Dion Training CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Practice Exam - Results Flashcards

Question

he internet message access protocol (IMAP)

Answer 1

is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time.

Answer 2

is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25.

Answer 3

is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.

Answer 4

Explanation OBJ 2.6 - An MX record is used for outgoing (SMTP) and incoming (POP3/IMAP) traffic.

Answer 5

ssociates your domain name with an IPv4 address.

Answer 6

associates your domain name with an IPv6 address.

Answer 7

a canonical name or alias name, which associates one domain name as an alias of another (like beta.diontraining.com and www.diontraining.com could refer to the same website using a CNAME).

Answer 8

Explanation 1. OBJ 2.3 - **The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard** utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 6.9 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. 2. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. **Wireless AC also has a version called Wi-Fi 6E** that supports the 6 GHz frequency instead of the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies used in Wi-Fi 6.

Answer 9

utilizes 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 9.6 Gbps. Wireless AX uses orthogonal frequency-division multiple access (OFDMA) to conduct multiplexing of the frequencies transmitted and received to each client to provide additional bandwidth.

Answer 10

utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps.

Answer 11

utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps.

Answer 12

utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps.

Answer 13

a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. Wireless N supports the use of multiple-input-multiple-output (MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless N supports channel bonding by combining two 20 MHz channels into a single 40 MHz channel to provide additional bandwidth.

Answer 14

Explanation OBJ 2.6 - A VLAN (virtual LAN) allows a single physical switch to be divided into logical networks. VLANs are only supported on managed switches, but they allow for a different logical subnetwork address to be assigned to various ports on the switch. This requires that communications between different VLANs must go through a router, just as if you had multiple switches. A virtual private network (VPN) extends a private network across a public network and enables users to send and receive data across shared or public networks as if their computing devices were directly connected to the private network.

Answer 15

is a device used to connect a computer or router to a telephone line which provides the digital subscriber line service for connection to the Internet.

Answer 16

is a many-to-one mapping of a private IP address or subnets inside a local area network to a public IP address or subnet outside the local area network. The traffic from different zones and subnets over trusted (inside) IP addresses in the LAN segment is sent over a single public (outside) IP address.

Answer 17

Explanation OBJ 2.5 - A static IP address should be used for servers to ensure they are easy to find, access, and manage on the network. When configuring a static IP address, you need to include the IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server's IP address. A static IP address is used when the DHCP server is disabled and clients are configured manually to join the network properly.

Answer 18

configured automatically by a DHCP server when a new host joins the network.

Answer 19

1. is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. 2. When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have managed to obtain a valid DHCP lease. An APIPA address is also known as a **link-local address.**

Answer 20

Explanation OBJ 2.2 - A patch panel is used in a structured cabling system. A computer is connected to a wall jack in this cable system and then connected to a patch panel by cabling running through the walls. A pre-wired RJ-45 port on the patch panel is then connected to a port on the switch using a straight-through or patch cable.

Answer 21

is a network device that links dissimilar networks and can support multiple alternate paths between locations based upon the parameters of speed, traffic loads, and cost. Routers are used to logically divide networks into subnets.

Answer 22

connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An AP supports the connection of multiple wireless devices through their one wired connection.

Answer 23

provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. This leads to many collisions occurring on the hub and increases the number of rebroadcasts which can slow down the entire network.

Answer 24

Explanation OBJ 1.3 - Phablets are essentially large smartphones. Their size is smaller than a tablet but larger than a smartphone. Generally, smartphones that have screen sizes between 5.5" and 7" are considered phablets by manufacturers. Many phablets also come with a stylus for note-taking on the larger screen size instead of using your finger.

Answer 25

are all considered wearable technology or wearables. Fitness monitors are wearable mobile devices that focus on tracking the health and exercise habits of their users. A high-end smartwatch (for example, an Apple Watch) will allow the user to see their notifications, chat activity, and even make phone calls. A mid-range or low-end smartwatch can still have the ability to read your chat and notifications, but you may be unable to make phone calls from it. A virtual reality headset (VR) is a headset worn like goggles to interact with images displayed in the headset. Virtual reality is a computer-generated, simulated environment experienced via a headset connected to a PC or powered by a smartphone.

Answer 26

In this picture, the user is being authenticated using their fingerprint, which is considered something you are or a biometric factor of authentication. Something you are refers to biometric authentication and includes fingerprints, retina scans, and facial scans.

Answer 27

is a knowledge factor that includes usernames, passwords, and other non-tangible facts.

Answer 28

is a possession factor that includes a physical token, key fob, or smart card. Somewhere you are is a location factor that includes your GPS coordinates or the location of your IP address.

Answer 29

is an action factor that includes the way you sign your name, the way you say a passphrase, and other actionable items.

