CompTIA A+ Core 1 Practice Test Flashcards
1
Q
What causes a mobile device battery to swell?
A
A swollen battery indicates a problem with the battery’s charging circuit, which is supposed to prevent overcharging.
2
Q
Improper charging routine
A
An improper charging routine will reduce the usable life of a battery. A Li-ion battery should not be allowed to fully discharge regularly or be kept persistently at 100% charge.
3
Q
Old battery
A
As batteries age, they will not hold a proper charge. Symptoms can be that the device will not switch on or only remains on for a few seconds.
4
Q
Underpowered adapter
A
Charging ports can be damaged by improper insertion and removal of the connectors. Signs of this are no charging or intermittent charging.
5
Q
A technician notices that the printer’s output was not expected and needs to check the printer’s control panel to investigate the problem. What does the technician need to check?
A
Calibration is how the printer determines the appropriate print density or color balance. Most printers calibrate themselves automatically.
6
Q
Maintenance kit
A
A maintenance kit is a replacement feed roller, transfer roller, and fuser unit. The printer’s internal copy count of the number of printed pages guides the replacement kit.
7
Q
Toner
A
Toner is composed of a fine compound of dyestuff and wax or plastic particles. The toner carries the same negative charge polarity as the drum.
8
Q
Developer roller
A
The developer roller is very close to the photosensitive drum. The toner is fed evenly onto a magnetized developed roller from a hopper.
9
Q
This protocol transfers email messages across a network and uses TCP port 25.
A
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) transfers email messages across a network and uses TCP port 25.
10
Q
FTP
A
File Transfer Protocol (FTP) makes files available for download across a network. It utilizes two ports. TCP Port 21 establishes the connection between two computers (control connection), and TCP port 20 is the port the file(s) are transferred across (data connection).
11
Q
Telnet
A
Telnet makes an unsecured connection to the command-line interface of a remote server and uses TCP port 23.
12
Q
SSH
A
Secure Shell (SSH) makes a secure connection to the command-line interface of a remote server and uses TCP port 22.
13
Q
What problem does a screensaver help prevent?
A
When the same static image displays for an extended period, it can damage the monitor’s picture elements, causing a ghost image to “burn” permanently onto the display. An animated screensaver can help prevent this problem.
14
Q
Fuzzy image
A
If the output resolution does not match the display device’s native resolution, then the image will appear fuzzy.
15
Q
Dim image
A
Incorrect settings or a failed backlight can cause a dim image. Adjusting the brightness and contrast of a display can help fix a dim image.
16
Q
Stuck pixels
A
A flat-panel monitor defect may cause individual pixels to be “stuck” or “dead.” If a digital display panel has stuck pixels, and the panel is not replaceable under warranty, then software utilities are available to reactivate pixels.
17
Q
An automobile allows for connecting a smartphone or tablet for entertainment and audio purposes. Pairing the two occurs with which technology?
A
A Bluetooth wireless radio creates a short-range personal area network (PAN) to share data with a PC, connect to a printer, and even connect to automobiles. The connection occurs through what is known as pairing.
18
Q
NFC
A
Many mobile devices have near-field communication (NFC) chips built in. NFC allows for very short-range data transmission (up to about 20 cm/8 in.) to activate a receiver chip in a contactless reader.
19
Q
Hotspot
A
A smartphone or tablet can be configured as a personal hotspot to share its cellular data connection with other computer devices.
20
Q
Wi-Fi
A
Every laptop, smartphone, and tablet supports a Wi-Fi radio. While some automobiles also offer built-in Wi-Fi, this technology is not used to pair two devices.
21
Q
What hardware on a client’s computer allows a device and printer to connect over a network?
A
A print server is a hardware and firmware that allows client computers to connect directly over the network without going via a server computer.
22
Q
Printer share
A
The print share model describes how multiple client devices access the printer. Ordinary users can connect to a network printer if the print server administrator grants permission to use it.
23
Q
Secured prints
A
Secured print is held on the print device until it authenticates directly with the print devices. This mitigates the risk of intercepting confidential information from the output tray before the user has had time to collect it.
24
Q
Audit log
A
An audit log can identify printed documents that have gone missing or identify the unauthorized release of information.
25
A user is trying to connect a gaming console to a television. What type of connector should the user utilize?
A high-definition multimedia interface (HDMI) is the most widely used video interface. HDMI supports both video and audio. The user would utilize this because it is ubiquitous in consumer electronics.
26
USB 3.0
USB 3.0 has new versions of Type A, Type B, and Type B Micro connectors with additional signaling and wires.
27
Adapter
An adapter cable has connectors for two different cable types at the end. An active adapter uses circuitry to convert the signal.
28
Lightning port
A Lightning port is found only on Apple’s mobile devices. The Lightning connector is reversible. The user needs a suitable adapter cable to connect such a device as a Lightning-to-USB A or Lightning-to-USB C.
29
An IT support specialist updated all the information systems in the office last week and the users are complaining that the routinely used applications no longer work. What is most likely the issue breaking the applications?
Legacy software applications and operating systems may not perform well if a user’s system has been upgraded.
30
Resource requirements
Resource requirements are important to consider and meet when setting up a virtualized system and network for virtualized systems to use. If the system is not designed with resource requirements in mind, it will be overwhelmed and dysfunctional.
31
Security requirements
Security requirements are incorrect because the question does not mention anything security-related.
32
Test development
Test development often uses virtual desktop platforms based on some sort of guest OS hypervisor. This environment protects a live environment from any potential coding issues.
33
A support desk technician must make a custom-length Ethernet patch cable for a user's desk setup. What tool do they need to create this cable? (Select all that apply.)
1. A crimper is a tool used to fix a male jack to a patch cord. The support technician would do this to both ends of the custom cable.
2. A cable stripper is a tool that would score the outer jacket just enough to remove it.
3. Snips are needed to cut the custom length cable to size and trim the ripcord and the start filler inside the cable. Sometimes snips are integrated on cable stripper tools and can be singular in function.
34
Punchdown tool
A punchdown tool fixes each conductor into an insulation displacement connector (IDC). This would not be used in this scenario, as there is no punching down of wires into a block.
35
Which internal component does a mobile device use to acquire single or multi-touch input?
A touch screen is also referred to as a digitizer because of the way it converts analog touch input to digital software instructions. A digitizer sits above a display panel.
36
Inverter
An inverter component is used to convert from the DC power supplied by the motherboard to the AC power for certain mobile flat panel displays.
37
Display
The display panel is only a single layer within the screen assembly for a mobile device. Several other display components make up the whole screen.
38
Trackpad
A trackpad (also referred to as a touchpad) acts as a mouse and is a larger-format device attached as a peripheral rather than built into a laptop.
39
A user complains the cursor on their laptop jumps around on its own. This is especially bad while they are typing. What could solve this problem? (Select all that apply.)
1. On a laptop, if the touchpad sensitivity is too high, typing can cause vibrations that move the cursor. If the touchpad is not needed, it can be disabled. There is generally a function key that will disable the touchpad.
2. The touchpad sensitivity can be turned down by installing up-to-date drivers and configuring input options.
40
Replace the backlight.
The symptoms of a faulty backlight are a display that is very dim and cannot be adjusted with software settings.
41
Replace the battery.
A faulty battery can cause overheating or the inability to hold a charge. It does not cause problems with the touchpad unless a swollen battery is warping the touchpad.
42
A user finished setting up their new laptop on the latest Windows operating system and is currently setting up print capabilities. They go to pick up the paper from the printer but everything comes out garbled. What should they troubleshoot first?
Garbled print typically occurs because of a fault in rendering the print job somewhere in the path between the application, printer (driver), page description language, and print device.
43
Clean the rollers
Vertical or horizontal lines marks that appear in the same place are often due to dirty feed rollers or a damaged or dirty photosensitive drum.
44
Toner fuser
Toner not fused to paper has symptoms of output that smudges easily. This indicates that the fuser needs replacing.
45
Creased paper
Most paper jams arise because the media (paper or labels) are not suitable for the printer or because a sheet is creased, folded, or not loaded properly in the tray.
46
A manager needs to electronically sign many documents while using a laptop. Precision is not required and there is very little money in the budget to spend. What does the manager choose to use as a solution?
A touchpad is a navigation device that is built into laptops and acts as a mouse. Using a finger with the touchpad can cost-efficiently accomplish the manager's needs.
47
Touch pen
Most drawing pads and some touch screens can be used with a touch pen or stylus rather than fingers. A stylus allows for more precise control and can be used for handwriting and drawing.
