Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

MGM (D) > Diseases Unit 1 > Flashcards

Diseases Unit 1 Flashcards

(79 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What is Patau Syndrome?

A

Trisomy 13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Cystic Fibrosis?

A

1) Autosomal Recessive
2) 3 base deletion in CFTR results in F508 mutation that prevents normal folding of channel, leading to protein degradation
3) Can detect 3 base pair deletion using PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is OTCase deficiency?

A

1) X-linked recessive
2) Ornithine carbamoyltransferase (OTCase) catalyses the conversion of ornithine and carbamoyl phosphate to citrulline. In mammals this enzyme participates in the urea cycle and is located in the mitochondrial matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Rett syndrome?

A

1) X-linked dominant; lethal in males
2) Mutation in MeCP2 (CpG island binding protein)
3) scoliosis; mental problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is MERRF (Myoclonic Epilepsy with Ragged Red Fibers)?

A

1) Point mutation in mtDNA A8344G (MTTK)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is MELAS (Mitochondrial Encephalopathy with Lactic Acid and Stroke)?

A

1) Point mutation in mtDNA A3243G (MTTL) or in mtDNA G4332A (MTTQ)
2) Mutations in ND genes and tRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is LHON (Leber Hereditary Optic Neuropathy)?

A

1) Point mutation in mtDNA G11778A

2) Mutations in ND genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is KSS (Kearns-Sayre Syndrome)?

A

1) Deletion in mtDNA

2) Mutant mitochondria are localized to muscle and CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Pearson Syndrome?

A

1) Deletion in mtDNA

2) Mutant mitochondria found in high amounts in tissues, especially in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is CPEO (Chronic Progressive Opthalmoplegia)?

A

1) Deletion in mtDNA

2) Mutant mitochondria is more localized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Alpers/Ataxia?

A

1) Mutation in nuclear encoded mt DNA causes mutations in Pol G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Lupus?

A

1) Autoimmune disease with CNV involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is CYP2C9 deficiency?

A

1) Polymorphic alleles result in “poor metabolizers” (16%)

2) Cannot metabolize Warfarin as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is CYP2D6 deficiency?

A

1) Polymorphic alleles result in “poor metabolizers” (20%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is OI (Osteogenesis Imperfecta)?

A

1) Autosomal Dominant
2) Type 2>3>4>1 (severity)
3) Type 1 reduces production of collagen; Types 2-4 result in Glycine (Every third amino acid in collagen) to be substituted for a bulky amino acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is common between Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (Mad cow disease), kuru, Scrapie, Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease (CJD), Fatal Familial Insomnia, & Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker (GSS) ?

A

1) Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathy (TSE)

2) Presence of abnormal prion protein causing an increase of beta sheet formation (Constitutive –> Scrapie)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is HIV?

A

1) HIV provirus uses Rev protein to prevent mRNAs from getting spliced. Allows them to leave nucleus unspliced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are indicators of Liver Damage?

A

Elevated levels of:

1) Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT)
2) Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are indicators of Pancreatitis?

A

Elevated levels of:

1) Amylase
2) Lipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are indicators of Myocardial infarction?

A

Elevated levels of:

1) CK-MB (Creatine Kinase MB)
2) cTnI (Cardiac Tropnin I; Gold Standard)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is ATR-X Syndrome?

A

1) X-linked recessive
2) Chromatin disease affecting DNA helicase
3) mental retardation, facial & skeletal abnormalities, alpha thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Rubinstein-Taybi Syndrome?

A

1) Autosomal Dominant
2) Affects histone acetyltransferase in CBP (CREB Binding protein)
3) Broad thumbs, big toes, & mental retardation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is Dyskeratosis Congenita?

A

1) X-linked recessive
2) Decreased telomerase; shortened telomeres
3) Causes loss of keratin, resulting in many skin, nail, & hair defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is Adenosine Deaminase Deficiency?

