DIT Warm-up Questions Flashcards

Question

What adult cell types arise from neural crest cells?

Answer 1

1. ANS 2. Celiac Ganglia 3. Dorsal root ganglia 4. Schwann cells 5. Pia 6. Arachnoid 7. Odontoblasts (dentin of teeth) 8. Melanocytes 9. Thyroid & Laryngeal cartilage 10. Aorticopulmonary septum

Answer 2

Serine, threonine, and Asparagine

Answer 3

Adding mannose-6-phosphate to lysosome enzymes

Answer 4

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Answer 5

Telomerase

Answer 6

Calorie restriction

Answer 7

1. GABA is decreased 2. Serotonin is decreased 3. Norepinephrine is increased

Answer 8

Thromboxane A2 (increases platelet aggregation, increases vascular tone, increases bronchial tone)

Answer 9

Mitochondria releases cytochrome c

Answer 10

Ototoxicity

Answer 11

Mannose-6-phosphate

Answer 12

Lysine, Arginine, and Proline

Answer 13

Paramedian Pontine Reticular Formation (PPRF)

Answer 14

1. Tetracycline 2. Valproic Acid 3. Phenytoin 4. ACE inhibitors 5. Warfarin 6. Excessive vitamin A 7. Lithium

Answer 15

Anterior (parasympathetic) and posterior (sympathetic) nuclei

Answer 16

1. Eyelid opening: CN III 2. Taste from anterior 2/3 of tongue: CN VII 3. Head turning: CN XI 4. Tongue movement: CN XII 5. Muscles of mastication: CN V 6. Balance: CN VIII 7. Monitoring carotid body and sinus chemo- and baroreceptors: CN IX

Answer 17

Damage to the right-sided sternocleidomastoid is responsible for the inability to turn her head. The right spinal accessory nerve innervates these actions

Answer 18

1. Type I or Type III 2. Type I

Answer 19

Rb and p53

Answer 20

1. Taste in the anterior 2/3: CN VII 2. Taste in the posterior 1/3: CN IX 3. Motor: CN XII 4. Sensation in the anterior 2/3: CN V3 5. Sensation in the posterior 1/3: CN IX

Answer 21

"DUMBBELSS" 1. Diarrhea 2. Urination 3. Miosis 4. Bradycardia 5. Bronchospasm 6. Excitation of skeletal muscle 7. Lacrimation 8. Salivation 9. Sweating

Answer 22

Pralidoxime

Answer 23

1. Capillary endothelial cells w/ tight junctions 2. Basement membrane 3. Astrocyte foot processes

Answer 24

1. Oxybutinin 2. Tolterodine 3. Trospium 4. Darifenacin 5. Solifenacin

Answer 25

1. Autonomic nervous system 2. Schwann cells 3. Parafollicular cells 4. Chromaffin cells 5. Celiac ganglia 6. Dorsal root ganglia 7. Odontoblasts 8. Cranial nerves 9. Pia & Arachnoid Mater 10. Bones of the skull 11. Thyroid & Laryngeal Cartilage 12. Aorticopulmonary septum

Answer 26

Break down cellular waste & debris

Answer 27

Activation of Gq -\> Activation of Phospholipase C -\> Conversion of lipids to PIP2 -\> PIP2 breaks down into IP3 and DAG -\> DAG activates Protein Kinase C

Answer 28

This was caused by organophosphate poisoning (inhibition of acetylcholinesterase) -\> Causing excess acetylcholine -\> causing cholinergic stimulation of muscarinic receptors

Answer 29

Tyrosine Hydroxylase

Answer 30

Urinary retention is caused by anticholinergic effects of many neuroleptics. Treat with cholinergic agonists like bethanechol

Answer 31

Pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC)

Answer 32

A nuclear localization signal: A 4-8 AA sequence rich in Lysine, Proline, and Arginine

Answer 33

1. Decrease airway secretions 2. pupillary dilation & cycloplegia 3. Decrease gut motility 4. Decrease stomach acid secretion 5. Decrease urgency/bladder spasms

Answer 34

1. Hot as a Hare (Increased temperature) 2. Red as a beet (Peripheral vasodilation) 3. Dry as a bone (Decreased secretions) 4. Blind as a bat (Mydriasis & cycloplegia) 5. Mad as a hatter (Agitation/delirium) 6. Bloated as a toad (Constipation/urinary retention)

Answer 35

1. Phenylalanine -\> Tyrosine (catalyzed by phenylalanine hydroxylase) 2. Tyrosine -\> Dopa (catalyzed by tyrosine hydroxylase) 3. Dopa -\> Dopamine (catalyzed by Dopa carboxylase with cofactor B6) 4. Dopamine -\> Norepinephrine (Catalyzed by Dopamine beta-hydroxylase with cofactor vitamin C) 5. Norepinephrine -\> Epinephrine (Catalyzed by Phenylethanolamine-N-Methyltransferase)

Answer 36

1. ACTH 2. FSH 3. LH 4. GH 5. TSH 6. Prolactin 7. MSH (Melanotropin)

Answer 37

1. Stimulates milk secretion during lactation: Oxytocin 2. Stimulates metabolic activity: Thyroid hormone 3. Increases blood glucose level and decreases protein synthesis: Cortisol 4. Stimulates ovulation in females and testosterone synthesis in males: LH

Answer 38

1. Monoamine Oxidase (MAO) 2. Catechol-O-Methyltransferase (COMT)

Answer 39

Prolactinoma

Answer 40

1. Diarrhea, urination, miosis, bronchospasm, bradycardia, excitation of skeletal muscle, lacrimation, salivation, sweating 2. Hot as a hare, red as a beet, blind as a bat, mad as a hatter, dry as a bone, bloated as a toad

Answer 41

1. Gq: H1, alpha1, V1, M1, M3 - Phospholipase C -\> Protein Kinase C 2. Gs: B1, B2, D1, V2, - Increase adenylyl cyclase -\> Increase Protein Kinase A 3. Gi: M2, alpha2, D2 - Decrease adenylyl cyclase -\> Decrease Protein Kinase A

Answer 42

1. Dopamine and Prolactin inhibit prolactin secretion 2. TRH increases prolactin secretion

Answer 43

GABA and it is decreased in anxiety and Huntington Disease

Answer 44

Bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation in the upper extremities. On rare occaisons, hand muscle weakness can occur

Answer 45

Sympathomimetic (a1, a2, b1 agonist)

Answer 46

beta-blocker (B1 selective)

Answer 47

Beta-blocker (B2=B1)

Answer 48

Cholinergic agonist

Answer 49

Alpha-adrenergic antagonist

Answer 50

Direct cholinergic agonist

Answer 51

Sympathomimetic (B1=B2)

Answer 52

Indirect cholinergic agonist (anticholinesterase)

Answer 53

Alpha-adrenergic antagonist

Answer 54

Cholinergic antagonist

Answer 55

Beta-blocker (B2=B1)

Answer 56

Beta-blocker (B2=B1) & alpha-blocker

Answer 57

Nicotinic antagonist

Answer 58

Beta-blocker (B1 selective)

Answer 59

Sympathomimetic (B2 agonist)

Answer 60

Sympathomimetic (D1 = D1 \> B1 \> a1 agonist)

Answer 61

Direct cholinergic agonist

Answer 62

Direct cholinergic agonist

Answer 63

Indirect cholinergic agonist (anticholinesterase)

Answer 64

Sympathomimetic (a1\>a2 agonist)

Answer 65

Cholinergic antagonist

Answer 66

Alpha-adrenergic antagonist (alpha-blocker)

Answer 67

Indirect cholinergic agonist (anticholinesterase)

Answer 68

Cholinergic antagonist

Answer 69

Alpha-adrenergic antagonist (alpha-blocker)

Answer 70

Cholinesterase regenerator

Answer 71

Indirect cholinergic agonist (anticholinesterase)

Answer 72

Cholinergic antagonist

Answer 73

Sympathomimetic (a1, a2, B1, B2 agonist)

Answer 74

Beta-blocker (B1 selective)

Answer 75

Cholinergic antagonist

Answer 76

Alpha-adrenergic antagonist (alpha-blocker)

Answer 77

1. Lateral nucleus is inhibited by leptin 2. Ventromedial nucleus is stimulated by leptin

Answer 78

1. Hypoxia measured by the carotid body: CN IX 2. Motor information for swallowing: CN IX & X 3. Blood pressure from the aortic arch: CN X 4. Salivation from the sublingual glands: CN VII 5. Salivation from the parotid gland: CN IX 6. Blood pressure from the carotid: CN IX

Answer 79

1. Cushing Syndrome: Increased Cortisol 2. Conn Syndrome: Increased Aldosterone 3. Addison Disease: Decreased Aldosterone & Decreased Cortisol

Answer 80

1. anapylactic shock: Epinephrine 2. Cardiogenic shock: Dobutamine 3. Septic shock: Norepinephrine

Answer 81

1. MEN 2a 2. MEN 2b 3. Medullary & Papillary Thyroid carcinoma

Answer 82

1. Sympathetic agonist - Epinephrine 2. Cholinergic antagonist - Atropine

Answer 83

1. Treat pituitary excess - Acromegaly, Tumors secreting TSH or ACTH 2. Treat GI endocrine excess - Carcinoid syndrome, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, VIPoma, Glucagonoma, Insulinoma 3. Treat Diarrhea 4. Reduce splanchnic blood circulation - cirrhosis w/ bleeding esophageal varices, bleeding peptic ulcers

Answer 84

Struma Ovarii

Answer 85

1. Extremely tender thyroid gland: Subacute (De Quervain) Thyroiditis 2. Palpation of single thyroid nodule: Toxic thyroid adenoma 3. Palpation of multiple thyroid nodules: Toxic multinodular goiter 4. Recent study using IV contrast dye (iodine): Jod-Basedow Phenomenon 5. Eye changes (proptosis, edema, injection): Graves disease

Answer 86

Oligodendroglia: Located in CNS and can myelinate many axons Schwann Cells: Located in PNS and can myelinate only one axon

Answer 87

Anterior 2/3: 1. Sensation: V3 2. Taste: VII Posterior 1/3: 1. Sensation: IX 2. Taste: IX (X senses tast at the most posterior part of the tongue)

Answer 88

Hypothyrodism most commonly caused by Hashimoto's Thyroiditis

Answer 89

Pleomorphic Adenoma

Answer 90

1. Frontal sinus 2. Maxillary sinus 3. Ethmoid sinus 4. Sphenoidal sinus

Answer 91

1. Dopamine: Treat shock 2. Clonidine: Treat hypertension (especially in hypertensive emergencies), treat renal disease 3. Amphetamine: Treat ADHD, cause weight loss, treat daytime sleepiness, treat narcolepsy, treat major depressive disorder 4. Terbutaline: Treat asthma, treat tocolysis (it decreases uterine contractility) 5. Epinephrine: Treat anaphylactic shock

Answer 92

1. Neuromuscular junction 2. Autonomic ganglion

Answer 93

1. 1st pouch: Mastoid air cells, middle ear cavity, eustachian tubes 2. 2nd pouch: Lining of the palatine tonsil 3. 3rd pouch: Thymus, inferior parathyroids 4. 4th pouch: Superior parathyroids

Answer 94

1. Bronchospasm 2. Bradycardia 3. Depression of myocardial contractility (may trigger CHF) 4. Increase blood glucose 5. Mask sympathetic symptoms of hypoglycemia

Answer 95

1. Beta-blocker (propranolol) 2. Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blocker (Diltiazem) 3. Treat hyperthyroidism (Methimazole, radioactive iodine etc.)

Answer 96

Pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC)

Answer 97

Recombination activating gene complexes (RAG) -\> RAG-1 & RAG-2

Answer 98

Type 1: Bone, tendon, dentin, skin, fascia, cornea Type 2: Cartilage, vitreous body Type 3: Blood vessels, granulation tissue, uterus, fetal tissue Type 4: Basement membrane

Answer 99

Digoxin (Cardiac glycoside): Mostly used in CHF but can be used to control atrial fibrillation

Answer 100

1. UGA: "U Go Away" 2. UAA: "U Are Away" 3. UAG: "U Are Gone"

Answer 101

Alpha-amanitin: Found in Amanita Phalloides (Death Cap mushrooms)

Answer 102

1. Serine 2. Threonine 3. Asparagine

Answer 103

1. Typical neuroleptics - Thioridazine & Chlorpromazine 2. 1st generation antihistamines - Diphenhydramine & Hydroxazine 3. Tricyclic Antidepressants - Amytriptyline 4. Amantadine

Answer 104

It differentiates between pituitary ACTH production and ectopic ACTH production 1. Normal individuals: Low dose Dexamethasone = Cortisol suppression 2. Ectopic ACTH-producing tumor or Cortisol-producing Adrenal tumor: Low & high Dexamethasone = Cortisol remains high 3. ACTH-producing Pituitary tumor: High dose Dexamethasone = Cortisol suppression

Answer 105

1. Blood, alveoli, intestines: Macrophages 2. Connective tissue: Histiocytes 3. Liver: Kupffer cells 4. Kidney: Mesangial cells 5. Brain: Microglia 6. Bone: Osteoclasts

Answer 106

Cyclins and Cyclin Dependent Kinases (CDKs)

Answer 107

1. Leucine zipper 2. Helix-turn-helix 3. Helix-loop-helix 4. Zinc finger

Answer 108

1. Howell Jolly Bodies within RBCs 2. Target cells 3. Thrombocytosis

Answer 109

RNA polymerase I: Transcribes rRNA RNA polymerase II: Transcribes mRNA RNA polymerase III: Transcribes tRNA

Answer 110

Alpha 1-Antitrypsin deficiency - Leads to emphysema in a young patient

Answer 111

1. Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase 2. Peptidyltransferase