48
Trackpad
A trackpad acts as a mouse and is a larger-format device attached as a peripheral rather than built into a laptop. It may also be used on desktops.
49
Drawing pad
A drawing pad refers to a large-format touch device attached as a peripheral. These are also called graphics tablets as they are used in digital art applications.
50
A laptop user at a company asks the IT department for computer equipment. In addition to an external monitor, the user would like to take advantage of an expansion card. What does IT purchase for the user?
A docking station is a sophisticated port replicator. When docked, a portable computer can function like a desktop machine or use additional features, such as a full-size expansion card.
51
Port replicator
A port replicator either attaches to a special connector on the back or underside of a laptop or is connected via USB. It provides a full complement of ports for devices such as keyboards, monitors, mice, and network connections.
52
Serial interface
Serial is one of the oldest and simplest computer interfaces. While not many mobile devices have hardware serial ports, the software serial port is often used.
53
Laptop ports
Laptops ship with standard wired ports for connectivity. The ports are usually arranged on the left and right edges.
54
A company offers a bring your own device (BYOD) program at work. Several users approach the company in an effort to receive reimbursement for changing personal phones to the company’s carrier. This will be done by swapping out a subscriber identity module (SIM) card in devices with which network type?
Global System for Mobile Communication (GSM) allows subscribers to use a removable subscriber identity module (SIM) card to use an unlocked handset with their chosen network provider.
55
LTE
Long-term evolution (LTE) provides an upgrade from CDMA. All 4G and 5G cellular data connections require a SIM card.
56
CDMA
Code division multiple access (CDMA) means that the handset is directly managed by the provider and there is no removable SIM card.
57
NFC
Near-field communications (NFC) allow a mobile device to use a close-range service such as contactless payments.
58
The software-defined networking (SDN) model consists of multiple layers for networking functions that can be accessed and managed via scripting and automation. Which of the following are layers within the SDN model? (Select all that apply.)
1. The application layer applies business logic to decide how to prioritize and secure traffic and where to switch the traffic.
2. The control layer is the principal innovation of SDN as it interfaces between the application and infrastructure layers and acts as a controller for the automation of networking functions via APIs.
3. The infrastructure layer contains the devices (physical or virtual) that handle the actual forwarding (switching and routing) of traffic.
59
Internet layer
The Internet Protocol (IP) layer is a function of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model that provides packet addressing and routing within a network of networks. Though this functions within the SDN, it is not a main software-defined networking layer.
60
A user receives a loaner Android mobile phone for use while traveling on business. To charge the device, which traditional cable type will the user need?
Modern Android-based smartphones and tablets use the USB-C connector for wired peripherals and charging. The Micro-B USB and Mini-B connector form factors are only found on old devices.
61
Lightning
Most iPhone and iPad Apple devices use the proprietary Lightning connector. Some of the latest iPad models, such as the iPad Pro, use USB-C.
62
Serial
Serial is one of the oldest and simplest computer interfaces. While not many mobile devices have hardware serial ports, the software serial port is often used for programming and connectivity.
63
HDMI
A high-definition media interface (HDMI) port is a multimedia port used for connecting computers and other devices to a display for audio/video purposes.
64
Which of the following causes the ink in an inkjet printer to break up into small pumps, which give an electrical charge when they leave the print head and can either stick to the paper or fall off?
Epson design, the nozzle contains a piezoelectric element, which changes shape when a voltage is applied. The steady stream is the ink sent through the print head, and the ink that falls off is recycled.
65
Thermal method
The thermal method is when the ink at each nozzle in the print head is heated, creating a bubble. When the bubble bursts, it sprays ink through the nozzle and draws more ink from the reservoir.
66
Imaging drum
The imaging drum is a round rotating cylinder conditioned by the primary charge roller (PCR) in a laser printer.
67
Transfer roller
Transfer roller applies a positive charge to the underside of the paper in a laser printer.
68
A support technician replaces a Wi-Fi card in a laptop. The following day, the laptop user states that the company’s Wi-Fi network signal is weaker than it was before. What does the technician find to be the likely problem?
When replacing a Wi-Fi card, it is important to remember to connect the antenna. The connection is usually a wire with a terminating end that snaps onto the card.
69
The Wi-Fi card is not seated properly.
A Wi-Fi card is seated into a laptop and is usually a peripheral component interconnect express (PCIe) type connector. Having the card seated incorrectly would render the Wi-Fi card unrecognizable and not function at all.
70
The incorrect software drivers are installed.
Devices within a computer require software drivers to function. Since the system identified the card properly, then the support technician installed the correct drivers.
71
The Wi-Fi is not compatible with the new card.
There are varying specifications for Wi-Fi. Since the Wi-Fi is receiving a signal, the Wi-Fi card is compatible with the company’s Wi-Fi system.
72
Remote wipe, locator apps, device encryption, remote backup, and antivirus software fall under which category of requirements?
Security requirements are correct because all the things listed in the question refer to profile security requirements established for any system.
73
Resource requirements
Resource requirements are important to consider and meet when setting up a virtualized system and network for virtualized systems to use. If the system is not designed with resource requirements in mind, it will be overwhelmed and dysfunctional.
74
Test development
Test development often uses virtual desktop platforms that are based on some guest OS hypervisor.
75
Legacy software/OS
Legacy software applications and operating systems may not perform well if a user’s system has been upgraded.
76
A technician is using a printer that has text-to-raster conversion. Which of the following is this?
(PostScript) is Adobe’s device-independent PDL and is often for professional desktop publishing and graphical design output.
77
PDL
A page description language (PDL) creates a raster file from the print commands sent by the software application. A raster file is a dot-by-dot description of where the printer should place ink.
78
PCL
A printer control language (PCL) is more closely tied to individual features of printer models and can introduce some variation in output depending on the print device.
79
Infrastructure mode
Infrastructure mode connects the printer to an access point to make it available to clients on the network via an IP address.
80
What can a cloud developer use to analyze viruses, worms, and Trojans without infecting their computer and network?
A sandbox is an isolated environment to analyze viruses, worms, and Trojans in a space that prevents the researcher's computer and network from becoming infected.
81
Test development
Test development often uses virtual desktop platforms based on some guest OS hypervisor.
82
Cross-platform virtualization
Cross-platform utilization tests software applications under different OSs and resource constraints and is important to ensure the application is compatible across several different environments.
83
Resource requirements
Resource requirements are important to consider and meet when setting up a virtualized system and network for virtualized systems to use. If the system is not designed with resource requirements in mind, it will be overwhelmed and dysfunctional.
84
What might be diagnosed by no LED status indicators on a drive?
No LED status indicator lights could indicate that the whole system might not be receiving power or that the individual disk could be faulty.
85
Bad sectors
A read/write error can indicate faulty sectors in a hard disk drive (HDD). Likewise, a power failure or a mechanical fault can damage a sector. If the technician runs a test utility, such as the chkdsk command, and chkdsk locates more bad sectors each time the technician runs the test, it is a sign that the disk is about to fail.
86
Keyboard issue
During power-on self-test (POST), three long beeps will indicate a keyboard issue.
87
Corrupted boot sector
The error message, "Boot device not found," would indicate a corrupted boot sector.
88
What is a possible source of data corruption?
Data corruption can occur when particular sectors or blocks fail, meaning that the system cannot open the files stored in these locations or they simply disappear.
89
Loss of internet access
Although frustrating, loss of internet access will not cause data to become corrupted.
90
Failing RTC battery
A failing real-time clock (RTC) battery will not corrupt the data. Instead, the main symptom will be incorrect data and time. The RTC battery is known as the complementary metal-oxide-semiconductor (CMOS) battery in older systems.
91
SMART
Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology (SMART) is a system utility that can help diagnose drive problems, not cause data corruption.
92
A technician has tested a computer with extended read/write times and found it to have IOPS reduced from vendor baselines. What should the technician do next?
A computer experiencing extended read/write times and a technician diagnosing it with reduced input/output operations per second (IOPS), has a failing drive. However, the drive has not yet failed, so the first thing to do is perform data backups.
93
Replace the drive.
Replacing the drive immediately will result in full data loss. However, the drive has not failed yet, so the technician should back up the data before replacing the drive.
94
Change the PSU.
The technician should replace the power supply unit (PSU) when it is overheating or not delivering consistent power.
95
Change the power cord.
The technician should replace a frayed power cord when the cord is no longer working.
96
A user wants to mitigate the risk of data loss by using a disk that underpins the mass storage system and provides fault tolerance. What can the user use?