A

1) Autosomal recessive
2) Immune deficiency; affects lymphocytes
3) Very susceptible to infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How is tuberculosis treated?
1) Rifampin binds to bacterial RNA Pol changing its comformation and preventing mRNA synthesis
26
What is alpha-amantin?
1) Poisonous mushroom | 2) Blocks elongation by RNA Pol 2
27
What is Hemophilia B Leyden?
1) Reduces HNF4 (Hepatocyte nuclear factor 4) binding | 2) Factor IX levels increase during puberty
28
What is HPV caused by?
1) E6AP catalyzes degradation of p53 tumor suppressor protein and contributes to cervical carcinoma
29
What is HbC?
1) Beta chain Glu 6 Lys 2) Oxygenated HbC crystallizes 3) Mild hemolysis
30
What is Hb-Hammersmith?
1) Beta chain His 92 Tyr | 2) Unstable hemoglobin causes precipitation and hemolysis
31
What is Hb Kempey?
1) Beta chain Asp 99 Asn | 2) Hb has high oxygen affinity, so less oxygen is released to tissues
32
What is alpha thalassemia?
1) Deficiency in alpha subunits most commonly caused by uneven crossing over events (deletion from chromosome 16) 2) Mild microcytic anemia
33
What is beta thalassemia?
1) Deficiency in beta subunits caused by alpha chain inclusion body formation in hematopoetic stem cells 2) Splenic enlargement, gall stones, microcytic anemia
34
What is hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin?
1) Big deletion in beta and delta hemoglobin chain genes, resulting in persistence of HbF (gamma chain genes still present)
35
What is Muscular Dystrophy?
1) X-linked recessive
36
What is Huntington's disease?
1) Autosomal Dominant | 2) Increased Beta sheet creating amyloid fibers
37
What is Neurofibromatosis?
1) Autosomal Dominant
38
What is true in Autism?
1) 10-20% of patients with autism have CNVs
39
What is thrombophilia?
1) Hypercoagulation | 2) Mutations in factor 5 (A to T) or prothrombin
40
What is Bart's hemoglobin?
1) Gamma tetramer | 2) Extremely high affinity for oxygen
41
What is Immunodeficiency, Centromere Instability and Facial anomalies syndrome (ICF)?
1) Problem with DNA Methyltransferase
42
What is Meier Gorlyn Syndrome?
1) Mutation in ORC genes | 2) Underdeveloped/missing kneecaps, small ears, microcephaly, but normal intellect
43
What is Seckel Syndrome?
1) Mutation in ATR (checkpoint kinase used in cell cycle) | 2) Narrow, birdlike faces & mental retardation
44
Topoisomerase inhibitors are used widely as ______ drugs
1) Anticancer
45
What is idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?
1) Mutation in telomerase 2) Lung scarring 3) Undetectable
46
What is aplastic anemia?
1) Mutation in telomerase | 2) Hematopoietic stem cells cannot proliferate in absence of telomerase
47
What is Junctional Epidermolysis Bullosa?
1) Homozygous defecy in LAMB3 gene | 2) Can undergo intragenic second site suppression t o create somatic mosaicism
48
What is hereditary non polyposis colon cancer (Lynch syndrome)?
1) Autosomal Dominant | 2) Defective mismatch repair
49
What is Hemophilia B Brandenburg?
1) Reduces HNF4 binding and Androgen Receptor Binding | 2) Factor IX levels remain low throughout life
50
What is Aniridia?
1) Defect in Pax6 gene, resulting in defective Pax6 protein | 2) Lack of irises
51
What is Spinal Muscle Atrophy?
1) Two genes: SMN1 and SMN2. 2) Silent mutation in SMN2 interferes with spliceosome binding, leads to exon skipping 3) Results from homozygous mutations that inactivate SMN1
52
What is Diptheria?
1) Symptoms: swollen neck, thick gray membranous coating in throat 2) Cause: toxin ADP ribosylates eEF2, preventing elongation of translation
53
What is Hereditary Hyperferritinemia Cataract Syndrome?
1) IRE is mutated so it cannot bind IRE-Binding Protein, resulting in excess ferritin synthesis 2) Symptom: cataract formation
54
What is Vanishing White Matter?
1) Autosomal Recessive 2) Cause: mutation in eIF2B which inhibits translation initiation by decreasing supply of Met-tRNA 3) Symptoms: neurological deterioration, ataxia, ovarian failure
55
What is Prader Willi Syndrome?
1) Autosomal Dominant 2) Symptoms: Mental retardation, large appetite 3) Cause: large deletion on chromosome 15 inherited from father or uniparental disomy
56
What is Angelman Syndrome?