Answer 30

Explanation OBJ 1.4 - A data cap or bandwidth cap is a service-provider imposed limitation on the amount of data transferred by a user’s account or device over the cellular network. Many smartphone plans that advertise unlimited data still have a transfer limit. Once the limit is reached, these plans will either prevent all data transfer from occurring or slow down the speeds of data transfer. For example, T-Mobile offers unlimited data in the United States, but if a user transfers over 50GB of data then their data is deprioritized and transmitted at slower speeds. Other carriers will use a data throttling method, instead, which slows down all data sent for the remainder of the customer’s billing cycle.

Answer 31

is a denial of service attack that uses multiple compromised computers, called zombies, to launch the attack against a target. Based on the scenario, there is no evidence that the smartphone’s battery is depleted since the phone is still online and transmitting data. The smartphone is not using Wifi to transmit the data and there is no evidence that the 802.11 (Wi-Fi) radio is broken.

Answer 32

Explanation OBJ 1.2 - An organic light-emitting diode (OLED) display is a type of LED flat panel display device that uses organic compounds that emit light when subjected to an electric current. An OLED display works without a backlight because it emits visible light. Thus, it can display deep black levels and be thinner and lighter than a liquid crystal display (LCD). In low ambient light conditions (such as a darker room), an OLED screen can achieve a higher contrast ratio than an LCD, regardless of whether the LCD uses cold cathode fluorescent lamps or an LED backlight. An OLED will consume around 40% of an LCD's power, displaying a primarily black image. For most images, it will consume 60–80% of the power of an LCD.

Answer 33

s a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. The LCD panel is backlight by a cold cathode fluorescent (CCFL) bulb. LCD panels are used on laptops and have replaced CRT monitors as the main type of computer display screen for desktops, as well.

Answer 34

is an LCD panel that uses a LED backlight instead of a CCFL backlight to provide its light source.

Answer 35

is a type of flat panel display that uses small cells containing plasma with ionized gas that responds to electric fields. Plasma displays create excessive heat and are not as energy efficient as an LCD, LED, or OLED display.

Answer 36

Explanation OBJ 1.4 - Location services enable the device to know its position using its internal GPS receiver or its approximate location using its cellular radio. To embed the GPS position into a photograph, location services must be enabled.

Answer 37

are designed to manage the use of smartphones and tablets within an enterprise.

Answer 38

is used to encrypt the user and system data stored in the device’s internal storage. The encryption key is stored in a protected portion of the device and can be used to remotely wipe the device if it is lost or stolen.

Answer 39

is used to apply different permissions and functionality to an employee's mobile device and is usually configured by an MDM.

Answer 40

Explanation OBJ 1.4 - You should configure IMAP because it will leave the email on the server and allow for synchronizing the mail to all devices, including each email's read state. 2. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time.

Answer 41

1. the mail is downloaded to the device and removed the mail from the server's mailbox by default. 2. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them.

Answer 42

is used to send emails, not receive them. 2. is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25.

Answer 43

is used for web browsing, not for receiving emails. 2. is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.

Answer 44

Explanation OBJ 1.2 - An in-plane switching (IPS) LCD panel uses technology designed to resolve the quality issues inherent in TN panel technology, including strong viewing angle dependence and low-quality color reproduction. IPS displays have great color accuracy, but they do not support higher refresh rates sought after by gamers.

Answer 45

uses technology where the panel is black when no electric current is running through the liquid crystal cells because the cells align themselves in a twisted state. When an electric current is applied, the liquid crystal cells untwist, allowing light to pass through, resulting in a white display screen. TN displays can be made with high refresh rates of 120 Hz or 144 Hz which makes them popular with gamers.

Answer 46

uses technology designed to have liquid crystals lay perpendicular to the glass substrate when power is removed and in a vertical position when voltage is applied. This allows light to move through the liquid pixels when voltage is applied and the image is then produced. VA displays are a good middle-ground between IPS and TN panel displays.

Answer 47

s a type of flat panel display that uses small cells containing plasma with ionized gas that responds to electric fields. Plasma displays create excessive heat and are not as energy efficient as an LCD, LED, or OLED display.

Answer 48

Explanation OBJ 1.1 - M.2 s a new set of form factors for mini card interfaces. An M.2 SSD provides a direct interface with the PCI Express bus to provide higher bus speeds than a SATA connection. M.2 adapters come in four different sizes based on their length. The one chosen depends on your model of laptop and the space available within the case. The 80mm variety is the most common one used in modern laptops.

Answer 49

either the 2.5" form factor or the 1.8" form factor. When a 1.8" form factor is used, the drive is connected to the laptop using a Micro SATA connector since a regular SATA connector will not fit due to the connector's larger size. A 3.5" drive is only used in desktops and some networked file servers.

Answer 50

Explanation OBJ 1.2 - The inverter (also known as inverter board, screen inverter, or LCD inverter) is a part of the laptop's display assembly. The inverter is a small green board attached to the base of the LCD panel. In a laptop computer, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen, and the inverter acts as the power supply for this lighting source. If the inverter is faulty, the display will be too dim to easily see without an external light source like a flashlight.

Answer 51

is a touch-sensitive glass panel covering the LCD in a touch screen assembly. The digitizer is used to convert touch events to digital signals that can be interpreted as different types of input.