Answer 112

1. Th1: IL-2, IFN-gamma 2. Th2: IL-4, IL-5, IL-10, IL-13

Answer 113

Perforin and Granzymes

Answer 114

Type III most commonly

Answer 115

UGA, UAA, UAG

Answer 116

1. Amphetamine, Ephedrine, Tyramine 2. Cocaine, Tricyclic antidepressants

Answer 117

1. Antimitochondrial antibodies: **Primary biliary cirrhosis** 2. Antiplatelet antibodies: **Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)** 3. Newborn with chronic diarrhea, failure to thrive and chronic Candida: **Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)** 4. Child with eczema, course facial features, and cold abscesses: **Hyperimmunoglobulin E syndrome** 5. Child with partial albinism, peripheral neruopathy, and recurrent infections: **Chediak-Higashi Disease**

Answer 118

1. Estrogen, progesterone, testosterone, aldosterone, vitamin D, T3 & T4, Glucocorticoids 2. Insulin, insulin-like growth factor (IGF-1), Fibroblast growth factor (FGF), platelet derived growth factor, prolactin, growth hormone

Answer 119

1. Brittle bones with multiple fractures 2. Hearing loss 3. Blue sclera 4. Dental problems

Answer 120

Infliximab and Adalimumab *Etanercept inhibits TNF but is a decoy receptor, not and antibody*

Answer 121

1. 5' cap 2. 3' poly-A tail 3. Removal of introns (splicing)

Answer 122

1. Ritonavir and NRTIs (especially Didanosine) 2. NNRTIs and Abacavir (hypersensitivity) 3. Didanosine 4. NNRTIs (except Abacavir)

Answer 123

Sensitized T-lymphocytes come across antigen and release lymphokines. This is T-cell mediated delayed type hypersensitivity

Answer 124

1. ACE inhibitors: **Renal damage** 2. Folate antagonists: **Neural tube defects** 3. Tetracyclines: **Discolored teeth** 4. Lithium: **Ebstein anomaly (a congenital heart defect in which the septal leaflet of the tricuspid valve is displaced towards the apex of the right ventricle of the heart)**

Answer 125

1. CD4: Helper T cells 2. CD14: Macrophages 3. CD16: Macrophages & NK cells 4. CD19: B cells 5. CD3: All T cells except NK cells 6. CD8: Cytotoxic T cells

Answer 126

1. Ipratropium: **Asthma & COPD** 2. Atropine, homatropine, tropicamide: **Induce mydriasis** 3. Benztropine: **Parkinsons Disease** 4. Scopolamine: **Motion sickness**

Answer 127

1. Hyperacute: Preformed anti-donor antibodies. Occurs within minutes 2. Acute: Cell-mediated immunity. Occurs within weeks 3. Chronic: Antibody-mediated vascular damage. Occurs in months/years

Answer 128

1. Asymptomatic midline neck mass 2. Moves with swallowing 3. \< age 30 4. Can become infected so removal is indicated

Answer 129

Nonspecific for infection, inflammation, and neoplasm but especially occurs in the following: 1. Osteomyelitis 2. Polymyalgia rheumatica 3. Temporal arteritis 4. Rheumatoid diseases

Answer 130

Competitive antagonist shifts the curve to the right, increasing the Km (decreasing potency) without changing the Vmax (efficacy) Noncompetitive antagonist shifts the curve down, decreasing the Vmax (efficacy) without affecting the Km (potency)

Answer 131

1. Anti-TSH receptor antibodies: **Graves Disease** 2. Antimitochondrial antibodies: **Primary biliary cirrhosis** 3. Anticentromere antibodies: **CREST scleroderma** 4. Antihistone antibodies: **Drug-induced lupus** 5. Anti-smooth muscle antibodies: **Autoimmune hepatitis**

Answer 132

D1, B1, B2, V2, H2

Answer 133

1. Derivative of 6-mercaptopurine: **Azathioprine** 2. Causes phocomelia (malformation of the limbs): **Thalidomide** 3. Nephrotoxic in 75% of patients: **Cyclosporine** 4. Side effect: acne, osteoporosis, HTN, hyperglycemia, immunosuppression-\>infection: **Glucocorticoids** 5. Inhibits secretion of IL-2 and other cytokines: **Tacrolimus & Cyclosporine** 6. Alkylating agent that requires bioactivation in liver: **Cyclophosphamide** 7. Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase: **Methotrexate**

Answer 134

Phenoxybenzamine or Phentolamine

Answer 135

1. 5' cap 2. 3' poly A tail 3. Removal of introns

Answer 136

Flumazenil

Answer 137

Auerbach plexus (Myenteric plexus): Outer layer of the muscularis externa Meissner's plexus: Submucosa

Answer 138

Job (Hyper IgE) syndrome: No response to IFN-gamma stimuli

Answer 139

CEA: Less specific as it is elevated w/ gastric and colon cancer CA 19-9: More specific

Answer 140

Spleen 1. B cells: White matter follicles 2. T cells: Periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS) Lymph node 1. B cells: Cortex follicles 2. T cells: Paracortex

Answer 141

1. -ane: **Inhaled anesthetics** 2. -azine: **Phenothiazine neuroleptics** 3. -tidine: **H2 blockers** 4. -tropin: **Pituitary hormones** 5. -chol: **Cholinergic agonists** 6. -bendazole: **Antihelminthic** 7. -azepam: **Benzodiazepines** 8. -conazole: **Azole antifungals** 9. -triptyline: **Tricyclic antidepressants** 10. -zosin: **Alpha 1 blockers** 11. -stigmine: **Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors** 12. -dipine: **Dihydropyridine Ca channel blockers**

Answer 142

It will decrease Vmax (efficacy) without affecting the KM (potency)

Answer 143

Struma Ovarii

Answer 144

Anti-dsDNA & Anti-Smith antibodies

Answer 145

1. Stomach: **Celiac nodes** 2. Duodenum, jejunum: **Superior mesenteric nodes** 3. Sigmoid colon: **Colic nodes** 4. Rectum: **Iliac lymph nodes -\> Inferior mesenteric lymph nodes** 5. Testes: **Para-aortic nodes** 6. Scrotum: **Superficial inguinal nodes**

Answer 146

1. Loss of the myenteric (Auerbach) plexus -\> Lower esophageal sphincter is unable to relax 2. Diagnosed with a barium swallow (shows bird beak sign) or manometry (measures pressure in the esophagus)

Answer 147

1. Neostigmine: Treatment for Myasthenia Gravis, Ileus, and urine retention 2. Pyridostigmine: Treatment for Myasthenia Gravis (Longer half life than edrophonium and neostigmine) 3. Physostigmine: Treatment for Glaucoma 4. Echothiophate: Treatment for Glaucoma 5. Edrophonium: Diagnosing Myasthenia Gravis

Answer 148

This is DiGeorge Syndrome which results in aplasia of the thymus. This is caused by a failure of the endodermal pouches to develop

Answer 149

1. Minus 25 TATA box (Hogness box) and Minus 75 CAAT box 2. Decreases the amount of gene transcribed

Answer 150

1. Slippery = Type II = Cartilage & vitreous body 2. Bloody = Type III = Blood vessels, granulation tissue, skin, uterus, fetal tissue

Answer 151

* 2 feet from ileocecal valve * 2 inches in size * presents \< age 2 * Affects 2% of the population * 2 types of ectopic tissue (Gastric and pancreatic epithelium)

Answer 152

1. Beta 1: **Increase** 2. Beta 2: **Increase (vasodilation causes reflex tachycardia)** 3. Muscarinic 2: **Decrease**

Answer 153

Proton pump inhibitors Sporadic gastrinoma - surgical resection Metastatic gastrinoma - Somatostatin analogs, interferon, chemotherapy, radiotherapy

Answer 154

1. Gastroduodenal artery: Gives rise to the right gastro-omental (gastroepiploic) artery and anterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery 2. Right Gastric artery 3. Proper Hepatic artery

Answer 155

Enterochromaffin-like cells (ECL cells)

Answer 156

1. Non-biliary projectile vomiting 2. Palpable olive-like bulge on abdominal exam 3. Metabolic alkalosis (hypokalemic, hypochloremic) 4. Age 2-6 weeks old 5. Males \> Female (often 1st born male) 6. Dehydration

Answer 157

1. Rna Polymerase I: Makes rRNA 2. Rna Polymerase II: Makes mRNA 3. Rna Polymerase III: Makes tRNA

Answer 158

Zero order

Answer 159

^G = ^H - t^S

Answer 160

1. Glossitis 2. Iron deficiency anemia 3. Dysphagia due to esophageal web

Answer 161

Methanol is metabolized to formaldehyde which causes metabolic acidosis and retinal damage/blindness

Answer 162

Type V Glycogen Storage Disorder (McArdles Disease)

Answer 163

1. Fava beans 2. Sulfa drugs 3. Primaquine 4. Isoniazid 5. High-dose aspirin 6. Ibuprofen 7. Nitrofurantoin 8. Dapsone 9. Naphthalene

Answer 164

1. Vd = Amount of IV substance given / concentration in serum 2. Clearance = (0.7 x Vd) / t1/2 3. Loading dose = Concentration at steady state x Vd 4. Maintainance dose = Concentration at steady state x Clearance

Answer 165

1. Blunted (shortened) Villi 2. Hyperplastic (deepened) Crypts 3. Lymphocytes in the lamina propria

Answer 166

1. "Tender Loving Care For No-one" * Thiamine Pyrophosphate * Lipoic Acid * CoA (Vitamin B5 or Pantothenic acid) * FAD (Vitamin B2 or Riboflavin) * NAD (Vitamin B3 or Niacin) 2. Alpha-Ketoglutarate Dehydrogenase

Answer 167

Bromocriptine or Cabergoline

Answer 168

"**HOT** **T-BONE** st**EA**k" IL-1: **Pyrogen** that causes fever and mediates acute inflammation IL-2: **T**-cell stimulation IL-3: **Bone** marrow stimulation IL-4: Stimulates Ig**E** IL-5: Stimulates Ig**A** and Eosinophils

Answer 169

1. Neutrophils fail to respond to chemotactic stimuli: **Job Syndrome (Hyper IgE syndrome) or Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency Syndrome** 2. Adenosine deaminase deficiency: **Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)** 3. Failure of endodermal development: **DiGeorge Syndrome** 4. Defective Tyrosine Kinas gene: **Bruton Agammaglobulinemia** 5. Associated with high levels of IgE: **Job (Hyper IgE) Syndrome - also associated with high levels of eosinophils**

Answer 170

_Hexokinase_ 1. Not induced by insulin 2. Low Km 3. Low Vmax 4. Located throughout the body _Glucokinase_ 1. Induced by insulin 2. High Km 3. High Vmax 4. Located throughout the body

Answer 171

1. Protease inhibitors: Inhibit viral assembly, blocks the protease enzyme from cleaving viral proteins into their component structures 2. Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors: Nucleoside analogs that competitively inhibit reverse transcriptase, preventing downstream incorporation of viral genome into the host DNA 3. Non-Nucleotide Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors: Noncompetitive, irreversible inhibition or reverse transcriptase, preventing downstream incorporation of viral genome into the host DNA 4. Fusion Inhibitors: Bind viral protein gp41 and inhibit viral fusion with CD4 cells

Answer 172

Crohns Disease

Answer 173

1. It will raise the Km (decrease the potency) 2. It will not affect the Vmax (no change in efficacy)

Answer 174

1. Stress -\> increased sympathetic tone -\> activation of hormone-sensitive Triglyceride lipase in fat cells -\> rapid breakdown of TGs and mobilization of fatty acids 2. Stress -\> Anterior pituitary release of ACTH -\> Adrenal cortex secretes more glucocorticoids -\> Stimulates lipase

Answer 175

1. RBC hemolysis 2. Neurological defects

Answer 176

1. C5a 2. Leukotriene B4 3. IL-8 4. Kallikrein

Answer 177

1. Hydrogen/potassium ATPase 2. Omeprazole, Lansoprazole, Pantoprazole, Esomeprazole

Answer 178

Lactulose: Treats encephalopathy by reducing ammonia Vitamin K: To maximize clotting potential Diuretics: To reduce ascites/edema Beta-blockers: To prevent bleeding from esophageal varices

Answer 179

1. _Lack NADPH oxidase activity_ * Phagocytes can engulf bacteria but cannot generate free radicals * Impotent phagocytes 2. _Susceptibility to opportunistic infections_ * S. Aureus * Samonella * Klebsiella * Aspergillus

Answer 180

1. IgE 2. IL-5

Answer 181

1. Papillary Carcinoma 2. Follicular Carcinoma 3. Medullary Carcinoma

Answer 182

1. Steatorrhea 2. GI discomfort 3. Reduced absorption of fat-soluble vitamins

Answer 183

1. Left gastric 2. Splenic 3. Common hepatic * Gastroduodenal * Anterior Superior Pancreaticoduodenal * Right Gastro-omental (Right Gastroepiploic) * Right Gastric * Proper Hepatic

Answer 184

Kwashiorkor (skin/hair depigmentation is a major clue)

Answer 185

1. Fructose intolerance: **Aldolase B** 2. Essential fructoseuria: **Fructosuria** 3. Classic galactosemia: **Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl/transferase**

Answer 186

CN III, IV, V₁, V₂, VI

Answer 187

1. Phenylalanine Hydroxylase 2. Tyrosine Hydroxylase 3. Dihydropterin Reductase

Answer 188

1. Dopamine: **Homovanyllic Acid (HVA)** 2. Norepinephrine: **Vanillyl Mandelic Acid (VMA)** 3. Epinephrine: **Metanephrine**

Answer 189

Glutamate + B6

Answer 190

Km is inversely proportional to potency Vmax is directly proportional to efficacy

Answer 191

1. Vd = (Amount given in IV form)/(Serum concentration) 2. CL = (0.7 x Vd)/(t1/2) 3. LD = Css x Vd 4. MD = Css x CL

Answer 192

1. Phenylalanine Hydroxylase 2. Symptoms * Musty body odor * Growth retardation * Mental retardation * Seizures * Eczema * Fair skin

Answer 193

1. Glycolysis: **Phophofructokinase** 2. Gluconeogenesis: **Fructose-1,6-Bisphosphatase** 3. TCA cycle: **Isocitrate Dehydrogenase** 4. Glycogen synthesis: **Glycogen Synthase** 5. Glycogenolysis: **Glycogen Phosphorylase**