1) Autosomal Dominant 2) Symptoms: severe mental retardation, ataxia 3) Cause: defect in ubiquitin ligase (E3) due to large deletion on chromosome 15 inherited from mother or uniparental disomy
57
What is I cell disease?
1) Cause: genetic defect in adding mannose-6-phosphate resulting in enzyme failure to target proteins to lysosome and accumulation of inclusion bodies
58
What is Zellweger Syndrome?
1) Cause: mutation in genes required for peroxisome targeting or function
59
What is Multiple Sulftase Deficiency?
1) Symptoms: progressive paralysis, skeletal deformities, neurological defects 2) Cause: defect in Sulfatase Modifying Factor 1 (SMF1) required to modify an essential cysteine in the active site of sulfatases
60
What is Keshan Disease?
1) Symptoms: dilated cardiomyopathy, congestive heart failure, striated muscle degeneration, flabby heart 2) Cause: Selenium deficiency prevents selenoproteins from catalyzing oxido-reduction reactions such as reduction of peroxides.
61
What is Familial Hyperproinsulinemia?
1) Autosomal Dominant 2) Cause: defective proinsulin cleavage resulting in equal amounts of insulin and proinsulin 3) Note: no diabetes in the heterozygote
62
What is polio virus?
1) Mechanism: polio protease 2A cleaves eIF4G which makes it incompatible with CAP dependent initiation but still compatible with IRES mediated initiation favored by the polio virus.
63
What is sepsis?
1) Hypercatabolic state where protein turnover rate is elevated especially in skeletal muscle due to cortisol induction of ubiquitin-mediated proteolysis.
64
What is Xeroderma Pigmentosum (XP)
null mutation in early process of nucleotide excision repair, characterized by UV radiation sensitivity, skin malignancies, neurological/ocular abnormalities
65
What is Cockayne Syndrome?
loss/defect in CS-A/CS-B/XP-B/XP-D/XP-G causes RNA polymerase to stall at damage site (problem with transcription coupled repair), characterized by photosensitivity, growth/mental retardation, but little skin cancer
66
What is Trichothiodystrophy?
defective XPB or XPD (helicase components of TF2H) creates problems with repair and transcription, characterized by brittle hair and nails, UV sensitivity, but no cancer predisposition
67
What is Bloom Syndrome?
defective BLM gene that codes for RecQ-like helicase causes defect in double strand break repair, characterized by growth defects, sun sensitivity, cancer predisposition
68
What is Werner Syndrome?
defect in WRN coding for RecQ-family helicase (has helicase and nuclease activity) causes defect in double strand break repair, characterized as "premature aging disease" and other age related diseases (osteoporosis, atherosclerosis, diabetes, etc)
69
What is Li-Fraumeni Syndrome?
one p53 allele is mutated and increases risk of developing cancer 25x, defective DNA damage response (cancer predisposition syndrome)
70
What is Xeroderma Pigmentosum Variant?
lack DNA polymerase eta and cannot pair thymine dimers with adenine dimers, characterized by hypermutagenesis compared to XP (permanent mutator phenotype: mutator phenotype is permanent due to a first mutation in a repair gene, examples include HNPCC, XP, XPV)
71
What is mupirocin?
antibiotic that inhibits Isoleucine-tRNA synthase
72
What is streptomycin?
targets 30S subunit to cause misreading and inhibit initiation
73
What is Tetracycline?
targets 30S subunit to inhibit binding of AA-tRNA to A site
74
What is Chloramphenicol?
targets 50S subunit, inhibits peptidyl transferase
75
What is erythromycin?
targets 50S subunit, inhibits translocation
76
What is puromycin?
targets 50S and 60S subunits, causes premature release of nascent polypeptide, contains an alpha amino group that is very similar to tyrosine
77
What is Diphtheria Toxin?
targets eEF2 to inhibit translocation -fragment B allows internalization into cell, fragment A causes ADP ribosylation of eEF2
78
What is Ricin?
targets 60S subunit to inhibit binding of AA-tRNA to A site -fragment B allows internalization into cell, fragment A causes depurination of 28S rRNA at A residue
79
What is Multiple Sulfatase Deficiency (MSD)?
defect in sulfatase-modifying factor 1 gene (SMF-1) that normally modifies an essential cysteine residue in the active site of sulfatases, characterized by progressive paralysis/skeletal deformities)

MGM (D) (71 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions