Disease of the Bone Flashcards

(77 cards)

1
Q

Osteoporosis is a disorder affecting the skeletal system characterised by

A

loss of bone mass.

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2
Q

Bone mineral density decreases with age

A

true

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3
Q

World Health Organisation define osteoporosis as

A

presence of bone mineral density (BMD) of less than 2.5 standard deviations (SD) below the young adult mean density.

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4
Q

Around?% of post-menopausal women will suffer an osteoporotic fracture at some point.

A

Around 50% of post-menopausal women will suffer an osteoporotic fracture at some point.

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5
Q

The major risk factors for osteoporosis are age and female gender.

A

true

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6
Q

Guidelines recommend using a screening tool such as

A

FRAX or QFracture to assess the 10-year risk of a patient developing a fragility fracture. A patient who has sustained a fragility fracture (e.g. following a Colles’ wrist fracture) should also be assessed for osteoporosis.

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7
Q

To assess the actual bone mineral density what is used?

A

dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan is used. The DEXA scan looks at the hip and lumbar spine. If either have a T score of < -2.5 then treatment is recommended.

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8
Q

The first-line treatment for osteoporosis is

A

oral bisphosphonate such as alendronate. Other treatments are available but the vast majority of patients are managed with this therapy.

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9
Q

Osteoporosis the first list we should order the following bloods as a minimum for all patients:

A
full blood count
urea and electrolytes
liver function tests
bone profile
CRP
thyroid function tests
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10
Q

risk factors that are used by major risk assessment tools such as FRAX:

A
history of glucocorticoid use
rheumatoid arthritis
alcohol excess
history of parental hip fracture
low body mass index
current smoking
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11
Q

Medications that may worsen osteoporosis (other than glucocorticoids):

A
SSRIs
antiepileptics
proton pump inhibitors
glitazones
long term heparin therapy
aromatase inhibitors e.g. anastrozole
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12
Q

In terms of body systems - what can be a risk for osteoporosis

A

endocrine disorders: hyperthyroidism, hypogonadism (e.g. Turner’s, testosterone deficiency), growth hormone deficiency, hyperparathyroidism, diabetes mellitus
multiple myeloma, lymphoma
gastrointestinal disorders: inflammatory bowel disease, malabsorption (e.g. Coeliac’s), gastrectomy, liver disease
chronic kidney disease
osteogenesis imperfecta, homocystinuria

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13
Q

Which ethnicity higher risk OP

A

Caucasians and Asians

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14
Q

If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture further investigations may be warranted. NOGG recommend testing for the following reasons:

A

exclude diseases that mimic osteoporosis (e.g. osteomalacia, myeloma);
identify the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors;
assess the risk of subsequent fractures;
select the most appropriate form of treatment

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15
Q

The risk of osteoporosis is thought to rise significantly once a patient is taking the equivalent of

A

prednisolone 7.5mg a day for 3 or more months

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16
Q

if it likely that the patient will have to take steroids for at least 3 months then we should start bone protection straight away, rather than waiting until 3 months has elapsed.

A

true

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17
Q

a patient with newly diagnosed polymyalgia rheumatica. As it is very likely they will be on a significant dose of prednisolone for greater than 3 months what should be commenced immediately.

A

bone protection

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18
Q

Management of patients at risk of corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis

The RCP guidelines essentially divide patients into two groups:

A
  1. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who’ve previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection.
  2. Patients under the age of 65 years should be offered a bone density scan, with further management dependent
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19
Q

Management of patients at risk of corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis &
Patients under the age of 65 years
bone scan results & management???

A

Greater than 0: Reassure
Between 0 and -1.5: Repeat bone density scan in 1-3 years
Less than -1.5: Offer bone protection

The first-line treatment is alendronate. Patients should also be calcium and vitamin D replete.

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20
Q

Osteoporosis: assessing risk

all women aged ? years and all men aged ? years should be assessed

A

all women aged >= 65 years and all men aged >= 75 years should be assessed

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21
Q

Osteoporosis: assessing risk when should younger patients be assessed?

A

previous fragility fracture, history of falls, family history of hip fracture
current use or frequent recent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid
low body mass index (BMI) (less than 18.5 kg/m²)
smoking
alcohol intake of more than 14 units per week for women and more than 14 units per week for men.

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22
Q

NICE recommend using a clinical prediction tool such as ? to assess a patients 10 year risk of developing a fracture

A

FRAX or QFracture

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23
Q

Describe FRAX

A

estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture

valid for patients aged 40-90 years

based on international data so use not limited to UK patients

assesses the following factors: age, sex, weight, height, previous fracture, parental fracture, current smoking, glucocorticoids, rheumatoid arthritis, secondary osteoporosis, alcohol intake
bone mineral density (BMD) is optional, but clearly improves the accuracy of the results.