Answer 194

1. Lactic acidosis is a rare but worrisome side effect: **Biguanide (Metformin)** 2. Most common side effect is hypoglycemia: **Sulfonylureas (Glipizide, Glyburide, Glimepiride)** 3. MOA: Closes K+ channel on -\> cells -\> depolarization -\> Ca2+ influx -\> insulin release: **Sulfonylureas (Glipizide, Glyburide, Glimepiride)** 4. MOA: Inhibits Alpha-Glucosidase at intestinal brush border: **Alpha-glucosidase Inhibitors (Acarbose & Miglitol)** 5. MOA: Agonist at PPAR-gamma receptors: **Thiazolidinediones (Rosiglitazone & Pioglitazone)**

Answer 195

_Antacids_ 1. Aluminum Hydroxide 2. Magnesium Hydroxide 3. Calcium Carbonate

Answer 196

Factors II, VII, IX, X and Protein C & S

Answer 197

1. Phenytoin 2. Ethanol 3. Aspirin

Answer 198

1. Alcohol dehydrogenase 2. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase

Answer 199

1. Anti-endomysial: **Celiac Disease** 2. Anti-Thyroglobulin: **Hashimotos Thyroiditis** 3. Anti-Smooth Muscle: **Autoimmune hepatitis**

Answer 200

Acute intermittent porphyria

Answer 201

1. Antibody and T cell mediated vascular damage 2. Months to years after transplant

Answer 202

1. Slightly polar/water soluble metabolite 2. Very polar, inactive metabolite 3. Hydrolysis, Oxidation, and Reduction 4. Glucuronidation, Sulfation, and Acetylation

Answer 203

Brain & RBCs

Answer 204

PEP\>ATP\>AMP

Answer 205

1. Location: **CPS I is in the mitochondria, CPS II is in the cytosol** 2. Pathway: **CPS I is in the urea pathway, CPS II is in the pyrimidine synthesis pathway** 3. Nitrogen Source: **CPS I gets nitrogen from ammonia, CPS II gets nitrogen from Glutamine**

Answer 206

Porphyria Cutanea Tarda

Answer 207

Aminolevulinic Acid Synthase which catalyzes The following reaction: Glycine + Succinyl CoA -\> Delta-Aminolevulinic Acid

Answer 208

1. Ferrochelatase 2. ALA Dehydratase

Answer 209

Angiodysplasia

Answer 210

Living in Arsenic-rich regions and ingesting arsenic in ground water (occurs over many years of exposure)

Answer 211

1. Ubiquitin protein ligase 2. Lysosome 3. Calcium-dependent enzymes

Answer 212

Zidovudine (AZT)

Answer 213

EDTA or Succimer in an adult or child (Dimercaprol can be used in a child in severe toxicity)

Answer 214

Peptidyl Transferase

Answer 215

"HALT" 1. HbC 2. Asplenia 3. Liver disease 4. Thalassemia

Answer 216

M**_a_**croangiopathic anemia

Answer 217

1. Kaposi Sarcoma 2. Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma 3. Invasive Squamous Cell cancer 4. CNS lymphoma

Answer 218

Von Willebrand Disease

Answer 219

Marginal cell lymphoma * Outside the lymph nodes * Chronically inflamed tissues

Answer 220

1. Type II: Antibodies bind to self antigens on the surface of cells. Damage is carried out by complement and macrophages 2. Type III: Antibodies bind to soluble antigens found in circulation and interstitium and form Ab-Ag complexes that get deposited in tissues

Answer 221

1. GERD, Barret's espohagus, smoking, obesity, nitrosamines 2. Smoking, alcohol, nitrosamines, pre-existing esophageal pathology (Achalasia, esophageal web, strictures)

Answer 222

1. Hypoxanthine Guanine Phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT) 2. Allopurinol

Answer 223

1. Delayed wound healing 2. Decreased body/facial hair 3. Hypogonadism 4. Anosmia 5. Dysgeusia (dysfunction of the sense of taste)

Answer 224

1. Anti-mitochondrial: **Primary biliary cirrhosis** 2. Anti-TSH receptor: **Graves disease** 3. Anti-centromere: **CREST Scleroderma** 4. Anti-Basement membrane: **Goodpastures syndrome** 5. Anti-neutrophil: * **c-ANCA: Wegener Granulomatosis** * **p-ANCA: Microscopic polyangiitis & Churg-Strauss Syndrome** * **MPO-ANCA: Pauci-immune crescentic glomerulonephritis**

Answer 225

1. Pleomorphic Adenoma 2. Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma 3. Parotid Gland

Answer 226

1. Promotes B cell growth and differentiation: **IL-4 & IL-5** 2. Produced by Th1 cells: **IFN-gamma & IL-2** 3. Produced by Th2 cells: **IL-4, IL-5 & IL-10** 4. Secreted by helper T cells and activates macrophages: **IFN-gamma**

Answer 227

1. Pyrogens secreted by monocytes and macrophages: **IL-1, IL-6, & TNF-alpha** 2. Enhances synthesis of IgE and IgG: **IL-4** 3. Enhances synthesis of IgA: **IL-5** 4. Released by virally infected cells: **IFN-alpha & IFN-beta**

Answer 228

Vitamin C deficiency (Scurvy)

Answer 229

1. Lead lines 2. Anemia 3. Abdominal pain 4. Diarrhea & Nausea 5. Encephalopathy 6. Wrist drop or foot drop

Answer 230

1. Asthma: **Type I** 2. Tuberculosis skin test: **Type IV** 3. Allergies, anaphylaxis, and hay fever: **Type I** 4. ABO-blood type incompatibility: **Type II** 5. Poison ivy: **Type IV** 6. Eczema: **Type I** 7. Goodpasture syndrome: **Type II**

Answer 231

Vitamin B3 deficiency (These symptoms are characteristic of Pellagra: Dermatitis/rash, diarrhea, and dementia/altered mental status)

Answer 232

Fluoroquinolones

Answer 233

1. Internal vs external hemorrhoids 2. Adenocarcinoma vs squamous carcinoma

Answer 234

1. 32 (Malate shuttle) or 30 (G-3-P shuttle) ATP 2. 2 ATP

Answer 235

Alcohol dehydrogenase

Answer 236

_Kwashiorkor_ 1. Protein malnutrition 2. Skin lesions, edema, liver malnutrition 3. Small child with swollen belly _Marasmus_ 1. Energy malnutrition 2. Complete nutrient deficiency 3. Tissue muscle wasting 4. Loss of subcutaneous fat

Answer 237

Children and pregnant women (Concern for cartilage damage)

Answer 238

II, VII, IX, X Protein C & S are also dependent on vitamin K but these are anticoagulation factors

Answer 239

Increased vascular permeability Vasodilation Increased pain

Answer 240

Aldose reductase Glucose -{Aldose Reductase}\> Sorbitol -{Sorbitol Dehydrogenase}\> Fructose

Answer 241

1. Chagas disease: **Trypanasoma cruzi** 2. Protozoal vaginitis: **Trichomonas vaginalis** 3. Malaria: **Plasmodium** 4. Birth defects: **Toxoplasma gondii** 5. Bloody diarrhea: **Entamoeba Histolytica** 6. Foul-smelling diarrhea, flatulence, bloating: **Giardia lamblia**

Answer 242

Graft-vs-host disease

Answer 243

1. Septal nucleus (plays a role in reward and reinforcement along with the nucleus accumbens) 2. Mamillary bodies (involved with the processing of recognition memory) 3. Fornix: (carries signals from the hippocampus to the hypothalamus) 4. Hippocampus: (plays important roles in the consolidation of information from short-term memory to long-term memory and spatial navigation) 5. Cingulate Gyrus: (highly influential in linking behavioral outcomes to motivation)

Answer 244

**Gilbert Syndrome**: The most common hereditary cause of increased bilirubin and is found in up to 5% of the population. A major characteristic is jaundice, supposedly caused by elevated levels of unconjugated bilirubin in the bloodstream. The cause of this hyperbilirubinemia is the _reduced activity of the enzyme glucuronyltransferase_, which conjugates bilirubin and a few other lipophilic molecules

Answer 245

t1/2 = (0.7 x Vd)/CL

Answer 246

1. Lithium 2. Digoxin 3. Warfarin 4. Phenobarbital

Answer 247

1. Considered the "master clock" for most of our circadian rythms: **Suprachiasmatic Nucleus** 2. Regulates the parasympathetic NS: **Anterior Nucleus & Preoptic Nucleus** 3. Regulates the sympathetic NS: **Posterior Nucleus & Lateral Nucleus** 4. Produces antidiuretic hormone (ADH) to regulate water balance: **Supraoptic Nucleus** 5. Mediates oxytocin production: **Paraventricular Nucleus** 6. Regulates the release of gonadotropic hormones (i.e. LH & FSH): **Preoptic Nucleus**

Answer 248

1. Freshwater snails: **Schistosoma** 2. Ixodes Tick: **Babesia (Also Borrelia Burgdorferi)** 3. Reduviid bug: **Trypanasoma Cruzi** 4. Anopheles mosquito: **Plasmodium** 5. Sandfly: **Leishmania donovani** 6. Tsetse fly: **Trypanasoma brucei**

Answer 249

1. Loop diuretics 2. Thiazide diuretics 3. Acetazolamide 4. Celecoxib 5. Probenecid 6. Sulfonamides

Answer 250

1. Eyelid opeing: **CN III** 2. Taste from the anterior 2/3s of the tongue: **CN VII** 3. Head turning: **CN XI** 4. Tongue movement: **CN XII** 5. Muscles of mastication: **CN V** 6. Balance: **CN VIII** 7. Monitoring the carotid body and sinus chemo/baro-receptors: **CN IX**

Answer 251

1. Displayed only by helper T cells: **CD4** 2. Displayed only by cytotoxic T cells (and Suppressor T cells): **CD8** 3. Found on all T cells (except NK cells): **CD3 (Also CD2)** 4. Used to ID B cells: **CD19, CD20, CD21** 5. Found on all NK cells and binds the constant region of IgG: **CD16** 6. Inhibits complement C9 binding: **CD55, CD59** 7. Endotoxin receptor found on macrophages: **CD14**

Answer 252

1. Gp IIb/IIIa 2. Gp Ib

Answer 253

1. Host as a hare: Increased temperature 2. Red as a beet: Peripheral vasodilation 3. Dry as a bone: Decreased secretions/salivation 4. Mad as a hatter: Agitation & Delirium 5. Blind as a bat: Mydriasis/cycloplegia 6. Bloated as a toad: Constipation and urinary retention

Answer 254

1. PSA: **Prostate** 2. AFP: **Hepatocellular carcinoma and Yolk sac tumors** 3. CA 125: **Ovarian cancer** 4. Elevated alk phos: **Metastasis to bone** 5. CEA: **Pancreas, colorectal, stomach, and breast cancer** 6. Beta-hCG: **Choriocarcinoma & Hydatidiform mole** 7. S100: **Astrocytoma**

Answer 255

1. Giardia, Entamoeba, Trichomonas: **Metronidazole** 2. Plasmodium vivax or ovale: **Chloroquine + Primaquine** 3. Most flukes and tapeworms: **Praziquantel** 4. Hookworm, pinworm, roundworm: **Benzoamidazoles (Mebendazole) or Pyrantel Pamoate**

Answer 256

1. a1: **Gq** 2. a2: **Gi** 3. B1: **Gs** 4. B2: **Gs** 5. M1: **Gq** 6. M2: **Gi** 7. M3: **Gq** 8. D2: **Gi**

Answer 257

1. Treatment for choriocarcinoma: **Methotrexate, Vincristine, Vinblastine** 2. Treament for AML: **Cytarabine** 3. Treatment for CML: **Imatinib** 4. Prevents breast cancer: **Tamoxifen** 5. Treatment for testicular cancer: **Bleomycin, Etoposide, Cisplatin, Ifosfamide**

Answer 258

1. Glutamine PrPP Aminotransferase 2. Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase 2

Answer 259

1. _Painless lymphadenopathy_ 2. B symptoms - Fever, weight loss, night sweats

Answer 260

1. 32 ATP (Malate shuttle) or 30 ATP (G-3-P Shuttle) 2. 2 ATP

Answer 261

Do you eat a lot of carrots? This is carotenemia: Excess beta-carotene in the body due to eating too many carrots

Answer 262

1. FSH 2. LH 3. TSH 4. cCG

Answer 263

1. Case control: Retrospective observational study starting with a disease and looking for exposure - Uses OR 2. Cohort: Retro- or prospective observational study starting with an exposure and looking for disease - Uses RR 3. Clinical trial: Prospective interventional study

Answer 264

1. ACTH -\> Cushing Syndrome: **Small cell lung cancer** 2. PTH-related peptide -\> Hypercalcemia: **Squamous cell lung cancer, Renal cell lung cancer, Breast cancer** 3. Erythropoietin -\> Polycythemia: **Renal cell carcinoma, Hepatocellular carcinoma, hemangioblastoma, pheochromocytoma** 4. ADH -\> SIADH: **Small cell lung cancer**

Answer 265

Procedure bias

Answer 266

_Charcot's triad_ 1. Jaundice 2. RUQ pain 3. Fever + Hypotension and Altered mental status

Answer 267

"**K**enytoin **R**ides **S**hotgun in **B**arbie's **G**irl **C**ar" 1. Phenytoin 2. Rifampin 3. St. Johns Wort 4. Barbituates 5. Griseofulvin 6. Carbamazepine

Answer 268

1. 68% 2. 95% 3. 99.7%

Answer 269

CI = Mean +/- Z(SEM) SEM = Standard deviation/ sqrt(n)

Answer 270

SEM = SD/sqrt(n) = .5/100 = .005 CI = MEan +/- Z(SEM) -\> CI₉₉ = 8 +/- 2.5(.005) = 8 +/- .0125

Answer 271

1. Hypotension, Skin hyperpigmentation, weakness, malaise, anorexia, weightloss 2. Autoimmune disease causing adrenal atrophy -\> decreased aldosterone and cortisol