A redundant array of independent disks (RAID) is an array that appears as a single storage resource or volume and can be partitioned and formatted like any other drive. RAID has a basic level numbered from 0 to 6. There are also nested RAID solutions, like RAID 10.
97
NVMe
NVMe (NVM express) can be packaged for installation to a PCIe slot as an expansion card or an M.2 slot.
98
SSD
A solid-state drive (SSD) uses flash memory technology to implement persistent mass storage. Flash memory performs much better than the mechanical components used in hard drives.
99
mSATA
A mini-serial ATA (mSATA) allows a technician to plug an SSD packaged as an adapter card into the motherboard's combined data and power port.
100
A technician suspects a mobile device to have liquid damage. What should the technician do first?
The technician should power off the device to avoid further damage and remove any excess liquid. Next, the technician must disassemble the device to dry the internal components when exposed to liquid.
101
Replace the battery.
The technician will need to replace the battery when a device has liquid damage; however, this is not the first step.
102
Replace the screen.
Sometimes liquid damage can result in seeing liquid under the screen. This does not necessarily mean that the screen needs replacing; sometimes, it just needs to dry out.
103
Request a warranty replacement.
Depending on the warranty policy, a warranty replacement for water damage to a mobile device may be appropriate. However, the first step will be to power down the device before moving forward.
104
A technician did not install the full complement of modules, which would allow the system to revert to as many channels as are populated. What types of channels would allow this to happen? (Select all that apply.)
1. Technicians can use triple-channel memory controllers in some CPUs and supporting chipsets.
2. Quad-channel memory controllers are similar to triple-channel as a technician can use them in certain CPUs and supporting chipsets.
105
Dual-channel
Dual-channel memory controllers effectively have two 64-bit pathways through the bus to the CPU, meaning that they can send 128 bits of data per transfer rather than 64 bits. This feature requires support from the CPU, memory controller, and motherboard but not RAM devices.
106
Single-channel
Single-channel memory means that there is one 64-bit data bus between the CPU, memory controller, and RAM devices.
107
An employee uses a device that gives them authentication to release the print job. What is this device?
Badging means the print device has a smart card reader. An employee must present an ID badge to the reader to start the print job.
108
Print server
A print server is a hardware and firmware that allows client computers to connect directly over the network without going via a server computer.
109
Audit log
An audit log can identify printed documents that have gone missing or identify the unauthorized release of information.
110
User authentication
A company can configure user authentication on a print share. User authentication means that the printer sharing server or print device will only accept print jobs from authorized user accounts.
111
Regarding a personal computer, what houses internal components or provides input/output functions, or external storage? (Select all that apply.)
1. Peripheral devices typically perform the input function (keyboard, mouse, microphone, and camera), output (monitor and speakers), or external storage.
2. System case houses the internal components, including the motherboards, central processing unit (CPU), system memory modules, adapter cards, fixed disks, and power supply unit.
112
USB
Universal Serial Bus (USB) is the standard meaning of connecting most peripheral device types to a computer. A host controller manages USB.
113
HDMI
A high-definition multimedia interface (HDMI) is the most widely used video interface. HDMI supports both video and audio. HDMI rates as either standard or high speed.
114
This can be used individually or in conjunction with other configurations to effectively verify email services and block the transmission of spoofed and unwanted messages. (Select all that apply.)
1. The Sender Policy Framework (SPF) record—there must be only one per domain—identifies the hosts authorized to send email from that domain.
2. DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) uses cryptography to validate the source server for a given email message. This can replace or supplement SPF.
3. The Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC) framework ensures that the developer effectively utilizes SPF and DKIM. A DMARC policy publishes as a domain name system (DNS) TXT record.
115
Virtual private network
A virtual private network (VPN) enables hosts to connect to the LAN without being physically installed at the site.
116
Which application protocol underpins file and printer sharing on Windows networks and usually runs directly over the TCP/445 port?
Server Message Block (SMB) is the application protocol underpinning file and printer sharing on Windows networks. SMB usually runs directly over TCP port 445.
117
Network Basic Input/Output System
Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS) allows computers to address one another by name and establish sessions for other protocols, such as SMB. This uses UDP port 137 for name services and TCP port 139 for session services.
118
File Transfer Protocol
The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) allows clients to upload and download files from a network server. It uploads files to websites and utilizes TCP ports 20 and 21.
119
HyperText Transfer Protocol
HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is usually used to serve HTML web pages or applications hosted on a web server and typically operates over TCP port 80.
120
A large store chain is eager to reduce the cost of maintaining their servers but is unsure what the best method would be for their use case. The major requirements for the chosen solution are that the store chain needs to own its cloud infrastructure (without sharing with another organization) to maintain maximum privacy and security of the data. Which cloud computing option best meets the store chain's major requirements?
The private cloud meets the store chain's two major requirements because it gives organizations greater control over the privacy and security of their data stored in the cloud.
121
Public cloud
The public cloud is incorrect because there are risks regarding performance and security. The public cloud is a shared resource with other organizations, and a cloud service provider (CSP) runs it.
122
Hybrid cloud
A hybrid cloud is incorrect because some cloud functions can be done via a public cloud, creating potential vulnerabilities to privacy and security.
123
Community cloud
Community cloud is incorrect because it requires the store chain to share a hosted private or a fully private cloud with other organizations.
124
What is a sign that the RTC battery is failing?
The real time clock (RTC) is part of the chipset that keeps track of the calendar date and time and runs on battery power. If the system date or time is wrong, it can indicate that the battery is failing.
125
Computer crash
Intermittent computer crashes can be difficult to diagnose, but a failing RTC battery is not a cause of computer crashes.
126
Grinding noise
Grinding noises can indicate mechanical failure on a hard drive disk (HDD), but this does not relate to the RTC battery.
127
Application crash
Application crashes can be challenging to diagnose, but the RTC battery is not a cause of application crashes.
128
A display manufacturing company is evolving their current model line to offer a new model of display that does not require backlight. What technology does not require a backlight as each individual pixel is self-illuminating?
In an organic LED (OLED) display, or technically an advanced matrix OLED (AMOLED), each pixel is generated by a separate LED. This means that the panel does not require a separate backlight.
129
Light-emitting diodes
An LCD must be illuminated to produce a clear image. In a TFT, the illumination is provided by an array of light-emitting diodes (LEDs).
130
Liquid crystal display
Most mobile devices use a flat-panel screen technology based on a type of liquid crystal display (LCD). A liquid crystal is a compound whose properties change with the application of voltage.
131
Thin film transistor
In the types of flat panels used for computer and mobile device displays, the liquid crystal elements and transistors are placed on a thin film transistor (TFT).
132
A user is trying to print visual graphics for an upcoming meeting, but the paper is coming out faded. What should they check first?
For faded or faint prints, if a simple cause such as the user choosing an option for low density (draft output) can be discounted, then this is most likely to indicate that the toner cartridge needs replacing.
133
Creased paper
If paper is not feeding into the printer check that the paper is not creased, damp, or dirty.
134
Paper weight
If the printer is feeding multiple sheets also check the paper size and weight.
135
Orientation
For incorrect page orientation, the paper size and orientation must be set correctly for the print job or the finishing/binding will be aligned to the wrong edge.
136
A technician researches flat-screen displays to find the perfect model for a conference room. The screen should feature a high viewing angle as the conference room is wide. Which technology does the technician look for when purchasing a flat-screen display?
In-plane switching (IPS) uses crystals that rotate rather than twist. The main benefit is to deliver better color reproduction at a wider range of viewing angles. Most IPS panels support 178/178 degree horizontal and vertical viewing angles.
137
VA
Vertical alignment (VA) uses crystals that tilt rather than twist or rotate. This technology supports a wide color gamut and the best contrast-ratio performance.
138
LED
An array of light-emitting diodes (LEDs) can provide illumination in a flat panel. Most smartphone and tablet screens use edge lighting where the LEDs are at the top or bottom of the screen.
139
LED
A separate LED generates each pixel in an organic LED (OLED) display, or technically, an advanced matrix OLED (AMOLED) display.
140
A user reports that their reporting resource is not working. They mentioned an error message that they did not write down but are certain that a "HTTP request failed" was a part of the error. What specialized support team will the user contact to resolve this issue?
A web server provides client access using HTTP or its secure version (HTTPS). Given the limited information, this would be the first team to reach out to.
141
Mail server team
Mail servers primarily use Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), which specifies how the user delivers an email from one mail domain to another domain.
142
Print server team
Print servers rely heavily on Server Message Block (SMB) protocol for file and printer sharing on a Windows network.