Answer 52

is a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. LCD panels are used on laptops and have replaced CRT monitors as the main type of computer display screen for desktops, as well.

Answer 53

is a microprocessor used on dedicated video adapter cards or within a CPU with integrated graphics capability to handle the mathematical calculations required to create immersive and 3D graphics.

Answer 54

Explanation OBJ 1.3 - Many stores use a signature pad to digitally capture your handwritten signature when using a credit card to pay for your purchase. A signature capture pad is a device that electronically captures a person's handwritten signature on an LCD touchpad using a pen-type stylus. Once captured, digital signatures can be imported into and used with most ID software and security programs. Signatures can also be digitally stored for future use.

Answer 55

is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another.

Answer 56

is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices.

Answer 57

is an input device used on most laptops to replace a mouse. The touchpad allows the user to control the cursor by moving a finger over the pad's surface.

Answer 58

Explanation OBJ 1.4 - Apple’s online cloud storage and file synchronization service for macOS and iOS devices is called iCloud. The service provides a centralized location for mail, contacts, calendar, photos, notes, reminders, and files online.

Answer 59

is a media player, media library, Internet radio broadcaster, mobile device management utility, and the client app for the iTunes Store. It is not a cloud-based solution for synchronization.

Answer 60

is a collection of cloud computing, productivity and collaboration tools, software, and products developed and marketed by Google.

Answer 61

is a line of subscription services offered by Microsoft which adds to and includes the Microsoft Office product line.

Answer 62

Explanation OBJ 1.2 - An inverter supplies the correct AC voltage to the LCD's fluorescent backlight from the laptop's DC power circuits. An LCD (TFT) with fluorescent backlight has been the standard display technology for the last few years. The backlight is a fluorescent bulb that illuminates the image, making it bright and clear.

Answer 63

is an LCD panel that uses a LED backlight instead of a CCFL backlight to provide its light source.

Answer 64

is a type of LED flat panel display device that uses organic compounds that emit light when subjected to an electric current. An OLED display works without a backlight because it emits visible light. Thus, it can display deep black levels and be thinner and lighter than a liquid crystal display (LCD). In low ambient light conditions (such as in a dark room), an OLED screen can achieve a higher contrast ratio than an LCD, regardless of whether the LCD uses cold cathode fluorescent lamps or an LED backlight.

Answer 65

is a type of flat panel display that uses small cells containing plasma with ionized gas that responds to electric fields. Plasma displays create excessive heat and are not as energy efficient as an LCD, LED, or OLED display.

Answer 66

Explanation OBJ 2.5 - Wireless access points should always be configured with channels 1, 6, or 11 to maximize the distance between channels and prevent overlaps. Each channel on the 2.4 GHz spectrum is 20 MHz wide. The channel centers are separated by 5 MHz, and the entire spectrum is only 100 MHz wide. This means the 11 channels have to squeeze into the 100 MHz available, and in the end, overlap. Channels 1, 6, and 11, however, are far enough from each other on the 2.4GHz band that they have sufficient space between their channel centers and do not overlap.

Answer 67

Explanation OBJ 2.7 - A personal area network (PAN) is a close-range network that is usually based on Bluetooth or NFC for communications between personal devices, such as smartphones, laptops, printers, and other peripheral devices.

Answer 68

is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media.

Answer 69

is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. Wide area networks are often established with leased telecommunication circuits.

Answer 70

is a dedicated, independent high-speed network that interconnects and delivers shared pools of storage devices to multiple servers. A storage area network often uses Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE), Fibre Channel, or Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI) connections to achieve the speeds necessary to support SAN operations.

Answer 71

Explanation OBJ 2.7 - A storage area network (SAN) is a dedicated, independent high-speed network that interconnects and delivers shared pools of storage devices to multiple servers. A storage area network often uses Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE), Fibre Channel, or Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI) connections to achieve the speeds necessary to support SAN operations.

Answer 72

onnects computers within a small and specific geographical area using the 802.11 protocols for their wireless connections.

Answer 73

is a computer network that interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic region of the size of a metropolitan or city area.

Answer 74

is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. Wide area networks are often established with leased telecommunication circuits.

Answer 75

Explanation OBJ 2.4 - A legacy system is no longer directly supported by its vendor. Networks often need to retain hosts running DOS or legacy versions of Windows (8.1 and earlier) or old-style mainframe computers to run services that are too complex or expensive to migrate to a more modern platform. Legacy systems usually work well for what they do (which is why they don't get prioritized for replacement), but they represent very severe risks in terms of security vulnerabilities.

Answer 76

are network appliances that provide all the security functions of a firewall, malware scanner, intrusion detection, vulnerability scanner, data loss prevention, content filtering, and other security devices into a single device or appliance.

Answer 77

used to conduct patch management across your organization's network.

Answer 78

is a computer system that is designed to perform a specific, dedicated function, such as a microcontroller in a medical drip or components in a control system managing a water treatment plant.