Answer 272

Doxorubicin & Daunorubicin

Answer 273

68%/2 + 95%/2 = **81.5%**

Answer 274

1. Exacerbation of asthma, hyperglycemia (mask Sx of hypoglycemia), bradycardia, AV block, CHF 2. Asthmatics, Diabetics, uncontrolled CHF

Answer 275

1. Mean = 232, Median = 229, Mode = 225 2. Positive skew

Answer 276

_Multiple Myeloma_ 1. Monoclonal antibody spike on UPEP and SPEP 2. Bence Jones proteins in urine 3. Hypercalcemia 4. Rouleaux formation 5. Elevated BUN and Creatinine 6. Lytic bone lesions on skeletal X-rays

Answer 277

1. Leukemia 2. Diabetic Ketoacidosis

Answer 278

This is CML and it is treated with Imatinib

Answer 279

1. Ovarian cancer: **CA-125** 2. Hepatocellular cancer (Hep B and C patients): **Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)** 3. Pancreatic cancer: **CA 19-9 (also CEA but less specific)** 4. Melanoma: **S100** 5. Colon cancer: **CEA** 6. Astrocytoma: **S100**

Answer 280

1. Most common type of thyroid cancer (70-75%): **Papillary carcinoma** 2. Second most common type of thyroid cancer (10%): **Follicular carcinoma** 3. Activation of receptor tyrosine kinases: **Papillary & Medullary carcinoma** 4. Hashimoto thyroiditis is a risk factor: **Lymphoma** 5. Cancer arising from parafollicular (C) cells: **Medullary carcinoma**

Answer 281

_Brain: "Lots of Bad Stuff Kills Glia"_ 1. Lung 2. Breast 3. Skin cancer (melanoma) 4. Kidney (Renal cell carcinoma) 5. GI tract tumors _Liver: "Cancer Sometimes Penetrates Benign Liver"_ 1. Colon 2. Stomach 3. Pancreas 4. Breast 5. Lung _Bone: "Permanently Relocated Tumors Totally Like Long Bones"_ 1. Prostate 2. Renal cell carcinoma 3. Thyroid 4. Testes 5. Lymphoma 6. Lung 7. Breast

Answer 282

_Sleep_ 1. Decreased REM 2. Decreased slow wave sleep 3. Increased sleep latency 4. Increased nighttime wakening _Sexual anatomy_ 1. Men: Increased refractory period, slower erection, slower ejaculation 2. Women: Vaginal atrophy (shortening, thinning, and dryness)

Answer 283

1. Rectum: **Internal iliac nodes** 2. External anus: **Superficial inguinal nodes** 3. Testes: **Para-aortic nodes (via the superficial & deep plexuses)** 4. Scrotum: **Superficial inguinal nodes**

Answer 284

Beta-Hydroxybutyrate

Answer 285

1. Fragments DNA, toxicity -\> Pulmonary fibrosis: **Bleomycin** 2. Blocks purine synthesis, metabolized by xanthine oxidase: **6-Mercaptopurine** 3. Folic acid analog that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase: **Methotrexate** 4. Prevents tubulin disassembly: **Paclitaxel, taxols** 5. DNA alkylating agents used in brain cancer: **Nitrosoureas** 6. SERMs - block estrogen binding to ER (+) cells: **Tamoxifen, Raloxifene**

Answer 286

Th1: IL-2, IFN-gamma Th2: IL-4, IL-5, IL-10

Answer 287

After they reach 4'9" (usually around age 8-12)

Answer 288

1. Diarrhea in campers and hikers: **Giardia** 2. Itchy vaginitis: **Trichomonas** 3. Sandfly vector: **Leishmania** 4. Ixodes tick is the vector: **Babesia & Borrelia Burgdorferi** 5. Anopheles mosquito is the vector: **Plasmodium**

Answer 289

1. Sodium stibogluconate is the treatment: **Leishmania** 2. Suramin or melarsoprol is the treatment: **Trypanasoma** 3. Maltese cross seen in RBCs: **Babesia** 4. Treat with metronidazole: **Giardia, Entamoeba, Trichmonas** 5. Severe diarrhea in AIDS patients: **Cryptosporidium**

Answer 290

"Death Always Brings Great Acceptance" 1. Denial 2. Anger 3. Bargaining 4. Grief 5. Acceptance

Answer 291

_Pomotion of gastric acid excretion_ 1. Histamine 2. Acetylcholine 3. Gastrin _Inhibition of gastric acid excretion_ 1. Prostaglandins 2. somatostatin 3. secretin 4. GIP _Drugs that regulate secretion_ 1. Proton pump inhibitors 2. H₂ blockers 3. Antimuscarinics

Answer 292

1. -25 TATA box (Hogness box) and the -75 CAAT box 2. Mutations will cause less transcription of genes

Answer 293

1. Medial hypertrophy 2. Fibrosis of the intima 3. Atherosclerosis

Answer 294

1. Urea cycle: **Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase 1 (CPS-I)** 2. Hexose monophosphate shunt: **Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase** 3. Fatty acid synthesis: **Acetyl CoA carboxylase** 4. Beta-oxidation of fatty acids: **Carnitine acyltransferase** 5. Ketone body synthesis: **HMG-CoA Synthase** 6. Cholesterol synthesis: **HMG-CoA Reductase** 7. Bile acid synthesis: **7-alpha Hydroxylase** 8. Heme synthesis: **Aminolevulinate synthase**

Answer 295

Alpha-1 Antitrypsin deficiency

Answer 296

1. Alcoholics with B1 deficiency and neurologic defects: **Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency** 2. Abnormal type I collagen synthesis: **Osteogenesis imperfecta** 3. Heinz bodies: **G6PD deficiency** 4. Must/mousy odor, albinism, mental retardation, and eczema: **Phenylketonuria (PKU)** 5. Hyperextensible skin, loose joints, bleeding tendency: **Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome** 6. Hypoglycemia, jaundice, cirrhosis: **Fructose intolerance** 7. Bloating, cramps, osmotic diarrhea: **Lactose intolerance** 8. Dark brown urine, organs, and connective tissue; benign disease: **Alkaptonuria (benign disease)** 9. Multiple fractures and blue sclera: **Osteogenesis imperfecta**

Answer 297

1. Phase I: **Is it safe?** 2. Phase II: **Does it work?** 3. Phase III: **Does it work better than placebo and gold standard?** 4. Phase IV: **Post-market surveillance**

Answer 298

1. Precursor of 6-Mercaptopurine: **Azothioprine** 2. May prevent nephrotoxicity with mannitol diuresis: **Cyclosporine** 3. Antibody that binds CD3 on T cells: **Muromonab** 4. Antibody that binds IL-2 receptor on activated T cells: **Daclizumab** 5. Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase: **Mycophenolate Mofetil** 6. Inhibits calcineurin -\> Loss of IL-2 production -\> Blockage of T cell differentiation and activation: **Cyclosporine** 7. Metabolized by Xanthine oxidase, therefore allopurinol increases its toxicity: **Azothioprine**

Answer 299

1. Increase B6 2. Increase B12 3. Add folate 4. Increase Cysteine 5. Decrease Methionine

Answer 300

1. Trichomonas vaginalis: **Metronidazole** 2. Trypanosoma Cruzi: **Nifurtimox** 3. Plasmodium vivax: **Chloroquine + Primaquine** 4. Leishmania donovani: **Sodium Stibogluconate (Cutaneous), Amphotericin B (Visceral)** 5. Entamoeba Histolytica: **Metronidazole** 6. Toxoplasma gondii: **Sulfadiazine + Pyrimethamine**

Answer 301

Howell-Jolly Bodies

Answer 302

Cryptococcus Neoformans

Answer 303

1. Direct bilirubin is conjugated with glucuronic acid 2. Indirect bilirubin is unconjugated

Answer 304

1. GP120 inhibited by Maraviroc (via its binding of CCR5) 2. GP41 inhibited by Enfuvirtide

Answer 305

Maple syrup urine disease

Answer 306

1. Opacities seen on x-ray on both sides of the carina: **Sarcoidosis** 2. Dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia, possibly death: **Pellagra (B3 deficiency)** 3. Greenish rings around the periphery of the iris: **Kayser-Fleischer rings seen in Wilson's disease** 4. Elastic skin, joint hypermobility: **Ehlers-Danlos syndrome** 5. Enlarged, hard, left supraclavicular lymph node: **Virchow's node (indicates underlying gastric carcinoma)**

Answer 307

Nitric Oxide

Answer 308

1. Bronchiectasis, Recurrent Sinusitis, Infertility, Also associated with Situs Inversus 2. Dynein arm defect causing primary ciliary dyskinesia

Answer 309

1. Gout + mental retardation + lip-biting: **Lesch Nyhan Syndrome** 2. Lack of GpIIb/IIIa -\> defect in platelets -\> prolonged bleeding: **Glanzmanns thrombasthenia** 3. Anti-histone antibodies: **Drug-induced lupus** 4. Psammoma bodies: **Papillary adenocarcinoma of the thyroid, serous cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary, meningioma, mesothelioma** 5. Lytic bone lesions on X-ray: **Multiple Myeloma**

Answer 310

Sleep apnea-induced erythrocytosis

Answer 311

IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-alpha

Answer 312

It metabolizes them to 2 Acetyl CoA molecules

Answer 313

Rectus abdominus tear (visceral pain would not be this pinpoint)

Answer 314

1. -ane: **Inhaled anesthetics** 2. -azine: **Phenothiazines** 3. -barbital: **Barbituates** 4. -cillin: **Penicillins** 5. -ipramine: **TCAs**

Answer 315

1. -olol: **Beta-blockers** 2. -oxin: **Cardiac glycosides** 3. -pril: **ACE inhibitors** 4. -tidine: **H2 blockers** 5. -tropin: **Pituitary hormones**

Answer 316

1. -dronate: **Bisphosphonates** 2. -chol: **Cholinergic agonists** 3. -mustine: **Nitrosoureas** 4. -statin: **HMG-CoA Reductase inhibitors** 5. -bendazole: **Antihelminthics**

Answer 317

1. Myoglobin & Ferritin 2. Hemoglobin & Transferrin

Answer 318

Sarcoidosis

Answer 319

1. Absence of HGPRTase: **Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome** 2. Deficiency of aldolase B: **Fructose intolerance** 3. Deficiency of cystathionine synthase: **Homocystinuria** 4. Galactose-1-P uridyl transferase deficiency: **Galactosemia** 5. Deficiency of tyrosinase: **Albinism**

Answer 320

1. Decreased NADPH due to lack of HMP enzyme: **G6PD deficiency** 2. Inherited defect in tubular amino acid transporter: **Cystinuria** 3. Deficiency in homogetisic acid oxidase: **Alkaptonuria** 4. Blocked degradation of branched chain amino acids: **Maple Syrup Urine Disease**

Answer 321

Decrease Vmax without affecting Km

Answer 322

Mastitis likely caused by Staph Aureus

Answer 323

This is Chronic Granulomatous Disease caused by a **deficiency of NADPH Oxidase**

Answer 324

1. Mallory bodies: Intra-cytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions 2. Necrosis and swelling of the hepatocytes

Answer 325

_Promote Gastric acid_ 1. Histamine 2. Gastrin 3. Ach (not a hormone) _Inhibit Gastric acid_ 1. Somatostatin 2. Secretin 3. GIP 4. Prostaglandins _Drugs_ 1. H2 blockers 2. Proton pump inhibitors 3. Antimuscarinics

Answer 326

1. Inhibits ACh release -\> Flaccid paralysis: **Botulin toxin** 2. Stimulates adenylate cyclase -\> Cl- and water into gut -\> diarrhea: **Cholera toxin and heat-labile ETEC toxin** 3. Causes scarlet fever: **Erythrogenic and pyogenic toxins of strep pyogenes** 4. Inactivates EF-2 -\> Pseudomembranous pharyngitis: **Diptheria toxin** 5. Blocks the release of the inhibitory neurotransmitter glycine: **Tetanospasmin (Tetanus toxin)**

Answer 327

It regenerates Glutathione

Answer 328

Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency

Answer 329

These are acanthocytes (burr cells) They occur in abetalipoproteinemia, caused by a deficiency in apo B-100 and apo B-48

Answer 330

1. CCK 2. Secretin 3. Ach

Answer 331

1. Mediates adherence of bacteria to the surface of a cell: **Fimbria or pili** 2. Protects against phagocytosis: **Capsule** 3. Space between the inner and outer cellular membranes in Gram (-) bacteria: **Periplasm** 4. Forms attachment between two bacteria during transfer of DNA material (AKA conjugation): **Sex (F) Pilus** 5. Genetic material within bacteria that contains genes for antibiotic resistance: **Plasmid**

Answer 332

_Fetal_ 1. Alpha₂-Gamma₂ 2. Lower affinity for 2,3-DPG 3. Higher affinity for O₂ _Adult_ 1. Alpha₂-Beta₂ 2. Higher affinity for 2,3-BPG 3. Lower affinity for O₂

Answer 333

Basophilic Stippling

Answer 334

1. Lead lines on gums 2. Anemia (Pallor, fatigue, exercise intolerance) 3. Wrist/foot drop 4. Encephalopathy 5. Colicky abdominal pain, diarrhea, nausea

Answer 335

1. Prevents tubulin assembly: **Vincristine/Vinblastine** 2. Inhibits thymidylate synthase -\> decreased nucleotide synthesis: **5-FU** 3. SERM - blocks estrogen binding to ER(+) cells: **Tamoxifen/Raloxifene** 4. Mechanism similar to antivirals acyclovir and foscarnet: **Cytarabine** 5. Mechanism similar to fluoroquinolones: **Etoposide**

Answer 336

1. Mechanism similar to trimethoprim: **Methotrexate** 2. Monoclonal antibody against HER-2 (erb-B2): **Traztuzumab** 3. Free radical-induced DNA strand breakage: **Bleomycin, Doxyrubicin/Daunorubicin** 4. Inhibitor of PRPP synthestase: **6-Mercaptopurine** 5. Reversible with leucovorin: **Methotrexate**

Answer 337

1. Clostridium (perfringens, tetani, botulinum, difficile) 2. Bacillus (cereus, anthracis) 3. Coxiella burnetii

Answer 338

1. Rx: No nutrasweet, increased dietary tyrosine: **Phenylketonuria** 2. Rx: Decreased dietary methionine, increased cystein + B6: **Homocysteinuria** 3. Rx: Acetazolamide to alkalinize urine: **Cystinuria** 4. Rx: Decreased fructose and sucrose intake: **Fructose intolerance** 5. Rx: Increased intake of ketogenic nutrients (fats): **Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency** 6. Rx: Exclude galactose and lactose from diet: **Galactosemia**

Answer 339

Increased susceptibility to TB infection

Answer 340

1. Lactic acidosis is a rare but worrisome side effect: **Metformin** 2. Most common side effect is hypoglycemia: **Sulfonylureas** 3. Primarily effects postprandial hyperglycemia: **Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors** 4. MOA: Closes K+ channel on beta cells which leads to depolarization, Ca2+ influx and then insulin release: **Sulfonylureas** 5. MOA: Inhibits Alpha-glucosidase at the intestinal brush border: **Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors** 6. MOA: agonist at PPAR-gamma receptors which leads to improved target cell response to insulin: **Thiazolidinediones**

Answer 341

Lambert-Eaton Syndrome secondary to small cell lung cancer

Answer 342

1. Clostridium Botulinum 2. Botulin toxin inhibits ACh release

Answer 343

Its not blood, it is red secretions: She was taking Rifampin as prophylaxis for meningitis

Answer 344

1. -azepam:** Benzodiazepines** 2. -azole: **Antifungals** 3. -caine:** Local anesthetics** 4. -cycline: **Tetracycline antibiotics** 5. -navir: **Protease inhibitors**

Answer 345

1. -operidol: **Neuroleptics** 2. -phylline: **Methylxanthines** 3. -terol: **Beta-2 agonists** 4. -triptyline: **TCAs** 5. -zosin: **Alpha-1 blockers**

Answer 346

1. -sartan: **ARBs** 2. -stigmine: **Cholinesterase inhibitors** 3. -curium/-curonium: **Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers** 4. -glitazone: **TZDs** 5. -dipine: **Dihydropyridine Ca channel blockers**

Answer 347

1. Cushingoid features 2. Osteoporosis 3. Immunosuppression 4. Acne 5. Cataracts 6. Peptic ulcers 7. Hypertension 8. Hyperglycemia 9. Insomnia 10. Psychosis

Answer 348

_Fetus_ "Young Livers Synthesize Blood" 1. Yolk sac 2. Liver 3. Spleen 4. Bone _Adult_ 1. Ribs 2. Pelvis 3. Sternum 4. Femur 5. Tibia 6. Vertebrae 7. Cranial bones

Answer 349

_3rd_ 1. Common carotid artery 2. Proximal part of internal carotid artery _4th_ 1. Left: Aortic arch 2. Right: Proximal part of right subclavian artery _6th_ 1. Proximal part of pulmonary arteries 2. Ductus arteriosis

Answer 350

1. Next step in treatment of otitis media if resistant to amoxicillin: **[Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid] or Cefdinir** 2. Prophylaxis against bacterial endocarditis: **Penicillin V, aminopenicillin, or 1st gen cephalosporin** 3. Increases the nephrotoxicity of aminoglycosides: **Cephalosporins** 4. Sufficient for the treatment of syphylis: **Penicillin G** 5. Single dose treatment for gonorrhea: **Ceftriaxone**

Answer 351

1. Retina: **Neuroectoderm** 2. Salivary glands: **Surface Ectoderm** 3. Pancreas: **Endoderm** 4. Muscles of the abdominal wall: **Mesoderm** 5. Thymus: **Endoderm** 6. Spleen: **Mesoderm**

Answer 352

1. Aorticopulmonary septum: **Neural Crest** 2. Anterior pituitary: **Surface Ectoderm** 3. Posterior pituitary: **Neuroectoderm** 4. Bones of the skull: **Neural Crest** 5. Cranial nerves: **Neural Crest**

Answer 353

_1st_ 1. "PEcK" 2. Proteus 3. E. Coli 4. Klebsiella 5. Gram (+) cocci _2nd_ 1. "HENPEcKS" 2. H. infuenzae 3. Enterobacter 4. Neisseria 5. Proteus 6. E. Coli 7. Klebsiella 8. Serratia 9. Gram (+) cocci _3rd_ 1. Serious Gram (-) infections 2. Pseudomonas 3. Neisseria gonorrhea _4th_ 1. This is the "big gun" 2. Gram (+) 3. Gram (-) 4. Pseudomonase

Answer 354

"BFDR" 1. Bronchospasm 2. Flushing 3. Diarrhea 4. Right sided heart murmur

Answer 355

1. Pyruvate Carboxylase 2. PEP Carboxykinase 3. Fructose-1,6-Bisphosphatase 4. Glucose-6-Phosphatase

Answer 356

1. Taste in the anterior 2/3: **VII** 2. Taste in the posterior 1/3 (Main innervation): **IX** 3. Motor: **XII** 4. Sensation in the anterior 2/3: **V₃** 5. Sensation in the posterior 1/3: **IX**

Answer 357

1. Squamous & Small Cell lung cancers 2. Adenocarcinoma & Large cell lung cancer

Answer 358

Type C: Distal esophageal fistula, proximal esophageal blind pouch

Answer 359

1. Citrate Synthase (First Step) 2. Isocitrate Dehydrogenase (Rate-limiting Step) 3. Alpha-Ketoglutarate Dehydrogenase (Highly regulated step - Regulated by "Tender Loving Care For Noone")

Answer 360

_Chlamydia trachomatis_ * Types A, B, and C: Trachoma eye infection (Africa) * Types D-K: STP, PID, urethritis, and neonatal conjunctivitis * Type L1, L2, and L3: Lymphogranuloma venereum _Chlamydia pneumoniae_: Interstitial (walking, atypical) pneumonia _Chlamydophila psittaci_: Pneumonia with exposure to birds Treated with **Macrolides or Tetracycline**

Answer 361

_Coxiella burnetii_ 1. Negative Weil-Felix (an agglutination test for the diagnosis of rickettsial infections) 2. No vector 3. Aerosol transmission 4. Endospore 5. No rash 6. Interstitial pneumonia

Answer 362

1. Palpable epigastric olive mass 2. Poor feeding 3. Projectile vomiting 4. Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis 5. Hypokalemia 6. 2 weeks of age

Answer 363

G6PD generates NADPH which is used to reduce glutathione. Reduced glutathione is required by RBCs as an antioxidant. Without it, they lyse

Answer 364

Fatty acids

Answer 365

**1-2 cm medial to the artery** "lateral to medial to reach the NAVeL" Nerve -\> Artery -\> Vein -\> empty space -\> Lymphatics

Answer 366

1. Fatty acid degradation: **Mitochondria** 2. Fatty acid synthesis: **Cytoplasm** 3. Glycolysis: **Cytoplasm** 4. TCA cycle: **Mitochondria** 5. Electron Transport Chain (Oxidative phosphorylation): **Mitochondria**

Answer 367

1. Gluconeogenesis: **Cytoplasm and Mitochondria** 2. Protein Synthesis (RER): **Cytoplasm** 3. Urea Cycle: **Cytoplasm and Mitochondria** 4. Steroid synthesis (SER): **Cytoplasm** 5. Heme synthesis: **Cytoplasm and Mitochondria**

Answer 368

1. Contracted by eating undercooked fish and causes an inflammation of the biliary tract: **Clonorchis sinensis** 2. Most common protozoal infection in the US: **Toxoplasma gondii** 3. Cause of Chagas disease: **Trypanazoma cruzi** 4. Most common helminthic infection in the US: **Enterobius vermicularis** 5. Snail host, "swimmers itch": **Schistosoma mansoni** 6. Diarrhea in campers and hikers: **Giardia lamblia** 7. Transmitted in raw meat or infected cat feces: **Toxoplasma gondii**

Answer 369

1. Stress causes sympathetic activation: Epinephrine and Norepinephrine are released from adrenal medulla 2. This activates hormone-sensitive TG lipase in fat cells causing the rapid breakdown of fats and mobilization of fatty acids used by muscles as energy 3. There is also some release of ACTH from the anterior pituitary and subsequent cortisol release from adrenal cortex

Answer 370

"Nagging Pests Must Breath" 1. Nocardia 2. Pseudomonas 3. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 4. Bacillus species

Answer 371

Decreased renal perfusion -\> recognized by the juxtoglomerular apparatus -\> activation of the renin-angiotensin system -\> Angiotensin II signals adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone -\> Aldosterone increases Na and H20 retention

Answer 372

1. Mildly decreased UDPGT: **Gilbert Syndrome and Crigler-Najjar Type II** 2. Completely absent UDPGT: **Crigler-Najjar Type I** 3. Grossly black liver:** Dubin-Johnson syndrome** 4. Responds to phenobarbital: **Gilbert Syndrome and Crigler-Najjar Type II** 5. Treatment includes plasmapheresis and phototherapy: **Crigler-Najjar Type I** 6. Asymptomatic unless under physical stress (alcohol, infection): **Gilbert Syndrome**

Answer 373

1. Inhibition of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase -\> Nausea, flushing, sweating, headache, and hypotension when consuming alcohol 2. Drugs: * Disulfuram * Metronidazole * Cephalosporins (**_cefo_**tetan, **_cefa_**mandole, **_cefo_**perazone) * 1st generation sulfonylureas (Tolbutamide)

Answer 374

1. Normal people: **Age 50** 2. Family History: Age 40 or 10 years prior to youngest 1st degree family member's age at diagnosis 3. Lynch Syndrome: 20-25 years old or 10 years prior to youngest 1st degree family member's age at diagnosis 4. Familial Adenomatous Polyposis: Every 12 months starting at age 10-12

Answer 375

Inflammation -\> Damage to endothelial cells and type I pneumocytes -\> Proliferation of type II pneumocytes

Answer 376

1. Heparin: PTT 2. Warfarin: PT/INR 3. Enoxaparin: factor Xa activity but not usually monitored

Answer 377

_Any right to left shunt_ 1. Tetralogy of Fallot 2. Transposition of the great vessels 3. Truncus arteriosus 4. Eisenmenger Syndrome (VSD, ASD, PDA)

Answer 378

"CRACK AMIGOS" 1. Cimetidine 2. Ritonavir (Protease inhibitors) 3. Amiodarone 4. Ciprfloxacin 5. Ketoconazole 6. Acute alcohol use 7. Macrolides 8. Isoniazid 9. Grapefruit juice 10. Omeprazole 11. Sulfonamides

Answer 379

1. Factor V leiden 2. Prothrombin 20210 mutation 3. Protein C deficiency 4. Protein S deficiency 5. Antithrombin deficiency

Answer 380

1. Causes leprosy: **M. Leprae** 2. Causes pulmonary TB-like symptoms in COPD patients: **M. Kansasi** 3. Causes cervical lymphadenitis in children: **M. Scrofulaceum** 4. Causes a disseminated disease in AIDS patients: **M. Avium-Intracellularae or M. Avium-complex** 5. Hand infection in aquarium: **M. Marinum**

Answer 381

_Primary biliary cirrhosis_ 1. Autoimmune disorder 2. Associated with CREST scleroderma 3. Positive AMA 4. Middle aged females _Primary sclerosis cholangitis_ 1. Unknown etiology 2. Positive pANCA (60%) 3. Males over 40 4. Associated with ulcerative colitis and cholangiocarcinoma 5. ERCP - alternating beading and stricturing

Answer 382

Decreases the resistance by 2^4 = 16

Answer 383

1. Valproic acid 2. Lithium 3. Thalidomide 4. Phenytoin 5. Vitamin A 6. Tetracyline 7. Warfarin 8. Alcohol 9. ACE inhibitors 10. Aminoglycosides 11. Smoking 12. Cocaine 13. Diethylstilbestrol

Answer 384

Spontaneous pneumothorax

Answer 385

Aortic stenosis

Answer 386

_Hexokinase_ 1. Located everywhere 2. Low Km 3. Low Vmax 4. Not induced by insulin _Glucokinase_ 1. Located in the liver and Beta cells of the pancreas 2. High Km 3. High Vmax 4. Induced by insulin

Answer 387

HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors (Statins)

Answer 388

"No Bad Boy Keeps Clean" 1. Class I: Na Channel Blockers 2. Class II: Beta-Blockers 3. Class III: K Channel Blockers 4. Class IV: Ca Channel Blockers

Answer 389

1. Neostigmine: Used for neurogenic ileus, as a neuromuscular junction blockade reversal agent, and to treat Myasthenia Gravis 2. Pyridostigmine: Treats Myasthenia Gravis 3. Edrophonium: Diagnoses Myasthenia Gravis 4. Physostigmine: Treats Atropine overdose 5. Echothiophate: Treats Glaucoma 6. Donepezil: Treats Alzheimers disease 7. Galantamine: Treats Alzheimers disease 8. Rivastigmine: Treats Alzheimers disease

Answer 390

_Mitral regurgitation_ 1. Holosystolic murmur 2. Best heard at the apex 3. Heard best in the left lateral decubitus position 4. Sound is enhanced by squating and expiration _Aortic regurgitation_ 1. Early diastolic murmur (During isovolumetric contraction) 2. Heard at the right 2nd intercostal region

Answer 391

1. Rickettsia and Chlamydia 2. They cant make their own ATP *Legionella is also usually intracellular*

Answer 392

C-reactive protein (CRP)

Answer 393

Nondihydropyridine (Verapamil & Diltiazem)

Answer 394

1. Tricuspid and mitral valve regurgitation 2. Aortic stenosis 3. PDA 4. VSD 5. Mitral prolapse

Answer 395

1. 50-year-old female presents with pruritis without jaundice, lab reveals (+) AMA: **Primary Biliary Cirrhosis** 2. A patient with GI bleeding has buccal pigmentation: **Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome** 3. 60-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis and no alcohol history presents with fatigue and right abdominal pain. Lab studies reveal high levels of ANA and ASMA, elevated serum IgG levels, and no viral serologic markers: **Autoimmune hepatitis** 4. Liver biopsy on a 23-year-old female with elevated levels of LKM-1 antibodies, no alcohol history, and no viral serologic markers reveals infiltration of the portal and periportal area with lymphocytes: **Autoimmune hepatitis** 5. Fatal disease of unconjugated bilirubin resulting from a complete lack of UDPGT activity: **Crigler-Najjar I**