143
File server team
File servers also rely heavily on Server Message Block (SMB) protocol for file and printer sharing on a Windows network.
144
A logistics company wants to streamline its workflow and track shipments as they move in and around its facilities without barcode scanners. What type of personal area networking solution would best suit this requirement?
Radio-frequency ID (RFID) encodes information into passive tags, which can be energized and read by radio waves from a reader device.
145
NFC
Near-field communication (NFC) is a peer-to-peer version of RFID. NFC works typically at up to two inches, which would not be a large enough range for this scenario.
146
Bluetooth
Bluetooth is used to connect peripheral devices to PCs and mobiles and to share data between two systems. No information needs to be transferred to the physical shipments, so this technology would not be the best solution.
147
Wi-Fi 5
Wi-Fi 5 is a connection that requires physical hardware on both sides of communication, so this would carry an extremely high cost for implementation in this scenario.
148
A company has a structured cable system installed by a technician. The technician uses a permanent cable that terminates to wall ports and patch panels. What is this mechanism called?
A punchdown block is a mechanism used to terminate wires. A technician can use RJ45 to terminate twisted pair cabling for Ethernet.
149
RJ45
RJ45 connectors are also known as “8P8C." Each conductor is a four-pair Ethernet cable that is color-coded.
150
RJ11
RJ11 typically terminates a two-pair cable used in the telephone systems and with DSL modems.
151
T568A
T568A is a twisted pair that a technician can use in the TIA/EIA-568. In T568A, the technician wires pin 1 to green/white, wires pin 2 to green, wires pine 3 to orange/white, and wires pin 6 to orange.
152
What features of the cloud allow multiple users to simultaneously access content and work collaboratively while tracking edits by each user?
File synchronization is an advantage of cloud storage that replicates files between data centers and different devices such as PCs and smartphones. Cloud storage also allows multiple users to access content to work collaboratively simultaneously.
153
Shared resources
To meet availability, scalability, and elasticity requirements, cloud providers must be able to provision and de-provision resources automatically through the pooling of shared resources and virtualization.
154
Community cloud
A community cloud is a cloud environment deployed for shared use by cooperating tenants. These tenants usually have similar security and operating concerns.
155
High availability
High availability means that the service experiences very little downtime. Downtime can occur because of scheduled maintenance and unexpected outages.
156
The TIA/EIA-568-C Commercial Building Telecommunications Cabling Standards have specific recommendations for health care facilities with Power over Ethernet (PoE) 802.3bt installations, and for running distribution system cable to wireless access points. Which Cat does this refer to?
Cat 6A is recommended for health care facilities since it supports 10 Gbps over 100m, but the cable is bulkier and heavier than Cat 5e and Cat 6. The installation requirements are more stringent.
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Cat 5
Cat 5 cable supports the older 100 Mbps fast Ethernet standard. It is no longer commercially available, so a technician will need to rewire the network cable with Cat 5 to support Gigabit Ethernet.
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Cat 5e
Cat 5e cable supports Gigabit Ethernet links for client computers but can now opt to install Cat 6 cable.
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Cat 6
Cat 6 cable is more reliable than Cat 5e and supports 10 Gbps but over reduced range.
160
A technician decides to update a server’s redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array with solid-state hard drives. The plan is to clone the current array and restore it to the newly built array. Which step does the technician use in a migration approach?
Migration means using backup software to perform (disk imaging) on the old drive and storing it on a USB or directly to the new drive(s).
161
Data backup
A replacement drive approach only has the data backed up from the old drive. The technician then fits the new drive to the laptop and reinstalls all software.
162
Data restore
When using a replacement approach, the technician restores user data from a backup. This approach means that the technician removes the old drives and replaces them with the new drives.
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OS installation
When a replacement approach occurs, the new drives need the operating system (OS) installed and any other required applications.
164
A technician reimaged an infected computer. What will the technician do to avoid this problem from happening again?
To fully solve a problem, implement preventative measures. For example, after clearing a virus from a computer, make sure that antivirus software is running and updating before returning the computer to the user.
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Disable user's internet access.
Disabling the user’s internet access would guarantee protection from viruses but prevent the user from working. This solution does not address or consider business interests.
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Document the changes.
Documenting the changes is an important step but does not stop the virus infection from happening again.
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Escalate to a supervisor.
Escalating to a supervisor is effective when the technician cannot identify or solve the problem. In this case, the technician has already solved the problem.
168
An IT administrator noticed that the company needs a more secure way to create and store data. What should the IT administrator implement?
A trusted platform module (TPM) is a specification for hardware-based storage of digital certificates, cryptographic keys, and hashed passwords.
169
HSM
A hardware security module (HSM) is a secure USB key or thumb drive used to store cryptographic material.
170
Secure boot
Secure boot is a unified extensible firmware interface (UEFI) feature designed to prevent a computer from being hijacked by malware. Under secure boot, the computer firmware configuration has cryptographic keys that can identify trusted code.
171
Boot options
Boot options define how the system firmware searches devices for a boot manager. It is one of the most important parameters in a system setup.
172
A network technician installs wireless access points (APs) in an office and would like to use power over Ethernet (PoE) to power the APs. The current network infrastructure is not capable of doing this. What would the network technician need to install to augment the power requirements for PoE APs?
If a switch does not support PoE, a network technician can use a (power injector). One port on the injector connects to the switch port. The other port connects to the device.
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Firewall
Firewalls have rules that list source and destination network addresses, protocol types, and whether to allow or block traffic matching the rule. This would not provide power to connected devices.
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Managed switch
Managed switches have internal software for more advanced functionality. Though managed switches can provide power, this scenario points out that it is not available.
175
Patch panel
In most types of office cabling, the computer connects to a wall port and via cabling running through the walls to a patch panel. Patch panels do not provide inline power to connected devices.
176
Users reported an incident where they could not connect to network shares on a specific file server but could utilize all other resources and the internet. After logging into the server locally to check, it seems to be up and connected to the network. There is no response after going to a user's station and using the ping command to contact the server by the documented IP address. What should be the issue to investigate next?
If the server locally appears online and connected, it has an address, but likely one provisioned from DHCP if workstations cannot ping the server by the documented IP address.(Check the server's IP address. It may have a DHCP-provisioned address instead of a static address.)
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Check to see if the user workstation has been given an APIPA address.
The user workstation would not likely reach all other resources if it had an APIPA address.
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Check the user's default gateway to ensure it can communicate to remote networks.
If the user station can connect to other resources, especially the internet, there is likely no issue with the gateway.
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Ensure the server has a Class A IPv4 address.
It may not be a Class A address, depending on the type of network structure. A technician can also use class B and C addresses for private addressing.
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The IP address range 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 is not routable on the Internet. Which class of private addresses is this considered?
172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 is a Class B private address range with a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 and is for networks with 256 to 65,534 hosts.
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Class A
10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 is a Class A private address range with a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0 and networks with more than 65,536 hosts.
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Class C
192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 is considered a Class C private address range with a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 and is for smaller networks with fewer than 254 hosts.
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Class D
The address classes (A, B, and C) derive from the earliest form of Internet Protocol (IP). Class D networks are for multicasting.
184
A technician needs to add a more secure and reliable additional memory space that assigns memory locations to process in 4 kilobytes chunks called pages. What can the technician use?
Virtual RAM, also known as virtual memory, is not just used to supplement RAM with swap space.
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Rootkit
A rootkit is a malware that can use an exploit to escalate privileges.
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Single-channel
Single-channel memory means that there is one 64-bit data bus between the CPU, memory controller, and RAM devices.
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Dual-channel
Dual-channel memory controllers effectively have two 64-bit pathways through the bus to the CPU, meaning that they can send 128 bits of data per transfer rather than 64 bits. This feature requires support from the CPU, memory controller, and motherboard but not RAM devices.
188
A user had lost several mobile devices in the past. Each device had a basic password which put company data at risk. The user has a new phone and uses which method of increased security to log in?
Two-factor or multifactor authentication means that the user must submit at least two different kinds of credentials. This would be used to authenticate access to a system with a higher level of security than a single method.
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Corporate application
Corporate applications refer to applications running on the device. This does not pertain to gaining access to the device.
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Device pairing
To connect a peripheral device via Bluetooth, the Bluetooth radio on each device must be put into discoverable mode, which is also known as pairing mode. This would not increase security.
191
Location services
Using location services is not related to being connected to a cellular network. Location services use Wi-Fi and GPS to determine a device's location.
192
Microsoft Word crashes every time it opens, but otherwise, the computer runs fine. What is a reasonable proposed solution?
Application crashes are difficult to diagnose, but if only a single program continues to crash, it is likely a corrupted program problem. The simplest fix would be to uninstall and then reinstall the program.
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Replace the PSU.
A faulty power supply unit (PSU) would result in the entire computer having problems, not just a single program.
194
Dust the fan.
Dust buildup can cause overheating in a fan system, but overheating would affect the whole computer, not just one program.
195
Replace the RAM.
Replacing the random access memory (RAM) would solve a memory problem, but since only one program has issues, it is likely a corrupted program.
196
This protocol facilitates requests for an IP address and other network settings and uses ports 67 & 68.
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) utilizes two ports. DHCP clients use UDP port 68 to request an IP address configuration from a server. The server responds using UDP port 67 to provide clients with an IP address configuration.
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Domain Name System
Domain Name System (DNS) facilitates identification of hosts by name alongside IP addressing and utilized over UDP traditionally or TCP port 53 in specific circumstances.
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Network Basic Input/Output System
Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS) supports legacy Windows versions' networking features that include name service for name registration and resolution, similar to DNS today. It utilizes UDP and TCP ports 137-139.
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Lightweight Directory Access Protocol
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) queries information about network users and resources. Third-party applications can use this to query Active Directory. LDAP uses TCP port 389.
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After running a Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology (SMART) diagnosis on a computer, with extended read/write times, the input/output per second (IOPS) matches the vendor's baseline. What could be the problem?
The Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology (SMART) diagnosis measures the input/output per second (IOPS) on the drive. If this matches the vendor baselines, the technician must address other problems. One possible problem is a hard drive nearly at capacity.
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Disk failure
The technician will rule out disk failure since the IOPS matches the vendor baseline. Deviation from this points toward a failing drive.
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No power
The drive is currently having a problem with extended read/write, which indicates that it is getting power.
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Hard drive unavailable
The error message, “Hard drive unavailable,” can occur due to physical or software problems, but the drive is writing slowly, indicating that it is available.
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How can a technician eliminate overheating as the cause of a sluggish computer?
If the temperature is too high, the central processing unit (CPU) and other components are likely to throttle performance to avoid overheating. The technician can verify this by checking temperature sensors and fan speeds.
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By touching the computer
Even if the computer is not hot to the touch, it can still slow the computer down. Just touching the case to check the temperature of the CPU would not rule out temperature problems.
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By running a speed test
A slow computer can sometimes mean a network connection problem, which the technician can verify by running a speed test. This test would be appropriate after checking for temperature problems.
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By checking for misconfigurations
Misconfigurations can cause sluggish performance, but this would not help rule out overheating.
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Cloud service providers (CSPs) help organizations save time and money by hosting virtual resources on their hardware. What do CSPs use to ensure efficiency while providing services to customers?
Shared resources are correct. To meet availability, scalability, and elasticity requirements, cloud providers must be able to provision and de-provision resources automatically through the pooling of shared resources and virtualization.
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Community cloud
Community cloud is incorrect. CSPs provide community clouds to customers using shared resources. A community cloud is a way for organizations to share a private cloud and save money.
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Public cloud
The public cloud is incorrect. CSPs provide public clouds to customers using shared resources. CSP offers public cloud on a subscription or pay-as-you-go basis but comes with security and performance risks.
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Hybrid cloud
Hybrid cloud is incorrect. CSPs provide hybrid clouds to customers using shared resources. Customers using hybrid clouds can use public cloud resources when their private infrastructure is insufficient.
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A technician builds a computer using the most common form factor measuring 12 x 9.6 inches and has up to seven expansion slots. What form factor is the technician using?
An advanced technology extended (ATX) specifies the standard form factor for most desktop PC motherboards.
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ITX
Information technology extended (ITX) has two designs: the mini-ITX and the mobile-ITX. The mini-ITX is 6.7 inches square with one expansion slot. Technicians can mount most mini-ITX boards in ATX cases.
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SAN
A storage area network (SAN) is more flexible and reliable than using local disks on each server machine. It provides access to a configurable group of storage devices that application servers can use.
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BTX
A balanced technology extended (BTX) improves ATX since it has better airflow.
216
A user has a newly issued smartphone that has corporate communication software installed. What can the user expect to sync while using Microsoft Exchange?
Most email systems store messages on the server, and the client device is used to manage them. A client device that uses technology such as ActiveSync can store a local copy.
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Contacts
A contact is a record with fields for name, address, email address(es), phone numbers, notes, and more. Contacts are synced with Exchange ActiveSync.
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Calendar
A calendar item is a record with fields for appointment or task information, such as subject, date, location, and participants. Calendars are synced with Exchange ActiveSync.
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Texts
Texts are messages that are sent via cellular service. While there are sync methods available, they are not synced with Exchange.
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A user complains that a laptop is slow. A technician concludes that the best solution is to remove the current mechanical disk drive with a faster solid-state drive. The technician opts to back up the user data and install a fresh operating system on a new drive. Which approach defines the technician’s steps?
A replacement drive approach only has the data backed up from the old drive. The technician then fits the new drive to the laptop and reinstalls all software. Then the technician can restore user data from the backup.
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Upgrade
An upgrade is a general term, and with software, an upgrade occurs between software versions. With hardware, newer hardware replaces older hardware. While a hardware upgrade occurs in the scenario, it does not define the technician’s steps.
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Migration
Migration means using backup software to create an image of the old drive and storing it on a USB or other type of media.
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Clone
Cloning a disk is similar to migration in that it makes a copy of an entire drive to another storage device.
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A user needs to change the direction of the viewing of a page. What tab would the user need to click on to change the page view from portrait to landscape?
Orientation is one of the default jobs options set in the preferences dialog.
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Quality
The quality tab allows users to choose the type of paper stock (size and type) and whether to use an economy or draft mode to preserve ink/toner.
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Finishing
The finishing tab allows users to select the output options such as whether to print on both sides of the paper (duplex), print multiple images per sheet, and print in portrait or landscape orientation.
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PDL
Page description language (PDL) creates a raster file from the print commands sent by the software application.
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A technician is working on a blank computer monitor problem. The monitor power cord is plugged in and receiving power. What is the next step to check?
A systematic approach to troubleshooting helps save time and effort. After verifying that the monitor is getting power, checking that the monitor connects to the computer is the next logical step.
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Check the PSU.
The power supply unit (PSU) is a component on the computer that can cause intermittent issues if it is failing. There is no indication that the PSU is the problem here.
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Check monitor input settings.
Incorrect monitor input settings can cause a blank screen but the technician should follow the step verifying that the monitor connects to the computer first.
230
Check for physical damage.
Physical damage to a computer can cause problems, but there is no indication that this could be the problem and is not a logical next step.
231
A printer allows connection to a network through the infrastructure mode. Which of the following connections is the printer most likely using when referring to an infrastructure mode connection?
Wireless has two interfaces, Bluetooth and Wi-Fi. Bluetooth allows access by using the print device control panel to make it discoverable Then, the Bluetooth page adds the device.
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USB
USB connects the device plug to the printer’s USB port and the host plug to a free port on the computer.
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Ethernet
An engineer can configure Ethernet to obtain an Internet Protocol (IP) configuration from a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server or they can manually configure this.
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Duplex Unit
Engineers use duplex units for double-sided printing and a finisher unit for folding, stapling, and hole punching.
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A user decides to take a coffee break so the cleaning crew can do their job. After returning, the computer has power but no internet. What is a possible cause?
When gathering the initial information, asking about recent changes can narrow down the problem. For example, the internet was working, but after the cleaners left, it was not working, which narrowed the problem down significantly. Vacuums or brooms can easily unplug Ethernet cords.
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The latest OS update corrupted their Ethernet adapter.
Although operating system updates can cause problems, there was no indication that an operating system update occurred during a coffee break.
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The whole building has lost internet.
If the whole building had lost internet services, there would be more complaints from users. An issue with the internet is unlikely to be the problem.
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Unclear, escalate to a supervisor.
Although escalating to a supervisor is a valid resolution method, the technician must first perform basic troubleshooting steps.
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What universal serial bus (USB) does a technician use that allows a device to send and receive simultaneously?
USB 3.0 is a new type of connector form factor and has upgraded transfer rates which are full-duplex.
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USB 2.0
USB 2.0 is a high-speed standard that specifies a data rate of 480 Mbps shared between all devices attached to the same host controller. The USB 2.0 is half-duplex, which means that each device can send or receive, but not simultaneously.
