properly to the motherboard

Answer 672

▪ Use a multimeter or voltmeter to test the power outlet ● 110-120V/60Hz US or Canada ● 220-240V/50Hz Europe or Asia

Answer 673

▪ Positive pin ▪ Negative pin ▪ Grounding pin

Answer 674

▪ 12V DC ▪ 5V DC ▪ 3.3V DC ▪ A power supply tester has a small variation or tolerance ● Bottom Largest connector ● Top 4,6,8 Pin connectors/SATA/Molex

Answer 675

▪ When testing detachable cables, check each pin on each side of the cable to verify full continuity

Answer 676

● Power Issues

Answer 677

▪ Diagnostic program inside the system firmware ▪ POST beep codes are specific to the motherboard’s manufacturer ▪ POST-test expansion card identifies which component on the motherboard is faulty and needs to be replaced

Answer 678

▪ Displays an error whenever the operating system has issue

Answer 679

o Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) ▪ Indicates that there is a problem with the underlying hardware that Windows cannot solve ● CRITICAL_PROCESS_DIED ● SYSTEM_THREAD_EXCEPTION_NOT_HANDLED ● IRQL_NOT_LESS_OR_EQUAL ● VIDEO_TDR_TIMEOUT_DETECTED ● PAGE_FAULT_IN_NONPAGED_AREA ● SYSTEM_SERVICE_EXCEPTION ● DPC_WATCHDOG_VIOLATION

Answer 680

o Pinwheel of Death ▪ macOS (OS X) ● Made by Apple and it runs on Apple hardware (desktops and laptops)

Answer 681

o Kernel Panic ▪ In kernel panic, the system display gives an exit code

Answer 682

all the components are generating heat that builds up a thermal load

Answer 683

1. Shut down the system 2. Boot into the UEFI or BIOS

Answer 684

look at the temperature sensors inside of the system

Answer 685

intermittent shutdowns or continual rebooting

Answer 686

can cause permanent damage

Answer 687

wearing out, and pins getting bent or damaged

Answer 688

a blown or burst capacitor

Answer 689

it loses the ability to regulate electricity

Answer 690

overheating

Answer 691

reboot or shut down

Answer 692

● Performance Issues

Answer 693

the real-time clock (RTC) in sync

Answer 694

▪ Complementary Metal–Oxide–Semiconductor (CMOS) ● Non-volatile type of memory that stores the BIOS settings and is built into the motherboard ▪ Non-Volatile RAM (NVRAM) ● Stores data without being constantly refreshed o CMOS o Real-time clock

Answer 695

o SSD/Hard drive o Removable media o Network

Answer 696

▪ Legacy method of providing the boot information ▪ A partition on a storage device is the logical part of an entire drive ● Windows Single partition ● Linux Multiple partitions ● Boot Configuration Data (BCD) Windows ● GRUB/LILO Linux

Answer 697

▪ Specialized boot scheme with modern advantages ▪ Inability to find a bootable device indicates a problem with MBR or GPT ● Bootable device not found ● Operating system not found ● Invalid drive specification ▪ The UEFI and BIOS set prioritized boot order based on their configurations ▪ Check if the internal storage device is working properly by looking, listening, and feeling

Answer 698

▪ Older storage devices that spin and move the read/write head across the platter ▪ Low-cost, slower speed

Answer 699

▪ Non-volatile memory that stores data and can access data from the device ▪ High cost, less storage, faster speed ▪ Solid-state devices have a limit on the amount of time to read and write data

Answer 700

are signs of a hard disk drive mechanical problem

Answer 701

▪ The LED activity light is constantly blinking

Answer 702

being used as a swap file or page file

Answer 703

if the device is detected

Answer 704

▪ Allows to read and write on the hard drive by identifying the sector ▪ Use disk utility to identify which sectors are bad and try to recover them ● Sectors Windows/Linux ● Blocks Solid-state device

Answer 705

have a good backup drive

Answer 706

▪ Self-diagnostic program that alerts the OS if there is a failure

Answer 707

● Read Error Rate ● Spin-Up Time ● Reallocated Sector Count ● Seek Error Rate ● Power-On Hours ● Temperature

Answer 708

● A hard disk drive has a lower IOPS than a solid-state device ● Cloud can measure performance by using IOPS ● Low IOPS can be an issue with the hardware or the software

Answer 709

● Deleting and rewriting causes fragmentation

Answer 710

the risk of data loss

Answer 711

▪ If a RAID loses a disk, it will continue to operate as normal but at a slower speed ▪ RAID rebuild is the utility used to rebuild the RAID