Answer 396

1. Nonfatal disease of unconjugated bilirubin resulting from low levels of UDPGT activity: **Crigler-Najjar II & Gilbert Disease** 2. Elevated levels of serum ferritin and increased transferrin saturation: **Hemochromatosis** 3. Alpha-fetoprotein levels \>1000 pg/mL: **Hepatocellular carcinoma** 4. Elevated serum copper, decreased serum ceruloplasmin, and elevated 24-hr urinary copper: **Wilsons Disease** 5. Liver disease + Lung emphysema: **Alpha-1 Antitrypsin deficiency** 6. ERCP reveals alternating strictures and dilation: **Primary sclerosing cholangitis**

Answer 397

1. Histamine: **Histidine** 2. Prophyrin, heme: **Glycine** 3. NO: **Arginine** 4. GABA (a neurotransmitter): **Glutamate** 5. S-adenosyl-methionine (SAM): **Methionine** 6. Creatine: **Arginine**

Answer 398

CO = SV x HR CO = Rate of O2 consumption/(Arterial O2 content - Venous O2 content)

Answer 399

1. It is digested by bacteria in the colon 2. It's digestion creates an acidic environment 3. NH₃ -\> NH₄⁺ 4. NH₄⁺ is excreted in the stool

Answer 400

Disease is less likely to occur in exposed group

Answer 401

1. Sensitivity = 5/10 = 50% 2. Specificity = 75/90 = 83% 3. PPV = 5/20 = 25% 4. NPV = 75/80 = 94%

Answer 402

1. Right ventrical: 25/5 2. Left ventrical: 130/10

Answer 403

1. ARB because they do not inhibit Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) 2. ACE inhibitors produce cough by inhibiting ACE and thus preventing it from breaking down bradykinin

Answer 404

Every other year beginning at age 40

Answer 405

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

Answer 406

1. Deficiency of homogentisic acid oxidase 2. Dark organs and connective tissue 3. Dark urine when out for an extended period of time 4. Benign disease

Answer 407

_Most common organisms_ 1. Staph aureus (30-35%) 2. Viridans strep 3. Enterococci 4. Staph epidermidis 5. Strep bovis (Colon cancer) _Culture-negative organisms (rare): "HACEK"_ 1. Haemophilus 2. Actinobacillus 3. Cardiobacterium 4. Eikenella 5. Kingella

Answer 408

SEM = SD/ Sqrt(n) = 50/Sqrt(100) = 5 CI = Mean +/- Z(SEM) = 500 +/- 2(5) = 490 to 510

Answer 409

10/100 - 50/1000 = 0.05

Answer 410

1. First dose orthostatic hypotension: **Alpha-1 blockers** 2. Hypertrichosis: **Minoxidil** 3. Cyanide toxicity: **Sodium Nitroprusside**

Answer 411

1. Dry mouth, sedation, severe rebound HTN: **Alpha-2 agonists (clonidine)** 2. Bradycardia, impotence, asthma exacerbation: **Beta-blockers** 3. Reflex tachycardia: **Nitrates, Hydralazine, Minoxidil, Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers**

Answer 412

1. Metabolic alkalosis: **Loop diuretics** 2. Elevated anti-histone antibodies: **Hydralazine** 3. Hypercalcemia: **Thiazides**

Answer 413

Smoking is the #1 risk factory for AAA *Also Atherosclerosis as the aorta is the most common location for this process to occur*

Answer 414

1. Chromosome 22q11 deletions: **Truncus arteriosus, tetralogy of fallot** 2. Down Syndrome: **Cushion defect, ASD, VSD, AV septal defect** 3. Congenital Rubella: **PDS, pulmonary artery stenosis, septal defects** 4. Turner Syndrome: **Coarctation of the aorta** 5. Marfan Syndrome: **Aortic insufficiency**

Answer 415

Midbrain: CN III, CN IV Pons: CN I, CN VI, CN VII, CN VIII Medulla: CN IX, CN X, CN XI, CN XII

Answer 416

1. Nucleus solitarius: **Sensory information - Taste, baroreceptors, gut distention** 2. Nucleus ambiguous: **Motor information - Pharynx, larynx, upper esophagus** 3. Dorsal motor nucleus: **Autonomic information - Heart, lungs, upper GI tract**

Answer 417

1. Necrotizing granulomas of lung and necrotizing glomerulonephritis: **Wegeners** 2. Necrotizing immune complex inflammation of visceral/renal vessels: **Polyarteritis nodosa** 3. Young asian women: **Takayasu's** 4. Young asthmatics: **Churg-Strauss**

Answer 418

1. Infants and young children, involved coronary arteries: **Kawasaki's** 2. Most common vasculitis: **Temporal (Giant cell) arteritis** 3. Associated with hepatitis B infection: **Poylarteritis nodosa**

Answer 419

1. Medial 2. Lateral

Answer 420

_Dominant side lesion_ 1. Called Gerstmann syndrom 2. Acaculia 3. Dysarthria 4. Finger agnosia 5. Left/right disorientation _Non-dominant side lesion_ 1. Hemispatial neglect

Answer 421

Mitral regurgitation

Answer 422

Type II error

Answer 423

1. Fomepizole 2. Disulfuram

Answer 424

1. Protamine sulfate 2. Vitamin K or fresh frozen plasma

Answer 425

1. Factor V leiden 2. Protein C deficiency 3. Protein S deficiency 4. Prothrombin 20210 mutation 5. Antithrombin deficiency

Answer 426

Doxorubicin & Daunorubicin

Answer 427

Aminolevulinic Acid Synthase *Converts glycine + succinyl CoA -(B6)\> Aminolevulinic Acid*

Answer 428

1. Beta4 2. Alpha Thalassemia 3. Gamma4 4. Hydrops Fetalis

Answer 429

Substance P

Answer 430

1. Crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur best heard in the 2nd-3rd right interspace close to the sternum: **Aortic stenosis** 2. Rumbling late diastolic murmur with an opening snap: **Mitral stenosis** 3. Pansystolic (AKA holosystolic or uniform) murmur best heard at the 4th-6th left intercostal spaces, adjacent to the sternum: T**ricuspid regurgitation or VSD** 4. Continuous machine-like murmur (in systole and diastole): **PDA**

Answer 431

1. Staph aureus 2. Viridans strep 3. Enterococci 4. Staph epidermidis 5. Strep bovis _"HACEK"_ 1. Haemophilus 2. Actinobacillus 3. Cardiobacterium 4. Eikenella 5. Kingella

Answer 432

1. Isoniazid 2. Rifampin 3. Pyrazinamide 4. Ethambutol

Answer 433

Systolic BP drops by \> 10mmHg with inspiration _Caused by hyperinflated lungs_ 1. Asthma 2. COPD 3. Croup 4. Cardiac Tamponade

Answer 434

1. (+) Ham's test: **Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria** 2. Heinz bodies: **G6PD deficiency** 3. Basophilic stippling: **Lead poisoning mostly ("TAIL" - Thalassemia, Anemia of chronic Dx, Iron deficiency, Lead poisoning)**

Answer 435

1. (+) Osmotic fragility test: **Hereditary Spherocytosis** 2. (+) DEB test: **Fanconi's Anemia** 3. D-Dimer: **DIC, DVT/PE, ITP, TTP**

Answer 436

1. Coomb (+): **Autoimmune hemolytic anemia** 2. Coomb (-): **Non-autoimmune hemolytic anemia** 3. (+) Ristocetin test: **Von Willebrand Disease**

Answer 437

Umbilical vein -\> Ductus venosus -\> IVC -\> Right atrium -\> Most blood passes through foramen ovale to enter the left ventricle, the rest enters the right ventricle -\> blood in the right ventricle enters the pulmonary artery -\> some blood will go to the lungs but most will enter the aorta via the ductus arteriosus -\> Blood in the aorta will travel to the body -\> some will enter the IVC directly but most will enter the umbilical artery to become oxygenated -\> oxygenated blood returns to the fetus via the umbilical vein

Answer 438

1. Losartan: **Angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB)** 2. Vecuronium: **A neuromuscular junction blockade** 3. Ticarcillin: **Penicillin antibiotic** 4. Desipramine: **Tricyclic antidepressant**

Answer 439

1. Enalapril: **ACE inhibitor** 2. Lorazepam: **Benzodiazepine** 3. Rosiglitazone: **Thiazolidinedione**

Answer 440

1. Common carotid artery: **III** 2. Aortic arch: **IV (left)** 3. Right subclavian: **IV (right)** 4. Pulmonary arteries: **VI**

Answer 441

Midline mass that moves when swallowing

Answer 442

1. Inactivates EF-2: **Corynebacterium diphtheria** 2. Activates Gs: **Cholera toxin (Vibrio cholera)** 3. Disables Gi: **Pertussin toxin** 4. Bacterial adenylate cyclase (no G protein involved): **Bacillus anthracis** 5. Blocks GABA and glycine: **Tetanospasmin (Clostridium tetani)**

Answer 443

1. Anaphylaxis on exposure to blood products with IgA: **Selective Ig deficiency - B cell disorder** 2. Course facial features, abscesses, eczema: **Hyper-IgE (Job) syndrome - T cell disorder** 3. Thrombocytopenia, purpura, infections, eczema: **Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome - B and T cell disorder** 4. Delayed separation of the umbilicus: **Leukocyte adhesion deficiency Type I - Phagocyte dysfunction disorder** 5. Neurodefects, partial albinism, recurrent infections: **Chediak-Higashi syndrome - Phagocyte dysfunction disorder**

Answer 444

_Mitral regurgitation_ 1. Systolic 2. Blowing 3. High pitched 4. Heard best at apex _Aortic regurgitation_ 1. Diastolic 2. Blowing 3. High pitched 4. Heard best at left sternal border

Answer 445

Inhibits osteoclasts

Answer 446

1. Serum Ca: **Decreased** 2. Serum phos: **Decreased** 3. Serum alk phos: **Increased** 4. Serum PTH: **Increased** 5. Urine Ca: **Decreased** 6. Urine phos: **Increased**

Answer 447

1. **Growth** hormone 2. Platelet-derived **growth** factor 3. Fibroblast **growth** factor 4. Insulin-like **growth** factor 5. Insulin 6. Prolactin

Answer 448

_"JONES"_ 1. Joints 2. Pancarditis 3. Nodules 4. Erythema marginatum 5. Syndenham chorea _Less specific_ 1. Fever 2. Elevated ESR 3. Prolonged PR interval

Answer 449

6 days after fertilization

Answer 450

1. Claw hand: 2. Wrist drop 3. Scapular winging

Answer 451

1. Unable to wipe bottom: **Thoracodorsal** 2. Loss of forearm pronation: **Median** 3. Weak external rotation of arm: **Suprascapular**

Answer 452

1. Loss of elbow flexion and forearm supination: **Musculocutaneous** 2. Loss of wrist extension: **Radial** 3. Unable to raise arm above horizontal: **Long thoracic and Spinal Accessory**

Answer 453

1. Superior portion (C5 and C6 roots) 2. Loss of * Abductors: Adduction of the arm * Lateral rotators: Medial rotation of the arm * Biceps: Pronation of the arm

Answer 454

1. With lateral gaze * Adducting eye is paralyzed * Abducting eye has nystagmus 2. Multiple sclerosis *Internuclear opthalmoplegia is a lesion of the Medial Longitudinal Fasciculus (MLF)*

Answer 455

1. SE - facial flushing: **Niacin** 2. SE - elevated LFTs, myositis: **Fibrates** 3. SE - GI discomfort, bad taste: **Bile acid binding resins**

Answer 456

1. Best effect on HDL: **Niacin** 2. Best effect on triglycerides/VLDL: **Fibrates** 3. Best effect on LDL/Cholesterol: **Statins** 4. Binds C. diff toxin: **Cholestyramine**

Answer 457

1. This is Pseudogout 2. Aspiration of the joint would reveal calcium pyrophosphate crystals

Answer 458

1. External ear (most common) 2. Olecranon bursa 3. Achilles tendon

Answer 459

Cytotoxic T cells react to foreign MHC

Answer 460

Albright's Hereditary Osteodystrophy | (Type 1A Pseudohypoparathryroidism)

Answer 461

Carnitine acytransferase I

Answer 462

1. Calcinosis 2. Raynaud phenomenon 3. Esophageal dysmotility 4. Sclerodactyly 5. Telangiectasia

Answer 463

1. This patienthas lupus 2. Most feared complication of lupus is renal disease 3. Needs **renal evaluation** 1 to 2 times a year

Answer 464

Deletion of dystrophin gene

Answer 465

_Polymyositis_ 1. Muscle weakness 2. Increased CK 3. Increased Aldolase 4. Positive ANA 5. Anti-Jo-1 antibody _Polymyalgia rheumatica_ 1. Joint pain but no muscle pain or weakness 2. CK and aldolase are normal

Answer 466

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

Answer 467

1. Pricking pain (fast, myelinated): **A-delta fibers** 2. Burning or dull pain and itch (Slow, unmyelinated): **C polymodal fibers** 3. Vibration and pressure: **Pacinian Corpuscle** 4. Dynamic/changing light, discriminatory touch: **Meissner Corpuscle**

Answer 468

1. Static/unchanging light touch: **Merkel Receptor** 2. Proprioception information - muscle length monitoring: **Muscle spindle** 3. Proprioception information - muscle tension monitoring: **Golgi tendon**

Answer 469

Ischial spine

Answer 470

Increased protein with normal cell count (Albuminocytologic Disassociation)

Answer 471

1. Symmetric ascending paralysis/weakness beginning in lower extremities 2. Facial paralysis in 50% of cases 3. Autonomic dysfunction 4. Preceded by infection