NICE recommend arranging a DEXA scan if FRAX (without BMD) shows an intermediate result

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24
Q

Describe Qfracture

A

estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture
developed in 2009 based on UK primary care dataset
can be used for patients aged 30-99 years (this is stated on the QFracture website, but other sources give a figure of 30-85 years)
includes a larger group of risk factors e.g. cardiovascular disease, history of falls, chronic liver disease, rheumatoid arthritis, type 2 diabetes and tricyclic antidepressants

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25
There are some situations where NICE recommend arranging BMD assessment (i.e. a DEXA scan) rather than using one of the clinical prediction tools for assessing osteoporosis risk these are?
before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density (for example, sex hormone deprivation for treatment for breast or prostate cancer). in people aged under 40 years who have a major risk factor , such as history of multiple fragility fracture, major osteoporotic fracture, or current or recent use of high-dose oral or high-dose systemic glucocorticoids (more than 7.5 mg prednisolone or equivalent per day for 3 months or longer).
26
If the FRAX assessment was done without a bone mineral density (BMD) measurement the results (10-year risk of a fragility fracture) will be given and categorised automatically into one of the following:
low risk: reassure and give lifestyle advice intermediate risk: offer BMD test high risk: offer bone protection treatment
27
If the FRAX assessment was done witha bone mineral density (BMD) measurement the results (10-year risk of a fragility fracture) will be given and categorised automatically into one of the following:
reassure consider treatment strongly recommend treatment
28
If you use QFracture instead patients are not automatically categorised into low, intermediate or high risk. Instead the 'raw data' relating to the 10-year risk of any sustaining an osteoporotic fracture. This data then needs to be interpreted alongside either local or national guidelines, taking into account certain factors such as the patient's age.
true
29
NICE recommend that we recalculate a patient's risk (i.e. repeat the FRAX/QFracture):
if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years, or when there has been a change in the person's risk factors
30
Describe DEXA scan - what does each score mean
T score: based on bone mass of young reference population T score of -1.0 means bone mass of one standard deviation below that of young reference population Z score is adjusted for age, gender and ethnic factors
31
Describe T score results
> -1.0 = normal -1.0 to -2.5 = osteopaenia < -2.5 = osteoporosis
32
In women aged 75 years or older, a DEXA scan may not be required 'if
the responsible clinician considers it to be clinically inappropriate or unfeasible'
33
treatment is indicated following osteoporotic fragility fractures in postmenopausal women who are confirmed to have osteoporosis
true
34
What should be offered to all women undergoing osteoporisis tx
vitamin D and calcium supplementation | unless the clinician is confident they have adequate calcium intake and are vitamin D replete
35
around ?% of patients cannot tolerate alendronate | why?
around 25% of patients cannot tolerate alendronate, usually due to upper gastrointestinal problems
36
Patients who cannot tolerate alendronate - what next
These patients should be offered risedronate or etidronate
37
Patients who cannot tolerate bisphosphonates - what next
strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if patients cannot tolerate bisphosphonates
38
treatment cut-off tables have been produced in the latest guidelines for patients who do not tolerate alendronate These take into account
patients age, theire T-score and the number of risk factors they have from the following list: parental history of hip fracture alcohol intake of 4 or more units per day rheumatoid arthritis
39
the T-score criteria for risedronate or etidronate are more/less than the others implying that these are the second line drugs
less
40
if alendronate, risedronate or etidronate cannot be taken then strontium ranelate or raloxifene may be given based on quite strict T-scores
true
41
alendronate, risedronate may be superior to etidronate in preventing
hip fractures
42
What is raloxifene? | Side effects?
selective oestrogen receptor modulator (SERM) may worsen menopausal symptoms increased risk of thromboembolic events
43
raloxifene can cause breast cancer
false | may decrease risk of breast cancer
44
What is Strontium ranelate? | Side effects?
'dual action bone agent' - increases deposition of new bone by osteoblasts (promotes differentiation of pre-osteoblast to osteoblast) and reduces the resorption of bone by inhibiting osteoclasts due to these concerns the European Medicines Agency in 2014 said it should only be used by people for whom there are no other treatments for osteoporosis increased risk of cardiovascular events: any history of cardiovascular disease or significant risk of cardiovascular disease is a contraindication increased risk of thromboembolic events: a Drug Safety Update in 2012 recommended it is not used in patients with a history of venous thromboembolism may cause serious skin reactions such as Stevens Johnson syndrome
45
Bisphosphonates are
analogues of pyrophosphate, a molecule which decreases demineralisation in bone. They inhibit osteoclasts by reducing recruitment and promoting apoptosis.
46
Bisphosphonates clinical uses?