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USB Type B
USB 2 Type B connects to large devices. The connector and port are square, with a beveled top.
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USB Type A
USB 2 Type A connects to the host and some types of peripheral devices. The connector and port are flat rectangle-shaped. A technician should insert the connector with the USB symbol facing up.
243
A computer has intermittent problems and is making grinding and clicking noises. What is the likely problem?
A hard disk drive (HDD) has moving platters and arms that can start to fail due to mechanical problems. The mechanical problems can result in grinding or clicking noises.
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Overheating
System diagnostics would diagnose an overheating computer, or more commonly by the computer becoming hot to the touch.
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No power
The power must be on for the computer to make grinding and clicking noises. If there is no power, the disk cannot move.
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Corrupted boot sector
A corrupted boot sector would keep the computer from booting at all. After using power-on self-test (POST), an error message stating, “Boot device not found,” would appear.
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A technician receives a ticket on a proprietary internal system. What would be the best place to start researching possible solutions?
Colleagues, or an internal ticketing system, will give the most relevant information to specific systems and sets of problems that users have. Well-documented internal tickets will generally contain solutions to the most common problems.
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Search through textbooks.
A textbook is generally outdated for specific technology solutions and would not contain information about a proprietary system.
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Ask a supervisor.
A supervisor is a useful resource but should not be the first person to ask. The technician should complete documentation of all attempts at solutions and searches before escalating tickets.
250
Search the internet.
Searching the web is a great research step, but the technician should perform it after first checking if any internal documentation is available.
251
A government organization wants to develop their own application to process information, but they do not want to be responsible for maintaining the hardware or the database platform that the application runs on. Additionally, the organization does not want to be burdened with maintaining the integrity and availability of the database platform because they will be very busy with other responsibilities. Which service would be best for the government organization to pursue?
Platform as a service (PaaS) is correct. PaaS would provide IT hardware and the database platform on top of the hardware, but the customer must develop their app to run on top of the platform. The service provider will maintain the integrity and the availability of the platform for the customer.
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Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)
Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is incorrect because it will only provide IT hardware management for the customer.
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Community cloud
Software as a service (SaaS) is incorrect because the organization will be developing its application.
254
Shared resources
Shared resources are not a service that can be purchased. Service providers can provide services using shared resources to lower the cost to the customer.
255
A user's phone is not charging. After testing with several known good charging cables, the technician realizes that holding the connection forcefully will start charging the phone. What is the likely problem?
A physically damaged charging port can result in a connector being too loose. The technician was able to force the phone to start charging by pushing the cable into the port and holding it. The damaged port should be replaced by the manufacturer.
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Digitizer issue
A digitizer issue on a mobile phone presents itself by the touch screen not working or not working properly.
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Liquid damage
Liquid damage can result in visible signs of water under the screen, graphics artifacts, or no image at all.
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Faulty charging circuit
A faulty charging circuit can result in a swollen battery. The swollen battery is identified by a bulging of the phone so it no longer lays flat.
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A technician uses a storage device containing non-volatile flash memory to replace the hard drive since the speed is much greater. What is this called?
A solid-state drive (SSD) uses flash memory technology to implement persistent mass storage. Flash memory performs much better than the mechanical components used in hard drives. Devices are produced in a standard width of 2.5 inches.
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mSATA
A mini-serial ATA (mSATA) allows a technician to plug an SSD packaged as an adapter card into the motherboard's combined data and power port.
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NVMe
NVMe (NVM express) can be packaged for installation to a PCIe slot as an expansion card or an M.2 slot.
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M.2
The M.2 adapter card form factor is considerably smaller than a PCIe adapter and is oriented horizontally rather than vertically, so the interface is often used on laptops and PC motherboards.
263
A company is building a new office space and data center. They would like network segmentation to ensure that only certain servers and workstations can access sensitive data. What type of devices will be the foundation of that type of network?
Managed switches have internal software that configures security settings and chooses options for the switch's more advanced functionality, such as VLANs, to enable the segment of network devices and traffic.
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Unmanaged switches
Unmanaged switches perform their functions without requiring configuration. It would power on, connect to some hosts, and establish Ethernet connectivity between the network interfaces without intervention.
265
Ethernet hubs
Ethernet hubs are legacy network hardware devices that provide multiple connections to computers in a small area and are inefficient at network management.
266
Firewalls
Firewalls have rules that list source and destination network addresses, protocol types, and whether to allow or block traffic matching the rule. Although this scenario's potential to eventually implement this exists, it would not be the foundation for the desired segmentation.
267
A tier one helpdesk technician receives a corporate cellphone with a broken screen. What is the first step?
Mobile devices are easy to drop, and screens can crack or shatter. This is likely to require warranty or professional services to repair it.
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Replace the screen.
If there are no visible cracks, the screen or digitizer may have been damaged by liquid. But the screen is visibly cracked in this question.
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Open the phone to check for liquid damage.
Mobile devices are likely to require warranty or professional services to replace parts, such as a broken screen. Replacing parts outside the warranty can void the contract.
270
Replace the charging cable.
If a cellphone is having trouble charging, then replacing the charging cable can help isolate the problem. There is no indication of a charging problem in the scenario.
271
What characteristics of Wi-Fi 6 (802.11ax) allow for increased bandwidth and support for modern networks? (Select all that apply.)
1. Wi-Fi 6 works in both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands. There is emerging development for operation over the 6 GHz band as well (Wi-Fi 6e).
2. Wi-Fi 6 also adds support for uplink multi-user, multiple input, multiple output (MU-MIMO) along with downlink MU-MIMO. This allows MU-MIMO-capable clients to send data to the access point simultaneously.
3. Orthogonal frequency division multiple access (OFDMA) can work alongside MU-MIMO to improve client density—sustaining high data rates when more stations connect to the same access point.
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Typically supports up to four simultaneous clients
Wi-Fi 5 supports up to four simultaneous clients over 5 GHz only, and Wi-Fi 6 can support up to eight clients, giving it better performance in congested areas.
273
A customer builds a new facility that they will mainly use to provide services for physically disabled residents. They would like to accommodate as much as possible so that residents can be more independent. What type of technology, if appropriately secured, would be a great solution to accomplish this goal?
The Internet of Things (IoT) endpoints implement the function of a smart lightbulb, refrigerator, thermostat/heating control, or doorbell/video entry phone that a user can operate and monitor remotely. Configured with the appropriate hub/control solution, this would be a proper solution.
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SCADA
A supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) system typically runs as software gathering data from and managing plant devices and equipment with embedded PLCs, referred to as field devices.
275
Exchange servers
Exchange servers are mail servers that facilitate sending and receiving mail messages and also manage user mailboxes.
276
Syslog server
Syslog is an example of a protocol and supporting software that facilitates log collection. It has become a de-facto standard for logging events from distributed systems.
277
Which mechanism has performance ratings of 5,400 rpm, 7,200 rpm, 10,000 rpm, and 15,000 rpm?
A hard disk drive (HDD) stores data on metal or glass platters coated with a magnetic substance. The top and bottom of each platter are accessed by its own read/write head, moved by an actuator mechanism.
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RAID
A redundant array of independent disks (RAID) is an array that appears as a single storage resource or volume and can be partitioned and formatted like any other drive.
279
mSATA
A mini-serial ATA (mSATA) allows a technician to plug an SSD packaged as an adapter card into the motherboard's combined data and power port.
280
SSD
A solid-state drive (SSD) uses flash memory technology to implement persistent mass storage. Flash memory performs much better than the mechanical components used in hard drives.
281
An online retailer uses the cloud to host its infrastructure because the cloud provider guarantees 99.999% service uptime. What benefit of using the cloud has the online retailer been guaranteed?
High availability means that the service experiences very little downtime. Downtime can occur because of scheduled maintenance and unexpected outages.
282
Rapid elasticity
Rapid elasticity refers to the system's ability to handle changes to demand in real-time without loss of service or performance. Rapid elasticity allows a system to reduce costs when demand is low.
283
Metered utilization
Metered utilization is the per-use billing for resources consumed by the cloud, making cloud offerings cheaper or more expensive for an organization, depending on their resource consumption.
284
Shared resources
Shared resources are incorrect. To meet availability, scalability, and elasticity requirements, cloud providers must be able to provision and de-provision resources automatically through the pooling of shared resources and virtualization.
285
A basic firewall configuration has rules, referred to as network access control lists (ACLs). What are the basic properties needed for a firewall ACL to implement the desired security features configured? (Select all that apply.)