Answer 472

1. Wacky = Dementia 2. Wet = Urinary incontinence 3. Wobbly = Ataxia

Answer 473

Abetalipoproteinemia

Answer 474

1. FGF receptor 3: **Achondroplasia** 2. FMRI gene: **Fragile X syndrome**

Answer 475

1. Boot-shaped heart: **Right ventriculary hypertrophy or Tetralogy of Fallot** 2. Continuous machine-like murmur: **PDA** 3. Tendon Xanthomas: **Familial hypercholesterolemia** 4. Cafe-au-lait spots: **Neurofibromatosis type I or McCune-Albright syndrome** 5. Tuft of hair on lower back: **Spina bifida occulta**

Answer 476

1. Posterior circumflex artery 2. Axillary nerve *Also Supraspinatus tendon, anterior glenohumoral ligament, glenoid labrum, and posterolateral humeral head*

Answer 477

"Californians Like Girls in String Bikinis" 1. Stratum Corneum 2. Stratum Lucidum 3. Stratum Granulosum 4. Stratum Spinosum 5. Stratum Basalis *Outside to Inside*

Answer 478

The patient has Tuberous sclerosis and is at risk for developing 1. Cardiac rhabdomyoma 2. Astrocytoma 3. Angiomyolipoma

Answer 479

1. Aneurysm causes the eye to look down and out: **Posterior communicating artery** 2. Aneurysm may cause bilateral loss of lateral visual fields: **Anterior communicating artery** 3. Broca or Wernicke aphasia: **Middle cerebral artery** 4. Unilateral lower extremity sensory and/or motor loss: **Anterior cerebral artery** 5. Unilateral facial and arm sensory and/or motor loss: **Middle cerebral artery**

Answer 480

"PFTs, LFTs, and TFTs" 1. Pulmonary fibrosis 2. Hapatotoxicity 3. Thyroid dysfunction *Also corneal deposits, photosensitivity, neurologic effects, constipation, cardiovascular effects*

Answer 481

Acoustic Schwannoma

Answer 482

1. Catecholamines (Anxiety, exercise, stress, or catecholamine infusion) 2. Increased intracellular Ca 3. Increased extracellular Na 4. Digoxin (increases intracellular Ca and increases extracellular Na)

Answer 483

1. Trichomonas or Gardnerella: **Metronidazole** 2. Plasmodium vivax or ovale: **Chloroquine + primaquine** 3. Pediculosis capitis or pubis: **This is a Lice infection, Tx is Permethrin or Pyrethrin (Second line is Malathion)**

Answer 484

ACE inhibitors or ARBs (Decrease diabetic nephropathy and decrease progression of proteinuria)

Answer 485

1. Denial 2. Anger 3. Bargaining 4. Grieving (depression) 5. Acceptance

Answer 486

_Peripheral_ 1. Decreased PO2 2. Decreased pH 3. Increased PCO2 _Central_ 1. Change in PCO2 2. Change in pH

Answer 487

1. Ras 2. L-Myc

Answer 488

1. Delayed wound healing 2. Decreased adult hair (body/facial hair) 3. Hypogonadism 4. Problems with smell and taste 5. Predisposition to cirrhosis from alcohol

Answer 489

1. Microcytic anemia + swallowing difficulty + glossitis: **Iron deficiency anemia (Plummer-Vinson syndrome)** 2. Microcytic anemia + \>3.5% HbA2: **Beta-thalassemia minor** 3. Megaloblastic anemia not correctable by B12 or folate: **Orotic aciduria**

Answer 490

1. Megaloblastic anemia along with peripheral neuropathy: **B12 deficiency** 2. Microcytic anemia + basophilic stippling: **Lead poisoning** 3. Microcytic anemia reversible with B6: **Sideroblastic anemia**

Answer 491

1. HIV positive patient with macrocytic anemia: **Zidovudine** 2. Normocytic anemia + red urine in the morning: **Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria** 3. Normocytic anemia and elevated creatinine: **Chronic kidney disease (Decreased EPO)**

Answer 492

1. Rb: **Retinoblastoma and Osteosarcoma** 2. DPC: **Pancreatic cancer** 3. p53: **Most tumors**

Answer 493

1. APC: **Familial Adenomatous Polyposis Coli and colorectal cancer** 2. WT1: **Wilms Tumor** 3. BRCA1 and BRCA2: **Breast and ovarian cancer**

Answer 494

1. Anemia 2. Jaundice 3. Pigmented gallstones 4. Splenomegaly 5. Positive osmotic fragility test 6. Negative coombs test

Answer 495

1. Warm = IgG 2. Cold = IgM

Answer 496

1. Sensitivity = True positives / All diseased = A/(A+C) 2. Specificity = True negatives / All healthy = D/(D+B) 3. PPV = True positives / All positives = A/(A+B) 4. NPV = True negatives / All negatives = D/(D+C)

Answer 497

_On lateral gaze_ 1. Abducting eye has nystagmus 2. Adducting eye is unable to adduct Convergence is normal

Answer 498

This is Huntingtons disease characterized by atrophy of the **Caudate** and **Putamen**

Answer 499

This is hemispatial neglect, due to a lesion of his **non-dominant (Usually right) parietal lobe**

Answer 500

1. ACTH -\> Cushing Syndrome: **Small cell lung cancer** 2. Erythropoietin -\> Polycythemia: **Renal cell carcinoma, Hepatocellular carcinoma, Hemangioblastoma, Pheochromocytoma** 3. ADH -\> SIADH: **Small cell lung cancer, any intracranial lesion**

Answer 501

1. Mu receptor: Morphine 2. Delta receptor: Enkephalin 3. Kappa receptor: Dynorphin

Answer 502

1. Opioid cough cuppressant commonly used with the expectorant guaifenesin: **Dextromethorphan** 2. Opioid used in the treatment of diarrhea: **Loperamide & Diphenoxylate** 3. Opioid receptor antagonist: **Naloxone/Naltrexone** 4. Non-addictive weak opioid agonist: **Tramadol** 5. Partial opioid agonist that causes less respiratory depression: **Butorphanol**

Answer 503

1. Left side: CN X damage, Nucleus Ambiguous damage 2. Right side: Corticobulbar tract, soft palate portion of right motor cortex

Answer 504

1. Causes San Joaquin Valley fever: **Coccidioides** 2. Found in rural Latin America: **Paracoccidioides** 3. Associated with plant thorns and cutaneous injury: **Sporothrix**

Answer 505

1. Found in states east of the Mississippi River: **Blastomyces** 2. Found in bird and bat droppings: **Histoplasma** 3. Mold form contains barrel-shaped arthroconidia: **Coccidioides**

Answer 506

Bicep tendon rupture

Answer 507

These tumors metastasize to the brain: "Lots of Bad Stuff Kills Glia" 1. Lung 2. Breast 3. Skin (melanoma) 4. Kidney (renal cell carcinoma) 5. GI Of these, **lung and breast cancers are most common and would be suspected**

Answer 508

"BALSA" 1. Bromocriptine, Pramipexole, Ropinirole (Dopamine agonists) 2. Amantidine 3. Levodopa, Carbidopa 4. Selegiline, Entacapone, Tolcapone (MAO-B inhibitor and COMT inhibitors respectively) 5. Antimuscarinics (Benztropine: Treats symptoms not disease)

Answer 509

Lyme disease or Guillain-Barre syndrome

Answer 510

1. Pericarditis that occurs 2-4 weeks after MI 2. Chest pain 3. Fever 4. Increased ESR

Answer 511

1. Old age 2. Smoking 3. Steroid use (Glucocorticoids) 4. Chronic heparin use 5. White or Asian race 6. Being thin 7. Not exercising 8. Decreased Ca & Vit D intakes 9. Decreased Testosterone/Estrogen

Answer 512

1. Polycythemia: **Hemangioblastoma** 2. Neruofibromatosis II: **Schwannoma** 3. Hyperprolactinemia -\> Galactorrhea, amenorrhea, anovulation: **Pituitary adenoma** 4. Psammoma bodies: **Meningioma**

Answer 513

1. Perivascular pseudorosettes: **Ependymoma** 2. Bitemporal hemianopia: **Pituitary adenoma or craniopharyngioma** 3. Worst prognosis of any primary brain tumor: **Glioblastoma multiforme**

Answer 514

Optic neuritis due to **Multiple Sclerosis**

Answer 515

_Charcot's Triad_ 1. Scanning speech 2. Intention tremor 3. Nystagmus *Also Bowel/bladder incontinence, intranuclear opthalmoplegia, and optic neuritis*

Answer 516

1. Nitrosamines: **Esophageal, stomach, and colon cancers** 2. Asbestos: **Mesothelioma & Bronchogenic carcinoma** 3. Naphthalene: **Transitional cell bladder cancer** 4. Arsenic: **Squamous cell skin cancer, angiosarcoma of the liver**

Answer 517

1. EBV: **Burkitt lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma** 2. HPV: **(Types 16 & 18) Genital and anal cancer** 3. Schistosoma haematobium: **Squamous cell cancer of the bladder**

Answer 518

Antibodies to gp IIb/IIIa

Answer 519

1. Streptokinase: **Converts plasminogen to plasmin which cleaves fibrin** 2. Aspirin: **Irreversibly inhibits COX 1 & 2 by covalent acetylation** 3. Clopidogrel: **Blocks ADP receptors** 4. Abciximab: **Binds to gb IIb/IIIa**

Answer 520

1. Tirofiban: **Binds to gp IIb/IIIa** 2. Ticlopidine: **Blocks ADP receptors** 3. Enozaparin: C**atalyzes antithrombin III formation and activation** 4. Eptifibatide: **Binds to gp IIb/IIIa**

Answer 521

1. Posterior circumflex artery 2. Axillary nerve

Answer 522

1. Senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles: **Alzheimers disease** 2. Presents at birth as "floppy baby": **Werdnig-Hoffman disease** 3. Lewy bodies: **Parkinsons disease, Diffuse lewy body dementia, or Lewy body type Alzheimers disease**

Answer 523

1. Dementia often associated with frequent falls and/or syncope: **Lewy body dementia** 2. Atrophy of caudate nucleus -\> chorea: **Huntington disease** 3. Depigmentation of substantia nigra: **Parkinsons disease**

Answer 524

1. Both upper and lower motor neuron signs (spasticity and weakness): **ALS** 2. Dementia + visual hallucinations: **Lewy body dementia** 3. Dementia + personality changes and/or aphasia: **Pick disease**

Answer 525

Sexual abuse

Answer 526

1. Painless lymphadenopathy 2. B symptoms (Fever, weight loss, night sweats)

Answer 527

1. Most common leukemia in children: **ALL** 2. Most common leukemia in adults in the US: **CLL** 3. Characteristic Auer rods: **AML** 4. Greater than 20% blasts in marrow: **Acute leukemias (ALL or AML)** 5. Leukemia with more mature cells and less than 5% blasts: **Chronic leukemias (CLL or CML)**

Answer 528

1. PAS (+) acute leukemia: **ALL** 2. Always positive for the Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22): **CML** 3. Acute leukemia positive for peroxidase: **AML** 4. Solid sheets of lymphoblasts in marrow: **ALL** 5. Always associated with the BCR-ABL genes: **CML**

Answer 529

Metaplasia: Columnar -\> Squamous

Answer 530

Legionnaire's disease (Legionella pneumophila)

Answer 531

_Presentation_ 1. Unilateral headache 2. Jaw claudication 3. Blindness or impaired vision _Labs_ 1. Elevated ESR 2. Temporal artery biopsy to confirm diagnosis

Answer 532

ANA as a screening test for suspected Lupus

Answer 533

1. Night blindness 2. Xerophthalmia -\> corneal ulceration and blindness 3. Wrinkling/clouding of the cornea 4. Dry, silver-grey plaques on the bulbar conjunctiva

Answer 534

1. Fragile blood vessels (Easy bruising) 2. Loose teeth 3. Sore/spongy gums 4. Anemia 5. Swollen joints (bleeding into joint spaces) 6. Impaired wound healing

Answer 535

CI = Mean +/- Z(SEM)

Answer 536

Dystrophin -\> Connects muscle fibers to one another

Answer 537

Coccidiodes immitis

Answer 538

II, III, & AV_f

Answer 539

1. Antiplatelet antibodies: **ITP** 2. Bamboo spine on X-ray: **Ankylosing Spondylitis** 3. Webbed neck, short stature: **Turner syndrome** 4. Painful, raised lesions on palms + fever: **Infective endocarditis**

Answer 540

1. Dry eyes, dry mouth, arthritis: **Sjogren syndrome** 2. Posterior cervical adenopathy: **Infective mononucleosis, bratonella henslae, otitis media** 3. Low serum ceruloplasmin: **Wilsons disease**

Answer 541

1. Atypical antipsychotics (Risperidone) 2. Clozapine

Answer 542

1. Pruritic, purple, polygonal papules: **Lichen planus** 2. Pruritic vesicles associated with celiac disease: **Dermatitis Herpetiformis** 3. Tickened scar especially around the face/chest: **Keloid** 4. Parakeratotic scaling: **Psoriasis**

Answer 543

1. Keratin-filled cysts: **Seborrheic keratosis** 2. Skin rash and proximal muscle weakness: **Dermatomyositis** 3. Honey crusting lesions common about the nose and lips: **Impetigo** 4. Hyperkeratosis and koilocytosis: **Verrucae of HPV**

Answer 544

1. Temporal bone 2. Middle meningeal artery *This is an epidural hematoma*

Answer 545

Sporothrix Schenkii

Answer 546

Osteitis fibrosa cystica (Von Recklinghausen disease)

Answer 547

Ketoconazole (Inhibits P450)

Answer 548

1. Hypoparathyroidism: **Accidental surgical resection of parathyroid during thyroidectomy** 2. Metastatic disease to brain: **"Lots of Bad Stuff Kills Glia" - Lung, Breast, Skin (Melanoma), Kidney (renal cell carcinoma), GI tumors** 3. Lysosomal storage disease: **Gaucher Disease** 4. Myocarditis: **Coxackievirus**