Answer 712

▪ Entire array or volume stops working ▪ When the RAID fails, restore from backup, reconfigure, and rebuild using new disks

Answer 713

▪ HDMI ▪ DisplayPort ▪ Thunderbolt ▪ DVI-D ▪ DVI-I

Answer 714

▪ Check both ends of the cable are properly connected

Answer 715

▪ Use high-speed rated HDMI cable that supports higher bandwidth ▪ HDMI, DisplayPort, and Thunderbolt carry audio ▪ VGA or DVI cables do not carry sound

Answer 716

▪ Protects the audio and video signals between the systems over HDMI and DisplayPort ▪ Upgrade the quality of the HDMI cable

Answer 717

o Broken cable o Incorrect data source selected o HDMI device issue

Answer 718

o Dim images o No images o Shut down or restart o Burned-out bulb is when the projector bulb has no light and cannot send an image o Projector bulb has a lifespan of about 500-2000 hours o Use gloves to protect the life of the bulb o Cool down the projector for 15 to 30 minutes before removing the bulb o The projector without the source input will shut down

Answer 719

▪ Dim image occurs when there is no brightness or color contrast control set for displays

Answer 720

▪ Fuzzy image occurs when the output resolution from the computer is lower

Answer 721

▪ Flashing screen means the cable is not properly connected

Answer 722

▪ There is no fix for a dead pixel

Answer 723

▪ Burn-in occurs when the same static picture is displayed on a screen for a long time ▪ Animated screensaver ▪ Turn on inactivity

Answer 724

▪ Actual number of colors displayed ● 8-bit color palette o (256 color variations) ● 16-bit color palette o (32,768 color variations) ● 24-bit color palette o (True color display) o (16,777,216 color variations) ● 32-bit color palette o (Deep color display) o (1B color variations) ● Adobe RGB ● sRGB IEC ● Display P3

Answer 725

o Physical connection o Cable length o Interference o Port flapping o The link light shows a valid link o A repeater is used to increase the connectivity signal o The network cables near power lines use fiber optic connections

Answer 726

▪ 10 Mbps (Off) ▪ 100 Mbps (Orange) ▪ 1000 Mbps (Green)

Answer 727

▪ Power lines ▪ Fluorescent lighting ▪ Motors ▪ Generators

Answer 728

▪ Caused by an intermittent connectivity issue between the client and the network switch ▪ Port flapping status is from upstate to downstate

Answer 729

▪ Manifesting the slowdown of network

Answer 730

▪ Network that sends or receives information ▪ Half duplex is the standard in hubs and network

Answer 731

▪ Network that sends or receives information at the same time ▪ Network interface cards are set to auto negotiation

Answer 732

1. Mismatch in the duplex setting 2. Mismatch in the speed setting 3. Network adapter drivers are out of date 4. Malware infection

Answer 733

o Intermittent wireless connectivity o Signal interference o Low signal strength o Signal interference is causing signal issues o Channels 1, 6, and 11 spread out the network and avoid interference o Wireless a, n, ac, and ax are less prone to signal interference o What frequency is being used? o What is the maximum speed of that frequency? o Which versions of wireless networking are being used? o Configure the wireless access points to support the modern versions of the protocols

Answer 734

▪ Intermittent Wireless Connectivity Connected or disconnected network ▪ Intermittent Wired Connectivity Upstate to a downstate of switch port

Answer 735

▪ Used to measure the signal strength based on an index level and gives a value in decibels (dB)

Answer 736

▪ Increase the power of transmission ▪ Increase the antenna size ▪ Move closer to the source ▪ Wireless a, n, ac, and ax 5 GHz ▪ Wireless b, g, or n 2.4 GHz

Answer 737

▪ Set of protocols that are used to send streaming voice and video in real time

Answer 738

▪ Time it takes for a signal to reach the intended client ▪ Keep latency under 50 to 100 milliseconds

Answer 739

▪ Measurement of the variation in delay over time ▪ When latency increases by up to 30-50 milliseconds, it starts to have jitter ▪ Increase network performance ▪ Implement quality of service

Answer 740

o The set settings for quality of service only affect things inside the network o Setting the quality of service (QoS) allows prioritization of voice traffic

Answer 741

▪ Specialized message to receive within the operating system 1. Affects one network client 2. VLAN is properly configured

Answer 742

▪ IP address ▪ Subnet ▪ Default gateway ▪ DNS server IPs

Answer 743

o Poor battery health o Charging issues o Swollen batteries o As batteries age, the maximum charge they can hold decreases o Swollen batteries are caused by overcharging