1. The ACL requires source and destination network or device for the firewall to know what networks and devices are allowed to communicate with each other.
2. A protocol needs to be defined in an ACL to narrow the scope of network traffic managed by the ACL.
3. The network technician can set the ACL to either allow or block specific protocols and traffic between various sources and destination networks and devices.
286
MAC address
Firewalls typically manage network traffic at a different layer in the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model, and MAC addresses are usually not found in traditional firewall ACLs.
287
One of two monitors remains a blank screen after a user logs onto the system. The technician suspected an unplugged monitor, but it was connected. What is the next step in troubleshooting?
After the first theory does not work, establish a new probable cause of the problem. Start with basic information, including verifying that the monitor is receiving power.
288
Escalate the problem.
Escalating the problem to a supervisor is a valid route, but not in this case. The technician has not exhausted all reasonable troubleshooting options.
289
Identify the problem.
The problem is that the second monitor has a blank screen, which the technician has already identified. Identifying the problem is the first troubleshooting step.
290
Document the changes.
Documenting the changes is the last step in the troubleshooting methodology, including a verified working solution.
291
What channel system requires support from the CPU, memory controller, and motherboard but not from the RAM devices?
Dual-channel memory controllers effectively have two 64-bit pathways through the bus to the CPU, meaning that they can send 128 bits of data per transfer rather than 64 bi
292
Single-channel
Single-channel memory means that there is one 64-bit data bus between the CPU, memory controller, and RAM devices.
293
Triple-channel
Technicians can use triple-channel or quad-channel memory controllers in some CPUs and supporting chipsets. If the technician does not install the full complement of modules, the system will revert to as many channels as are populated.
294
ECC RAM
Technicians use error correction code (ECC) RAM for workstations and servers that require high reliability.
295
A video gamer is using a product designed to record footage from computer games. What is this called?
Capture cards record video input and save it as a movie or streaming media file. Some work with PC games, while others record from a game console or live camera high-definition multimedia interface (HDMI) sources, such as a camcorder or security camera.
296
Video card
Video cards generate the signal to drive a monitor or projector. Low-end graphics adapters are likely to be included with the motherboard chipset or as part of the CPU itself.
297
Sound card
A sound card records input from a microphone. Audio playback occurs via speakers or headphones connected to sound cards.
298
NIC
The network interface card (NIC) hardware component on a computer provides a network connection.
299
A systems engineer is building a virtual machine to run a service with 8 dual-core CPUs and 500 GB of random access memory to function properly. Where would these two hardware requirements be listed?
Resource requirements are important to consider and meet when setting up a virtualized system and network for virtualized systems to use. If the system is not designed with resource requirements in mind, it will be overwhelmed and dysfunctional.
300
Security requirements
Security requirements are incorrect because the amount of central processing units (CPUs) and random access memory (RAM) a system needs will not impact the security of a system.
301
Legacy software/OS
Legacy software/OS is incorrect because a list of legacy software and OSs would not encompass hardware like CPU and RAM.
302
Test development
Test development often uses virtual desktop platforms based on some guest OS hypervisor.
303
This protocol makes a secure connection to the graphical interface of another computer and uses TCP port 3389.
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) makes a secure connection to the graphical desktop of a remote computer and uses TCP port 3389.
304
Simple Network Management Protocol
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) queries status information from network devices and uses UDP port 161. SNMP traps information sent to a management server utilizing UDP port 162.
305
Server Message Block
Server Message Block (SMB) is the application protocol underpinning file and printer sharing on Windows networks. SMB usually runs directly over TCP port 445.
306
Trivial File Transfer Protocol
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a simplified form of FTP supporting only file copying and uses UDP port 69.
307
A computer monitor's display is so dim it is almost invisible. What is the likely problem?
If a display’s image is so dim that it is almost invisible, the backlight has probably failed. The technician will need to replace the backlight or get it repaired under warranty.
308
Incorrect resolution
The image will appear fuzzy if the output resolution does not match the display device’s native resolution. This fuzzy resolution typically happens if the video card’s driver is faulty or incorrectly configured.
309
Dead pixels
Dead pixels occur when individual pixels stay black. A technician generally cannot fix dead pixels.
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Incorrect cables
Incorrect cables can cause many problems, from flickering screens to audio problems. However, in this case, it is unlikely to be the problem.
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The technician can hear the computer's fan spinning, but no output displays on the laptop. What would be the first troubleshooting technique?
The fan spinning indicates that the device is getting power. The blank screen could indicate a faulty screen, or the computer could not initiate a power-on self-test (POST). Connecting an external monitor will indicate which direction to go.
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Replace the CPU chip with a known good one.
Replacing the central processing unit (CPU) chip is premature if the technician has not ruled out a faulty screen.
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Open the laptop and check all cabling.
If a user has not recently performed on the laptop, then internal cable problems are unlikely to be a problem.
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Replace the battery.
The spinning fan indicates the computer is getting power, so the battery is not the most likely problem.
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A technician needs a connector that offers high-speed standards that specify a data rate of 480 Mbps shared between the devices attached to the same host controller. What connector should the technician use?
USB 2.0 is half-duplex, which means that each device can send or receive, but not simultaneously.
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USB 3.0
USB 3.0 has new versions of Type A, Type B, and Type B Micro connectors with additional signaling and wires. This allows a device to send and receive simultaneously.
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Lightning port
The Lightning port is found only on Apple’s mobile devices. The Lightning connector is reversible. The user needs a suitable adapter cable to connect such a device as a Lightning-to-USB A or Lightning-to-USB C.
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HDMI
A high-definition multimedia interface (HDMI) can rate as either standard or high speed. It provides high resolutions, such as 4K and 8K, and gaming features, such as the ability to vary the monitor refresh rate to match the frame rate of the video source.
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A company has found that specific departments are more productive when working from home as remote workers. The company would like to implement this ability and has reached out to a network security firm. What foundational infrastructure solution should the company implement to allow remote workers to access all the needed resources from their laptops at home?
A virtual private network (VPN) enables hosts to connect to the LAN without being physically installed at the site. This would be the first foundational step to implement in the given scenario.
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Virtual LAN
A virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logical network segment using a feature of managed switches to segregate network traffic. Though the company may use this as a layer of security, it would not be foundational.
321
Mail exchange records
A mail exchange (MX) record identifies an email server for the domain so that other servers can send messages to it.
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DNS (AAAA) records
In the Domain Name System (DNS), an AAAA record resolves a host name to an IPv6 address. This would not help with granting remote workers access to resources.
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This part of an IP address configuration allows a host to communicate with a remote network, most notably the internet. Otherwise, the host will only communicate with the local network without this.
The default gateway is the IPv4 router address, such as 192.168.0.1. This setting is not compulsory, but failure to enter a gateway would limit the host to only communicate on the local network.
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DNS address
DNS addresses provide resolution of host and domain names to their IP addresses and are essential for locating resources on the internet.
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Static address
Using static addressing requires an administrator to visit each computer to enter the configuration information for that host manually.
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APIPA address
When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have obtained a valid DHCP lease.
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While diagnosing a computer that is not powering on, the technician has established that the wall socket is working correctly since there is a fully plugged power cord. What would be a reasonable next step?
After the troubleshooting steps listed, the next reasonable step would be to replace the power cord with a known good cord. If there is a problem with the cord, and the computer boots with a known good cord, then that was the issue.
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Disconnect the plug-in graphics card.
After checking the power cord, disconnect any extra devices. For example, the power supply unit (PSU) might be underpowered for the external device.
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Plug in a known working monitor.
For diagnosing blank screen problems, plug in a known good external monitor. However, it is not appropriate when the computer is not getting power.
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Check the system configurations.
Checking system configurations can help diagnose application crashes or intermittent restarts, but it is not possible if the computer is not getting power.
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How can a technician diagnose capacitor swelling?
Capacitors are barrel-like components that regulate the flow of electricity to system chips. Swollen, bulging, or emitting any residue indicates damaged or failed capacitors. The only sure way to diagnose this is visual.
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Computer that is hot to the touch
A computer that is hot to the touch can indicate overheating, not capacitor swelling.
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Slow computer
A sluggish computer can result from many different problems and is not a diagnostic indicator of capacitor swelling.
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System diagnostics
System diagnostics can help diagnose software and some hardware problems, and it can also point towards capacitor swelling. However, a physical inspection will still be necessary.
335
A remote connection for users to access a company’s private network requires access from an external IP. How might a laptop user test this connection if they are currently connected to the company's internal network?