Answer 79

Explanation OBJ 2.2 - Power over Ethernet (POE) switches provide power over ordinary data cabling to devices such as VoIP handsets and wireless access points. PoE can support up to 15.4W and PoE+ can support up to 25W. **The 802.3af (PoE)** standard can support up to 15.4W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE can support low-powered devices such as VoIP handsets.

Answer 80

standard can support up to 25W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE+ can support higher-powered devices such as PTZ cameras, door controllers, and thin client computers.

Answer 81

defines a 5 GHz wireless networking standard.

Answer 82

defines the usage of wireless mesh technology.

Answer 83

Explanation OBJ 3.3 - Hard drive performance is limited based on the number of revolutions per minute (RPM) the disk can spin. If a disk can spin faster, it can retrieve or store data on the disk quicker. For low-end office desktops, using a 5,400 rpm hard disk drive to save money is acceptable. For a high-performance gaming computer, a 15,000 rpm hard disk drive or an SSD should be used instead.

Answer 84

Explanation OBJ 3.1 - The F type connector is used with coaxial cables. Both RG-6 and RG-59 are cable types used for coaxial cable connections. RG-6 cabling is recommended for your Cable TV, satellite, TV antennas, or broadband internet. RG-59 cabling is generally better for most CCTV systems and other analog video signals.

Answer 85

is used to terminate a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable.

Answer 86

is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable.

Answer 87

is used to terminate a fiber optic cable.

Answer 88

Explanation OBJ 3.3 - RAID 0 (disk striping) is the process of dividing a body of data into blocks and spreading the data blocks across multiple storage devices, such as hard disks or solid-state drives (SSDs), in a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) group. Unlike other RAID levels, RAID 0 does not have parity or redundancy. It will provide faster performance and speed, as well as use 100% of the available drive space. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks.

Answer 89

mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks.

Answer 90

block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks.

Answer 91

disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data stored in the array and required a minimum of four disks.

Answer 92

Explanation OBJ 3.3 - In this scenario, **a gigabit NIC **will help handle the heavy network load created by sharing large files over the network. **Data protection needs to use a RAID 1, RAID 5, or RAID 10 configuration** to protect against any potential data loss caused by a single hard disk drive failure. RAID 5 is the most commonly used RAID for servers. A RAID 5 requires a minimum of 3 hard disk drives and can continue to operate as long as 2 of the 3 drives are functional.

Answer 93

Explanation OBJ 3.1 - A 110 punchdown block is a type of punch block used to terminate runs of on-premises wiring in a structured cabling system. The designation 110 is also used to describe a type of insulation displacement contact (IDC) connector used to terminate twisted pair cables when using a punch-down tool similar to the older 66 punch down block. A 110 punchdown block provides more spacing between the terminals and is designed for Cat 5 networks to eliminate crosstalk between the cables.

Answer 94

are used for coaxial cables, not Cat 5e network cables.

Answer 95

is used to terminate telephone lines, not Cat 5e network cables.

Answer 96

Explanation OBJ 3.2 - Dual-channel memory is a memory controller with two primary pathways through the bus to the CPU to transfer 128-bits of data in each transaction. Single-channel memory is any memory using one 64-bit bus between the CPU and the RAM. Triple-channel memory is any memory using three 64-bit buses between the CPU and the RAM. Quad-channel memory is any memory using four 64-bit buses between the CPU and the RAM.

Answer 97

Explanation OBJ 3.1 - A copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable is usually terminated with an RJ-45 connector.

Answer 98

is used to terminate cables used for phone lines.

Answer 99

an ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector.

Answer 100

is used with coaxial cables.

Answer 101

Explanation OBJ 3.4 - The area circled indicates the audio connector on this motherboard. This is used to connect the CD/DVD audio cable from the drive to the motherboard for digital audio. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

Answer 102

Explanation OBJ 3.4 - The area circled indicates the PCIe x4 slot on this motherboard. PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has some PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

Answer 103

Explanation OBJ 3.6 - The most convenient and least expensive way to connect the printer would be to buy an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter, which will allow you to connect the legacy printer to the network directly. Then, the printer will be accessed by all users directly from their computers while printing to it using the appropriate print drivers. Networks do not have USB connections, so you need to select a network connection type like RJ-45 to use instead.

Answer 104

Explanation OBJ 3.1 - The F type connector is used with coaxial cables. Both RG-6 and RG-59 are cable types used for coaxial cable connections. RG-6 cabling is recommended for your Cable TV, satellite, TV antennas, or broadband internet. RG-59 cabling is generally better for most CCTV systems and other analog video signals. An RJ-45 connector is used to terminate a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable. A DB-9 connector is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines.

Answer 105

Explanation OBJ 3.5 - It is always important to ensure the correct power supply input setting is used for your computer based on the location in which you are using it. In Europe, the nominal voltage of a power outlet is 220V. Therefore, Jennifer's computer is probably still selected for a power supply input setting of 220V. In the United States, the nominal voltage is 115V. Therefore, Jennifer needs to flip the power configuration switch on the power supply's input selector from 220V to 115V to operate properly. If the computer was incorrectly set to 115V and plugged into a 220V outlet, the power supply could be destroyed or catch fire.