prevention and treatment of osteoporosis hypercalcaemia Paget's disease pain from bone metatases
47
Bisphosphonates adverse effects?
oesophageal reactions: oesophagitis, oesophageal ulcers (especially alendronate) osteonecrosis of the jaw increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate acute phase response: fever, myalgia and arthralgia may occur following administration hypocalcaemia: due to reduced calcium efflux from bone. Usually clinically unimportant
48
The BNF suggests the following counselling for patients taking oral bisphosphonates
'Tablets should be swallowed whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing; to be given on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast (or another oral medication); patient should stand or sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking tablet'
49
The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies according to the level of risk. Some authorities recommend stopping bisphosphonates at 5 years if the following apply:
patient is < 75-years-old femoral neck T-score of > -2.5 low risk according to FRAX/NOGG
50
Oral bisphosphonates are still given first-line, with oral alendronate being the first-line treatment. If alendronate is not tolerated then NICE recommend using an alternative bisphosphonate - either risedronate or etidronate. Following this the advice becomes more complicated with the next-line medications only being started if certain T score and other risk factor criteria being met. Raloxifene and strontium ranelate were recommended as next-line drugs in the NICE criteria but following recent safety concerns regarding strontium ranelate it is likely there will be an increasing role for denosumab.
true
51
Bone disorders: lab values | Osteoporosis
Calcium Normal Phosphate Normal ALP Normal PTH Normal
52
Bone disorders: lab values | Osteomalacia
Calcium Decreased Phosphate Decreased ALP Increased PTH Increased
53
``` Bone disorders: lab values Primary hyperparathyroidism (→ osteitis fibrosa cystica) ```
Calcium Increased Phosphate Decreased ALP Increased PTH Increased
54
Bone disorders: lab values | Chronic kidney disease (→ secondary hyperparathyroidism)
Calcium Decreased Phosphate Increased ALP Increased PTH Increased
55
Bone disorders: lab values | Paget's disease
Calcium Normal Phosphate Normal ALP Increased PTH Normal
56
Bone disorders: lab values | Osteopetrosis
Calcium Normal Phosphate Normal ALP Normal PTH Normal
57
What is osteomalacia
normal bony tissue but decreased mineral content
58
Osteomalacia in kids
rickets
59
osteomalacia types
``` vitamin D deficiency e.g. malabsorption, lack of sunlight, diet renal failure drug induced e.g. anticonvulsants vitamin D resistant; inherited liver disease, e.g. cirrhosis ```
60
osteomalacia features
rickets: knock-knee, bow leg, features of hypocalcaemia osteomalacia: bone pain, fractures, muscle tenderness, proximal myopathy
61
osteomalacia ix
``` low 25(OH) vitamin D (in 100% of patients, by definition) raised alkaline phosphatase (in 95-100% of patients) low calcium, phosphate (in around 30%) x-ray: children - cupped, ragged metaphyseal surfaces; adults - translucent bands (Looser's zones or pseudofractures) ```
62
Osteomalacia tx
calcium with vitamin D tablets
63
Paget's disease is
disease of increased but uncontrolled bone turnover. It is thought to be primarily a disorder of osteoclasts, with excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity
64
Bones most affected in Paget's
The skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities are most commonly affected.
65
Paget's disease is common and symptomatic in all patients
false | Paget's disease is common (UK prevalence 5%) but symptomatic in only 1 in 20 patients
66
Paget's disease risk factors
increasing age male sex northern latitude family history
67
Pagets only ?% of patients are symptomatic
5%
68
the stereotypical presentation of pagets
``` an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised ALP classical, untreated features: bowing of tibia, bossing of skull bone pain (e.g. pelvis, lumbar spine, femur) ```
69
pagets skull x ray
thickened vault, osteoporosis circumscripta
70
Pagets bloods
raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP) - calcium* and phosphate are typically normal other markers of bone turnover include: procollagen type I N-terminal propeptide (PINP), serum C-telopeptide (CTx), urinary N-telopeptide (NTx), and urinary hydroxyproline
71
Pagets Indications for treatment
bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, periarticular Paget's
72
Pagets tx
bisphosphonate (either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate) | calcitonin is less commonly used now
73
Pagets complications
``` deafness (cranial nerve entrapment) bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years) fractures skull thickening high-output cardiac failure ```
74
What is Osteogenesis imperfecta
Osteogenesis imperfecta (more commonly known as brittle bone disease) is a group of disorders of collagen metabolism resulting in bone fragility and fractures. The most common, and milder, form of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1
75
Inheritance pattern of Osteogenesis imperfecta | Pathophysiology?
autosomal dominant | abnormality in type 1 collagen due to decreased synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides
76
Sx Osteogenesis imperfecta
``` presents in childhood fractures following minor trauma blue sclera deafness secondary to otosclerosis dental imperfections are common ```
77
Ix Osteogenesis imperfecta
adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone and ALP results are usually normal in osteogenesis imperfecta