Answer 744

▪ Any device that’s unable to properly cool itself down

Answer 745

▪ Dry off excess liquid ▪ Power off the device ▪ Disassemble the device ▪ Clean the circuit boards and contacts ▪ Replace the battery

Answer 746

▪ To fix the damaged port is to remove the port and replace it

Answer 747

▪ Glass ▪ Digitizer ▪ Screen ▪ Backlight

Answer 748

▪ Backlight ▪ Inverter

Answer 749

▪ Digitizer ● Device underneath the glass that responds to the input of the user ▪ The digitizers fail because of shock damage from dropping or liquid damage

Answer 750

▪ When troubleshooting a cursor issue, check the touch pad sensitivity and observe the user

Answer 751

▪ Connected to the right SSID ▪ Connected using the right password ▪ Move closer to the wireless access point ▪ Put the higher gain antenna on ▪ Operate 30 to 50 meters away from the wireless access point to maintain a good connection

Answer 752

▪ Bluetooth enabled ▪ Properly paired ▪ Adequate battery ▪ Right range ▪ Bluetooth is a personal area network and used at up to 10 meters ▪ The wireless NIC is properly connected to the antennas

Answer 753

o Antivirus or anti-malware solution o Excessive power drain o Significant data transmission o Camera and microphone o Asking for additional permissions o Back up the data o Format the device and re-install the base operating system

Answer 754

o Locally connected printer o Printer not found o Printer has an online or offline status o Assign the printer a valid IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server o Use the right SSID and password to ensure the printer joins the correct network o To bring the printer back online, turn off the printer, wait ten seconds, and power it on again o Power Cycling ▪ Printer is turned on and off to release printing memory ● Local connections ● Wired connections ● Wireless connections

Answer 755

o Paper jam o Grinding noise o Check the printer for debris and paper tracks o Inkjet and dot matrix printers are easier to detect a jam o Paper feed issue is when the printer selects more than one piece of paper through the printer ▪ Thin Paper - Low weight ▪ Thick Paper - High weight o The pickup rollers are designed to pick up one piece of paper at a time o Carriage mechanism brings the printhead across the page in an inkjet or impact printer ▪ Toner cartridge ▪ Fuser ▪ Gears and rollers

Answer 756

▪ Draft output mode uses less ink and toner ▪ Faded printout is caused by the running out of ink inside of a printer ink cartridge or toner

Answer 757

▪ Blank page is caused by a software issue

Answer 758

▪ White stripes in laser printers are caused by an issue with the toner cartridge or the drum ▪ The uniform white stripe on the page indicates a problem with the drum

Answer 759

▪ Indicates the primary charge roller is dirty or damaged, or the high voltage power supply to the developer unit is malfunctioning ▪ To fix the black stripes issue, troubleshoot the corona wire or replace the drum and the toner cartridge

Answer 760

▪ Clean the printer using an approved toner vacuum

Answer 761

▪ The vertical or horizontal line is caused by dirty feed rollers ▪ Dirty photosensitive drum can create vertical or horizontal lines

Answer 762

▪ Check the voltage of the fuser and get the proper input voltage

Answer 763

▪ A double/echo/ghost/shadow image indicates a drum issue

Answer 764

▪ Software or printer driver issue could be causing the incorrect color

Answer 765

▪ Use rubbing alcohol to clean the contacts between the printer and the cartridge ▪ Consistent white line indicates a blocked or clogged inkjet nozzle ▪ Replace the printhead and this will replace the dots inside of it ▪ Platen adjusts the gap between the paper and the printhead to different paper sizes

Answer 766

o Incorrect page sizes o Incorrect page orientations o Issues with stapling o Issues with hole punching o Use the right paper size to print o Word processor sets portrait as the default o Slide presentation sets landscape as the default o To solve staple jams, remove the staple cartridge and replace it

Answer 767

▪ Software program used to transmit the print job and provide status information ▪ Print monitors look at toner and ink cartridge levels and notify when they get low

Answer 768

▪ Software that collects all the print jobs and manages them

Answer 769

▪ Manages the paper printing jobs sent from a computer or a printer server ● Print Queue Pending ● Print Spooler Active

Answer 770

▪ Garbled Print Job ● Any output that is scrambled or encrypted ● Garbled printouts are a driver issue ● A font can cause a garbled printout

Dion Training CompTIA A+ Core 1 Flashcards

(795 cards)