Answer 106

Explanation OBJ 3.7 - Toner is used by a laser printer to transfer the image to a piece of paper.

Answer 107

is used by an inkjet printer.

Answer 108

is used by a 3-D printer to create its final design.

Answer 109

is used by an impact printer.

Answer 110

Explanation OBJ 3.3 - RAID 10 offers the fastest speed, best reliability, and highest redundancy but is more costly as the overall disk storage will be greatly reduced. A RAID 10 combines disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data stored in the array and required a minimum of four disks.

Answer 111

disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks.

Answer 112

provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks.

Answer 113

block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks.

Answer 114

Explanation OBJ 3.6 - Both the printer control language (PCL) and PostScript (PS) are page description languages, but PCL produces faster outputs that are of lower quality. The printer control language (PCL) is a page description language used to tell printers how to properly layout and print the contents of a document on a page. PCL is a common printing language that is supported by many different printer manufacturers.

Answer 115

(PS) is a page description language used in the electronic publishing and desktop publishing business. PCL is faster to print than PS. PS is slower but produces higher quality outputs.

Answer 116

is a specialized Internet protocol for communication between client devices and printers (or print servers) using the HTTP protocol for data transport.

Answer 117

is a network printing protocol for submitting print jobs to a remote printer. LPD is an older protocol than IPP.

Answer 118

Explanation OBJ 3.1 - To achieve 10 Gbps, you should use Cat 6a, Cat 7, Cat 8, or a fiber optic cable. Since fiber optic was the only option listed here, it is the best answer.

Answer 119

can only operate up to 100 meters at 1 Gbps.

Answer 120

can only operate at 100 meters at 10 Mbps.

Answer 121

10 Mbps, but newer MoCA coaxial ethernet connections can reach speeds of up to 2.5 Gbps.

Answer 122

Explanation OBJ 3.4 - The area circled indicates the PCIe x1 slots. PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has some PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. PCIe x1 slots are usually used for external input/output devices such as network interface cards. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

Answer 123

Explanation OBJ 3.4 - The area circled indicates the reset jumper on this motherboard. A reset jumper is a small plastic block with a metal connection inside. To reset the motherboard's BIOS, you would connect the jumper over this area to make an electrical connection between the two pins. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

Answer 124

Explanation OBJ 3.1 - micro USB is a miniaturized version of the Universal Serial Bus (USB) interface developed for connecting compact and mobile devices such as smartphones, MP3 players, GPS devices, photo printers, and digital cameras. Micro USB connectors exist or have existed in three forms: micro A, micro B, and micro USB 3.

Answer 125

was introduced with USB 2.0 and was used with digital cameras and early tablets. Mini USB is not commonly used in modern devices.

Answer 126

for smartphones and many other devices as it is faster and easier to connect. USB-C is the default standard used in USB 3.1 with a 24-pin connector. The connector is reversible and can be inserted in either direction.

Answer 127

is a large form factor USB connector usually reserved for connecting to older printers and scanners.

Answer 128

Explanation OBJ 3.1 - This port is the audio cluster on the rear of this motherboard. This contains the audio inputs and outputs in mini-jack format. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard's rear port cluster by sight.

Answer 129

Explanation OBJ 3.1 - RJ-45 refers to a cable termination specification that specifies physical male and female connectors and the pin assignments of data jacks that can be used for networks and VOIP telephone cables. RJ-45 is an 8-pin/8-position plug or jack commonly used to connect computers onto Ethernet-based local area networks (LAN) and consists of two wiring schemes: T568A and T568B.

Answer 130

is used to provide power to internal components of a computer from the power supply.

Answer 131

Explanation OBJ 3.1 - F type is the connector used with coaxial cables. Both RG-6 and RG-59 are cable types used for coaxial cable connections. RG-6 cabling is recommended for your Cable TV, satellite, TV antennas, or broadband internet. RG-59 cabling is generally better for most CCTV systems and other analog video signals. A copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable is usually terminated with an RJ-45 connector. An RS-232 serial cable is normally terminated with a DB-9 connector. A fiber optic cable normally uses an ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector.

Answer 132

Explanation OBJ 4.1 - A virtual machine can usually be restored much faster than a physical server. Physical servers must be modified to fit the right drivers for the disk drives, NIC, and other necessary components whenever they must be rebuilt after a crash. Often, a new physical server will also be required to replace a faulty one, and then the right drivers are needed to ensure a smooth transition. Conversely, a virtual machine can be recreated using another instance, clone, or restoration from a backup in much less time. Therefore, the downtime associated with virtual machines and their restoral is much lower.

Answer 133

Explanation OBJ 4.1 - OneDrive is a Microsoft product that comes as part of the Office 365 subscription package. The other options can also provide the capabilities requested, but there would be a separate cost to utilize them. Therefore, you should recommend OneDrive in this scenario. OneDrive can utilize the storage that is easy to access from a laptop, smartphone, or tablet while the employees are away from their offices.