A smartphone or tablet can be configured as a personal (hotspot) to share its cellular data connection with other computer devices. This approach can be used to simulate being on an external network.
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Enable pairing.
To connect a peripheral device via Bluetooth, the Bluetooth radio on each device must be put into discoverable mode, which is also known as pairing mode.
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Use the correct PIN.
When using Bluetooth, the pairing system should automatically generate a passkey or PIN code when a connection request is received by a peripheral device.
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Update the PRL.
Information that a cellular radio needs to connect to a network is provided as a preferred roaming list (PRL). Updating the PRL will update the list.
339
While trying to diagnose an intermittent shutdown problem, a technician watches while the user reproduces the error. Before the computer shuts down, it gives the BSOD. How is this helpful in diagnosing the problem?
The blue screen of death (BSOD) is Windows proprietary crash screen. BSOD contains an (error code) and a QR code to the memory dump. A technician can search error codes online for more information.
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BSOD indicates power supply unit (PSU) needs replacing.
A faulty power supply unit (PSU) can cause intermittent restarts, but the BSOD does not necessarily indicate that the power supply is the problem.
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BSOD means that memory needs replacing.
Memory problems can cause intermittent restarts, but the BSOD does not necessarily mean a memory problem.
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BSOD shows software corruption.
Software corruption can cause intermittent restarts, but a BSOD does not necessarily mean it is software corruption. The error code on the BSOD will give further information.
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A network administrator is looking at a user's box which seems to have intermittent connectivity issues. Which of the following should they do first?
The first step in resolving a no or intermittent connectivity issue is to check that the patch cords are properly terminated and connected to the network ports.
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Check nominal link speed.
If a user reports slow speed, establish that there is a link speed problem by checking the nominal link speed and using a utility to measure transfer rate independent of specific apps or network services.
345
Analyze network congestion.
Jitter is typically caused by network congestion affecting packet processing on routers and switches.
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See if it received a DHCP lease.
In Windows, a limited connectivity message specifically means that the host can establish a physical connection to the network but has not received a lease for an IP configuration from a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server.
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The 802.11n standard was introduced as an improvement over 802.11a/b/g standards. What characteristics of the 802.11n standard show improved connectivity and performance? (Select all that apply.)
1. 802.11n can work over both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. A technician can implement each band by a separate radio.
2. Introduced with 802.11n is increased reliability and bandwidth by multiplexing signal streams from 2–3 separate antennas. This technology is known as multiple input multiple outputs (MIMO).
3. The nominal data rate for 802.11n is 72 Mbps per stream or 150 Mbps per stream for a 40 MHz bonded channel, and 802.11n access points market using Nxxx designations, where xxx is the nominal bandwidth.
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It can work only over the 5 GHz band. (TorF)
802.11n works over both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands. 802.11n is also known as Wi-Fi 4.
349
What issue does constant indicator LED activity imply?
Constantly on light-emitting diode (LED) indicator lights imply disk thrashing. Disk thrashing occurs when there is not enough system random access memory (RAM), so the system continually uses the disk for paging (virtual memory). It could also signify a faulty software process or that malware has infected the system.
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Faulty boot sector
A faulty boot sector would display the error message, "Bootable device not found,” instead of constantly on LED indicator lights.
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Connector fault
If the device does not boot at all, a physical connection in the computer could be faulty.
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Mechanical problem
Loud clicking or grinding noises as the drive is operating indicate mechanical problems with the drive. Therefore, the technician should replace the hard disk drive (HDD) as soon as possible.
353
A penetration tester must infiltrate a company's facility to capture all the network traffic from a particular set of PCs over a physical network cable. The tester can only access the intermediate distribution frame (IDF) closets into which all devices are patched. What tool can the tester utilize to accomplish their goal?
A network tap intercepts the signals passing over a cable and sends them to a packet or protocol analyzer. Taps are either powered or unpowered. There are passive and active capture types.
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Wi-Fi analyzer
A Wi-Fi analyzer records statistics for the access point (AP) that the client is currently associated with and detects any other access points in the vicinity.
355
Toner probe
A toner probe detects the signal and follows the cable over ceilings and through ducts, or identifies it from the rest of the bundle.
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Cable tester
A basic cable tester is a pair of devices attached to each cable end. It tests a patch cord or wall ports and panel patch ports connected via patch cords to test the permanent link.
357
A user calls to report that they cannot connect to the internet and various other internal resources from their laptop. After a technician asks them what IP address their Windows laptop has, they report it has an address of 169.254.0.115. What problem is the user's laptop having?
Automatic private IP addressing (APIPA) is a mechanism for Windows hosts to obtain an address automatically that (cannot contact a DHCP server) to revert to using an address from the range 169.254.x.y. This is also called a link-local address.
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The laptop has a misconfigured static IP address.
Using static addressing requires an administrator to visit each computer to enter the configuration information for that host manually. This IP would likely not be statically assigned.
359
The laptop has a Class A private address.
10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 is a Class A private address range.
360
The laptop has a misconfigured default gateway address.
The default gateway parameter is the IPv4 address of a router. If the laptop cannot contact a DHCP server, it will not get a default gateway at all.
361
What symptom only points to a mechanical fault?
A hard disk drive (HDD) has moving pieces that generally make a low-level sound when accessed. A loud or grinding noise, or any clicking sound, is a sign of a mechanical problem.
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Bootable device not found
The error message, “Bootable device not found” could indicate a physical problem, but it is just as likely to be a corrupted boot disk sector (software problem).
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Read/write failure
Bad sectors in an HDD typically cause read/write failures when trying to open or save a file. Power failures or mechanical faults can cause read/write failures.
364
No LED status lights
No light-emitting diode (LED) status indicators can mean the whole system is not receiving power or an individual disk unit is faulty.
365
When a user downloads a Microsoft Store application, where does the application run to prevent the app from making system-wide changes and prevent a faulty store app from "crashing" the entire OS?
A sandbox is an isolated environment where Microsoft Store apps run to prevent the app from making system-wide changes and prevent a faulty store app from "crashing" the entire OS.
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Test development
Test development often uses virtual desktop platforms based on some sort of guest OS hypervisor.
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Cross-platform virtualization
Cross-platform utilization tests software applications under different OSs and resource constraints and is important to ensure the application is compatible across several different environments.
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Resource requirements
Resource requirements are important to consider and meet when setting up a virtualized system and network for virtualized systems to use. If the system is not designed with resource requirements in mind, it will be overwhelmed and dysfunctional.
369
A technician works on a faulty unit and needs to remove and replace a power supply unit (PSU) without opening the case and without the server losing power. What is this configuration?
A redundant power supply requires a compatible motherboard. This configuration is more common in server systems than on desktop PCs. Typically, each PSU plugs into a backplane on a server and is hot-swappable.
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Modular power supply
A modular power supply has power connector cables that are detachable from the unit.
371
Liquid-base cooling system
A liquid-based cooling system refers to a system of pumping water around the chassis. Water is a more effective coolant than air convection, and a good pump can run more quietly than numerous fans.
372
Open-loop system
An open-loop system will usually need draining, cleaning, and refilling periodically. The fans and radiators need to be kept dust-free. The technician should drain the system prior to moving the PC to a different location.
373
A user wants to mitigate the risk of data loss by using a disk that underpins the mass storage system and provides fault tolerance. What can the user use?
A redundant array of independent disks (RAID) is an array that appears as a single storage resource or volume and can be partitioned and formatted like any other drive. RAID has a basic level numbered from 0 to 6. There are also nested RAID solutions, like RAID 10.
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NVMe
NVMe (NVM express) can be packaged for installation to a PCIe slot as an expansion card or an M.2 slot.
375
SSD
A solid-state drive (SSD) uses flash memory technology to implement persistent mass storage. Flash memory performs much better than the mechanical components used in hard drives.
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mSATA
A mini-serial ATA (mSATA) allows a technician to plug an SSD packaged as an adapter card into the motherboard's combined data and power port.
377
What would cause a central processing unit (CPU) to make only minor changes to the CPU internals that significantly improve performance and increase speed?
Multicore is a design that allows each core to communicate with the others, allowing the processing tasks to be divided and assigned properly. The multicore acts as a single unit. This allows for it to be more efficient.
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Multisocket
Multisocket offers multiple sockets and supports two processors for the CPU.
379
Single core
Single core CPU has a single execution unit and set of registers implemented on a single package.
380
Multithreading
Multithreading is also known as HyperThreading by Intel. A thread is a stream of instructions generated by a software application. This provides multiple threads of execution at once, supported by the operating system.
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