Answer 134

is a cloud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions.

Answer 135

OBJ 4.2 - A hypervisor, also known as a virtual machine monitor, is a process that creates and runs virtual machines (VMs). A hypervisor allows one host computer to support multiple guest VMs by virtually sharing its resources, like memory and processing. To create and provision virtual machines within the Windows 2019 operating system, you can use a Type II hypervisor like VMWare or VirtualBox.

Answer 136

is a system utility in Windows that enables you to perform advanced storage tasks. Device Manager is a component of the Microsoft Windows operating system that allows users to view and control the hardware attached to the computer.

Answer 137

is one of the components of Microsoft Windows that allow a user to take control of a remote computer or virtual machine over a network connection.

Answer 138

Explanation OBJ 4.2 - According to CompTIA, the two main things you need to include for a dedicated virtualization workstation are (1) maximum RAM and (2) multiple CPU cores. Based on the options provided, you should pick the 64 GB of DDR4 (maximum RAM) and the Intel i9 with 8-cores (multiple processor cores) for this workstation's configuration. The CPU should support virtualization and be a multicore processor. The memory should be fast and contain at least 16 GB of RAM to host numerous VMs effectively.

Answer 139

Explanation OBJ 4.1 - Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is an instant computing infrastructure, provisioned, and managed over the internet. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. IaaS quickly scales up and down with demand, letting you pay only for what you use. It helps you avoid the expense and complexity of buying and managing your physical servers and other data center infrastructure. Each resource is offered as a separate service component, and you only need to rent a particular one for as long as you need it. A cloud computing service provider manages the infrastructure while you purchase, install, configure, and manage your software.

Answer 140

is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes.

Answer 141

is a cloud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions.

Answer 142

a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.

Answer 143

Explanation OBJ 4.2 - The process of developing, testing, and deploying images brings about the first major security concern with the virtual platform itself. This is the problem of rogue VMs. **A rogue VM** is one that has been installed without authorization.

Answer 144

The uncontrolled deployment of more and more VMs. After all, it is a lot easier to add a guest image to a server than it is to plug a new hardware server into the network.

Answer 145

refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use.

Answer 146

is the processing of programs by multiple processors that share a common operating system and memory.

Answer 147

represents the configuration of a VM connected to a network. A VM can be configured to have multiple vNICs.

Answer 148

Explanation OBJ 4.2 - The private network connection type will create a switch that is usable only by the VMs. The VMs cannot use the switch to communicate with the host.

Answer 149

it can communicate between the host and the VMs.

Answer 150

the VMs would have internet access.

Answer 151

each VM could only communicate with itself.

Answer 152

Explanation OBJ 4.1 - Desktop as a Service (DaaS) is a cloud computing offering where a service provider delivers virtual desktops to end-users over the Internet, licensed with a per-user subscription. DaaS is often combined with Virtual Desktop Infrastructure.

Answer 153

is a complete development and deployment environment in the cloud, with resources that enable you to deliver everything from simple cloud-based apps to sophisticated, cloud-enabled enterprise applications.

Answer 154

is a type of cloud computing service that offers essential compute, storage, and networking resources on-demand, on a pay-as-you-go basis.

Answer 155

users to connect to and use cloud-based apps over the Internet. Common examples are email, calendaring, and office tools (such as Microsoft Office 365). SaaS provides a complete software solution that you purchase on a pay-as-you-go basis from a cloud service provider.

Answer 156

Explanation OBJ 4.1 - Software as a service (or SaaS) is a way of delivering applications over the Internet as a service. Instead of installing and maintaining software, you access it via the Internet, freeing yourself from complex software and hardware management. It allows a company to pay a monthly or yearly fee to receive access to the software without managing the software locally within their own network. For example, many small businesses use Shopify to create an online ecommerce store that is classified as a SaaS product. Other examples include G Suite, Office 365, or Adobe Creative Cloud.

Answer 157

is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes.

Answer 158

is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center.

Answer 159

provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.

Answer 160

Explanation OBJ 4.2 - Most virtual machines running on a workstation will have their own virtual internal network to communicate within the virtual environment while preventing them from communicating with the outside world. You may also configure a shared network address for the virtual machine to have the same IP address as the physical host that it is running on. This usually relies on network address translation to communicate from the virtual environment (inside) to the physical world (outside/internet). If you are communicating internally in the virtual network, there is no need for DNS or an external network.

Answer 161

Explanation OBJ 5.2 - If the laptop loses power when moved, this is most likely a loose battery connection. Since the laptop operates without any issues when on the user’s desk, it indicates that the connection comes loose during movement.

Answer 162

it intermittently shuts down at random times and not only when moved.

Answer 163

he technician would smell a foul odor coming from the motherboard.

Answer 164

then it would cause the laptop to lose its date/time settings but the laptop would not shut down intermittently.

Answer 165

Explanation OBJ 5.2 - If a workstation overheats, it will shut down or reboot itself to protect the processor. This can occur if the case fans are clogged with dust or become unplugged. By checking and reconnecting the case fans, the technician can rule out an overheating issue causing this problem. Since the memory was already tested successfully, it does not need to be removed and reseated, or replaced with ECC modules. The BIOS is not the issue since the computer booted up into Windows successfully before rebooting.

Answer 166

Explanation OBJ 5.2 - Based on the scenario, it is most likely that the technician forgot to connect the motherboard’s 24-pin power cable. If the motherboard power cable was not connected, then the motherboard’s LED would not be lit. The case fans will not spin either since they receive their power through the motherboard, as well. Without the connection to the power, the computer couldn't complete its POST. The hard drive will not spin since it receives the wake-up command from the motherboard through a SATA data cable. If the motherboard's 24-pin power cable were connected, but the SATA 15-pin power cable hadn't been connected, the LED would have lit up, but the SATA would not have connected. If the motherboard's 24-pin power cable were connected, but the case fan's 4-pin power cable hadn't been connected, the fan wouldn't have spun, but the motherboard's LED would have lit up.

Answer 167

Explanation OBJ 5.2 - If the CMOS battery has failed, then it would cause the workstation to lose its date/time settings. When a system is powered down, the internal CMOS battery on the motherboard is used to maintain the date/time.

Answer 168

it intermittently shut down at random times.

Answer 169

then a technician will smell a foul odor coming from the motherboard.

Answer 170

a motherboard failure that can lead to strange issues occurring on the desktop.

Answer 171

this is most likely a loose power cable.

Answer 172

Explanation OBJ 5.1 - There are 6 steps in the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology: (1) Identify the problem, (2) Establish a theory of probable cause, (3) Test the theory to determine the cause, (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution, (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures, (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes. Based on the question, you just finished performing step 5, so the NEXT step to perform is step 6.

Answer 173

Explanation OBJ 5.2 - Loud clicking noises are usually indicative of a hard drive failing or a dirty cooling fan. Since the S.M.A.R.T. errors were also present, this indicates a hard drive failure. Additionally, the operating system failing to load is another indication that there is a hard drive issue.

Answer 174

the system would overheat and intermittently reboot.

Answer 175

a BIOS error or POST error would be generated.

Answer 176

Explanation OBJ 5.3 - If the system still fails to boot up from the correct drive, then go into the BIOS/UEFI setup program and check the existing boot order settings. If they are in the wrong order, reconfigure them to ensure the usual boot device is listed first in the list and then restart the computer. There is no need to unplug the external hard disks since you can simply change the boot order in the BIOS.

Answer 177

allow the user to choose to boot into Windows in regular or safe mode. This worked by default in Windows 7, 8, and 8.1, but need to be enabled before it will work in Windows 10. The technician cannot configure the boot order in Windows without first booting into Windows from the hard drive, so the technician would still need to reconfigure the boot order in the BIOS/UEFI first.

Answer 178

Explanation OBJ 5.2 - If the fan in the power supply is faulty, replace the entire power supply. You should never attempt to repair or fix a broken power supply or broken power supply cooling fan due to the power supply's high voltage electrical components. When a fan creates a grinding sounds, this is evidence of an impending failure and the device needs to be replaced. Technicians should never open a power supply or replace any of its internal components, therefore the entire power supply should be replaced in this scenario.

Answer 179

Explanation OBJ 5.2 - The Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) is a "stop screen" that appears when the Windows operating system detects a critical error and literally stops the system so that the error doesn't cause any loss of data. All operating systems have some form of "stop screen," but the Windows version got the name BSOD since it was a screen with a full blue background and white text containing troubleshooting information and error codes. On a Mac (OS X) system, the BSOD is replaced by the "Pinwheel of Death," which is an endlessly spinning mouse pointer displayed on the screen. This usually occurs due to a memory failure or memory corruption in the system.

Answer 180

Explanation OBJ 5.2 - A multimeter can measure the voltage, amperage, and resistance of a circuit. A multimeter can be a hand-held device useful for basic fault finding and field service work or a bench instrument that can measure electricity with a high degree of accuracy. Using a multimeter, you can determine the exact voltage being supplied to the motherboard from the workstation's power supply.

Answer 181

is a plug-in diagnostic interface card that displays progress and error codes generated during the power-on self-test of a computer.

Answer 182

is used to test a port. When you connect a loopback plug to a port, you should see a solid connection LED. You can also use the loopback plug in conjunction with diagnostic software.

Answer 183

is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable. Cable testers provide detailed information on the physical and electrical properties of the cable. For example, they test and report cable conditions, crosstalk, attenuation, noise, resistance, and other cable run characteristics.

Answer 184

Explanation OBJ 5.3 - DoS stands for Denial of Service. It is a form of cyber attack, not a name for a crash screen. Crash screens are referred to by different names based on the operating system. BSOD (Blue Screen of Death) is used for Windows. The Pinwheel of Death is used for MacOS. Kernel Panic is used for Linux.

Answer 185

Explanation OBJ 5.2 - Many laptops have a series of keystrokes such as FN + F8 to switch from the internal display to an externally connected screen. Since the internal display is not working, rebooting again or trying to navigate the BIOS without seeing the screen would be ineffective. Instead, trying the function key toggle that switches to an external monitor may resolve the issue temporarily while you begin to look for a long-term solution. Different manufacturers use different keystrokes, but FN + F8 is an example of the keystroke used in Dell laptops.

Answer 186

Explanation OBJ 5.1 - For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Answer 187

Explanation OBJ 5.2 - In this scenario, we want to add more RAM. RAM is the temporary storage used for running applications. By adding more RAM, you can speed up the system when running applications simultaneously and prevent reading to the slower disk drives (SSD or HDD).

Answer 188

would slow down the system.

Answer 189

would help if the customer complained of slow network connectivity, but that is not the case in this scenario.

Answer 190

there is an error stating that there are errors in the file system.

Answer 191

Explanation OBJ 5.1 - Based on the description in the question, it appears you are trying to gather more information about the problem and its symptoms for you to identify the problem. For the exam, you must be able to list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Answer 192

Explanation OBJ 5.2 - The best step would be to apply a small amount of oil to each of the fan's bearings, as this will eliminate the noise.

Answer 193

you would instead apply compressed air or clean the fan blades using a damp cloth. Since there was no dust noticed, this cannot be the whining source, and instead, you should apply oil to the bearings.

Answer 194

then you would replace the case fans.

Answer 195

Explanation OBJ 5.2 - A computer that keeps rebooting itself is a symptom of a faulty power supply or a computer that is overheating. If the power supply is faulty, the computer will reboot itself. If the issue is caused by an overheating issue (such as a cooling fan failure), the computer will usually reboot itself after running for 15-20 minutes (once enough heat is built-up). **Therefore, you should test the power supply** first to determine if that is the root cause of the issue, and then replace the power supply, if required.

Answer 196

Explanation OBJ 5.2 - A foul smell is usually indicative of a distended capacitor. Capacitors are small electrical components on the motherboard. Therefore you should inspect the motherboard for replacement.

Answer 197

then the power supply should be the first component inspected.

Answer 198

Explanation OBJ 5.1 - For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Answer 199

Explanation OBJ 5.3 - A RAID 10 creates a mirrored array of striped arrays. This will provide the fastest performance and the best redundancy of any option listed in this question.

Answer 200

disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks.

Answer 201

mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks.

Answer 202

block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks.

Answer 203

Explanation OBJ 5.2 - A foul odor is indicative of a distended capacitor.

Answer 204

is indicative of a dead CMOS battery.

Answer 205

is indicative of a bad power supply.

Answer 206

the supervisor likely suspected the RAM as the cause of the issue.

Answer 207

Explanation OBJ 5.2 - The incorrect date/time on the workstation is indicative of a dead CMOS battery. A foul odor is indicative of a distended capacitor. A burning smell is indicative of a bad power supply. Hardware failure or system instability can cause the computer to reboot continuously. The problem could be the RAM, hard drive, power supply, graphics card, or external devices. Based on the symptoms of a continuous reboot, the supervisor likely suspected the RAM as the cause of the issue.

Answer 208

Explanation OBJ 5.2 - During the bootup process, a power-on self-test (POST) is performed. A single beep is commonly used to indicate the successful completion of the POST. Based on the POST results, different series of beeps may be played to indicate the status of the system. For example, if a single beep was heard, this could indicate a successful POST after a new hardware installation has been completed. Each manufacturer uses different POST codes, so it is important to consult the manual for the motherboard or BIOS in use by the system.

Answer 209

Explanation OBJ 5.1 - The troubleshooting steps are to (1) Identify the problem, (2) Establish a theory of probable cause, (3) Test the theory to determine the cause, (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects, (5) Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures, and (6) Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned. Based on the scenario presented, you have already gathered information, questioned users, identified symptoms, and determined if anything changed, so you have completed the first step: identify the problem. Now, you should begin to establish a theory of probable cause by questioning the obvious and using a top-to-bottom, bottom-to-top, or divide and conquer approach to troubleshooting.

Answer 210

Explanation OBJ 5.2 - A distended capacitor on a motherboard is an indication of a fault on the motherboard. Capacitors can bulge and release a substance that has a foul smell when they fail. Capacitors are tiny electrical components that are soldered onto the motherboard and aid in the storage and use of DC voltage. An unplugged Molex connection, broken LED light, or unseated RAM module would not produce any kind of odor or smell.

Answer 211

Explanation OBJ 5.3 - Since this customer is accident-prone, you should recommend they install an NVMe or SSD device. These solid-state devices are more resistant to drops since they have no moving parts or platters in them. A hybrid or HDD solution would not be effective as they both have moving platters in them that can be destroyed by a drop.

Dion Training CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Practice Exam - Results Flashcards

(235 cards)