Answer 549

Somatosensory information from the body

Answer 550

Visual retina to the occipital lobe

Answer 551

Somatosensory from the face

Answer 552

Motor basal ganglia to the cortex

Answer 553

1. Scapular winging: **Long thoracic nerve** 2. Loss of forearm pronation: **Median nerve** 3. Cannot abduct or adduct fingers: **Ulnar nerve** 4. Weak external rotation of arm: **Suprascapular (infraspinatus muscle), and a little bit from the Axillary nerve** 5. Unable to abduct arm beyond 10 degrees: **Axillary nerve (Suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus muscle that is responsible for the first 10 degrees of abduction**

Answer 554

1. Parathyroidectomy 2. Vitamin D deficiency 3. Chronic renal disease 4. Autoimmune destruction of parathyroids 5. DiGeorge Syndrome 6. Pseudohypoparathyroidism (Kidneys unresponsive to PTH) 7. Acute pancreatitis

Answer 555

Angiotensin Receptor Blocker (ARB)

Answer 556

1. "Worst headache of my life": **Subarachnoid hemorrhage (usually due to a ruptured berry aneurysm)** 2. Waxy casts in urine: **End stage renal failure (due to stasis of urine flow)** 3. Neuropathy + AV nodal block: **Lyme disease (Stage 2)**

Answer 557

1. Port-wine stain in the opthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve: **Sturge-Weber Syndrome** 2. Urethritis, conjunctivitis, arthritis: **Reiter syndrome (associated with HLA-B27)** 3. Painless jaundice: **Pancreatic cancer of the head of the pancreas**

Answer 558

1. Azothioprine: **Immunosuppressant (Antimetabolite precursor of 6-Mercaptopurine)** 2. Probenecid: **Inhibitor of uric acid reabsorption** 3. Primaquine: **Antimalarial (used for P. vivax & ovale)** 4. Cefpozil: **2nd generation Cephalosporin**

Answer 559

1. Lamivudine: **Nucleoside Reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)** 2. Tobramycin: **Aminoglycoside** 3. Losartan: **Angiotensin Receptor Blocker (ARB)** 4. Indinavir: **Protease Inhibitor**

Answer 560

1. 6-Mercaptopurine: Anticancer (Blocks de novo purine synthesis) 2. Celecoxib: COX-2 inhibitor 3. Carmustine: Nitrosourea (Alkylating agent) 4. Doxycycline: Tetracycline

Answer 561

1. Timolol: **Beta-blocker (Non-selective like propranolol, nadolol and pindolol)** 2. Methotrexate: **Anticancer (Inhibitor of Dihydrofolate reductase)** 3. Cimetidine: **H2 blocker** 4. Mefloquine: **Antimalarial**

Answer 562

1. AST 2. ALT 3. GGT

Answer 563

1. It inhibits the lateral nucleus 2. It activates the ventromedial nucleus 3. The combination of these effects is to induce satiety

Answer 564

**4 half lives** 50 + 25 + 12.5 + 6.25 = 94%

Answer 565

1. Hashimoto thyroiditis: **Lymphomas** 2. Down syndrome: **ALL & AML** 3. Plummer-Vinson syndrome: **Squamous cell carcinoma of esophagus**

Answer 566

1. Tuberous sclerosis: **Primarily Cardiac rhabdomyoma, Astrocytoma, Angiomyolipoma** 2. Ataxia-Telangiectasia: **Leukemias & Lymphomas** 3. Paget disease of bone: **Osteosarcoma & Fibrosarcoma**

Answer 567

OR = (A/B)/(C/D) RR = (A/(A+B))/(C/(C+D)) AR = A/(A+B) - C/(C+D) NNT = 1/ARR

Answer 568

1. Can be used to treat acne and psoriasis: **Vitamin A (Retinoic acid)** 2. Involved in the hydroxylation of prolyl residues: **Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid)** 3. Requires intrinsic factor for absorption: **Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin)**

Answer 569

1. Deficiency may result from kidney disease: **Vitamin D** 2. Given prophylactically to newborns: **Vitamin K (to prevent hemorrhagic disease)** 3. Can be used to elevate HDL and lower LDL: **Vitamin B3 (Niacin)**

Answer 570

1. Deficiency can be caused by isoniazid use: **Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)** 2. Cobalt is found within this vitamin: **Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin)** 3. Critical for DNA synthesis: **Vitamin B9 (Folic acid) and Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin)**

Answer 571

Acetazolamide *Also used in glaucoma and altitude sickness*

Answer 572

1. Catalase 2. Superoxide dismutase

Answer 573

1. Acetazolamide or Mannitol 2. Cholinomimetics 3. Alpha-blockers 4. Beta-blockers 5. Prostaglandins

Answer 574

1. SE: Teeth discoloration: **Tetracycline** 2. SE: Tendonitis: **Fluoroquinolones** 3. SE: Red man syndrome: **Vancomycin**

Answer 575

1. SE: Gray baby syndrome: **Chloramphenicol** 2. SE: Cartilage damage in children: **Fluoroquinolones** 3. SE: Nephrotoxicity (especially with cephalosporins), ototoxicity (especially with loop diuretics): **Aminoglycosides**

Answer 576

1. SE: Pseudomembranous colitis: **Clindamycin and Ampicillin (any antibiotic can cause this but these ones mainly)** 2. Drug of choice for gonorrhea: **Ceftriaxone** 3. Drug class for Lyme disease or Rocky Mountain spotted fever: **Tetracyclines (Doxycycline)**

Answer 577

1. Used to treat Giardia lamblia: **Metronidazole** 2. Can be used to treat MRSA as well as C. Diff colitis: **Vancomycin** 3. Treatment for G (-) rods in patients with renal insufficiency: **Aztreonam**

Answer 578

1. Big Gun (effective vs G(+) cooci, G(-) rods, and anaerobes): **Meropenem or Imipenem/Cilastatin** 2. Prophylaxis in AIDS patients against P. jirovecii pneumonia: **TMP-SMX (could also use Dapsone or Pentamidine)** 3. Used as solo prophylaxis against TB: **Isoniazid**

Answer 579

1. Serum Ca: No change 2. Serum Phosphate: No change 3. Alk Phos: Increased 4. PTH: No change

Answer 580

1. Serum Ca: Increased 2. Serum Phosphate: Increased 3. Alk Phos: No change 4. PTH: Decreased

Answer 581

1. Inhibits ergosterol synthesis: **Terbinafine & Azoles** 2. SE: Arrhythmias and nephrotoxicity: **Amphotericin B** 3. Deposits in keratin-containing tissues: **Griseofulvin** 4. Inhibits hormone synthesis and sytochrome P450: **Azoles** 5. SE: Liver dysfunction: **Azoles & Griseofulvin**

Answer 582

Number needed to harm = 1/[Absolute risk] Absolute risk = A/(A+B) - C/(C+D)

Answer 583

Widening of the Mediastinum (This is an aortic dissection)

Answer 584

1. _Classic presentation_ * Bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation (usually in the upper extremity because it typically occurs around C8-T1 where the spinothalamic tracts cross) * Also can cause weakness and atrophy of hand muscles 2. Associated with Arnold-Chiari malformation

Answer 585

Blastomyces

Answer 586

1. Babinski reflex 2. Moro reflex (a response to a sudden loss of support, when the infant feels as if it is falling) 3. Palmar reflex 4. Rooting reflex 5. Sucking reflex

Answer 587

1. Penicillins 2. Aminopenicillins (Piperacillin) 3. Cephalosporins 4. Erythromycin & Azithromycin 5. Metronidazole (After 1st trimester) 6. Nitrofurantoin (Used for UTIs)

Answer 588

1. Fracture of the shaft of the humerus: **Radial nerve** 2. Fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus: **Axillary nerve** 3. Supracondylar humerus fracture: **Median nerve**

Answer 589

1. Fracture of the medial epicondyle: **Ulnar nerve** 2. Anterior shoulder dislocation: **Axillary nerve** 3. Injury to the carpal tunnel: **Median nerve**

Answer 590

1. Visual hallucinations 2. Repeated falls 3. Syncopal episodes

Answer 591

1. Radial nerve and Deep brachial artery 2. Wrist extension will be affected resulting in wrist drop, and there will be loss of the brachioradialis reflex

Answer 592

Pituitary adenoma

Answer 593

1. Lateral epicondylitis 2. Medial epicondylitis

Answer 594

1. Signet-ring cells: **Gastric adenocarcinoma** 2. Nutmeg liver: **Hepatic congestion (Possibly due to Budd-Chiari syndrome)** 3. Maternal elevations of AFP: **Anencephaly, spina bifida, omphalocele, Gastroschisis**

Answer 595

1. RBC casts in urine: **Acute glomerulonephritis** 2. Currant-jelly sputum: **Klebsiella pneumoniae** 3. Dog or cat bite: **Pasteurella multocida**

Answer 596

1. IF: Granular pattern of immune complex deposition; LM: diffuse capillary thickening: **Membranous Glomerulonephritis** 2. IF: Granular pattern of immune complex deposition; LM: Hypercellular glomeruli: **Acute post-streptococcal Glomerulonephritis**

Answer 597

1. IF: Linear pattern of immune complex deposition: **Goodpastures disease** 2. IF: Deposition of IgG, IgM, IgA, and C3 in the mesangium: **IgA Nephropathy**

Answer 598

1. EM: Subendothelial humps and tram-track appearance: **Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis** 2. Nephritis, deafness, cataracts: **Alport syndrome**

Answer 599

1. LM: Crescent formation in the glomeruli: **Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis** 2. LM: Segmental sclerosis and hyalinosis: **Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis**

Answer 600

1. Purpura on back of arms and legs, abdominal pain, IgA nephropathy: **Henoch-Schonlein purpura** 2. EM: Spiking of the GBM due to electron dense subepithelial deposits: **Membranous Glomerulonephritis**

Answer 601

"VACUUM THe BathRoom" 1. Vibrio cholera 2. Acne 3. Chlamydia 4. Ureaplasma Urealyticum 5. Mycoplasma pneumoniae 6. Tularemia 7. H. pylori 8. Borrelia burgdorferi 9. Rickettsiae rickettsii

Answer 602

"PUS" 1. _Pneumonia_ * Legionella pneumoniae * Mycoplasma pneumoniae * Chlamydia pneumoniae 2. _URIs_ * Group B strep 3. _STDs_ * Gonorrhea * Chlamydia

Answer 603

"HENPEcKS" 1. H. influenzae 2. Enterobacter 3. Neisseria 4. Proteus 5. E. Coli 6. Klebsiella 7. Serratia And Gram (+) bacteria

Answer 604

Ammonium magnesium phosphate stones -\> Staghorn calculis

Answer 605

1. Acidosis: Increase K⁺ 2. Alkalosis: Decrease K⁺

Answer 606

1. Schizotypal:** Cluster A personality disorder characterized by interpersonal awkwardness, odd appearance and magical thinking** 2. Schizophrenia: **Delusions, hallucinations, and negative symptomsfor \> 6 months** 3. Schizoaffective: **Schizophrenia with a mood disorder** 4. Schizoid: **Cluster A personality disorder characterized by _voluntary_ social withdrawal** 5. Schizophreniform: **Symptoms of Schizoprenia for \> 1 month but \< 6 months**

Answer 607

"Even Some Pretty Nasty Killers Have Shiny Bodies" 1. E. Coli 2. Strep. pneumo 3. Pseudomonas 4. Neisseria Meningitidis 5. Klebsiella 6. H. influenzae 7. Salmonella 8. Group B strep

Answer 608

1. Croup (parainfluenza virus) 2. Epiglottitis (H. influenza type B)

Answer 609

1. Signet ring cells in the ovary: **Krukenberg tumor (Gastric carcinoma metastasized to the ovary)** 2. Signet rings in RBCs: **Malaria** 3. Smudge cell: **CLL** 4. Spike and dome appearance of glomerulus on EM: **Membranous glomerulonephritis**

Answer 610

1. Tram track appearance of glomerulus on light microscopy: **Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis** 2. Strawberry tongue: **Scarlet fever of Kawasaki disease** 3. Most common location of tophi: **External ear**

Answer 611

Internuclear Opthalmoplegia due to damage to the **left Medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF)**

Answer 612

Tibial nerve

Answer 613

1. Pericarditis 2. Occurs 2-4 weeks after a MI 3. Fever, Chest pain, and Elevated ESR

Answer 614

1. Excessive need to be taken care of, submissive and clinging behavior: **Dependent** 2. Low self-confidence, fears of separation and losing support: **Dependent** 3. Grandiosity, feels he is entitled to things, lack of empathy: **Narcissistic** 4. Suicide attempts (-\> 15% mortality), unstable mood and behavior: **Borderline**

Answer 615

1. Sense of emptiness and loneliness, impulsiveness: **Borderline** 2. Odd appearance, thoughts, and behavior; no psychosis; social awkwardness: **Schizotypal** 3. Controlling, perfectionistic, orderly, stubborn, indecisive: **Obsessive Compulsive** 4. Criminality, unable to conform to social norms, disregard for other's rights: **Antisocial**

Answer 616

1. Antiepithelial cell antibodies: **Pemphigus Vulgaris** 2. Anti-basement membrane antibodies: **Goodpastures** 3. Cough, conjunctivits, coryza, fever: **Measles** 4. Councilman bodies: **Viral hepatitis**

Answer 617

1. Green/yellow pigment just within the corneoscleral margin: **Wilsons disease** 2. Anticentromere antibodies: **CREST syndrome** 3. Dementia + eosinophilic inclusions in neurons: **Lewy body dementia** 4. Anti-dsDNA antibodies (ANA antibodies): **Lupus with renal disease**

Answer 618

1. Wind: Bronchiectasis 2. Water: UTI 3. Wound: Wound infection 4. Walking: DVT 5. Wonder drugs: Drug reaction 6. Wein (vein): Thrombophlebitis

Answer 619

1. Cause of DIC: **Sepsis, trauma, OB complications, pancreatitis, malignancy, transfusion** 2. Heart murmur: **Mitral valve prolapse** 3. Coronary artery involved in thrombosis: **LAD** 4. Cause of death in lupus patients: **Renal failure (Lupus Nephropathy)** 5. Congenital heart anomaly: **VSD**

Answer 620

1. Delusions, hallucinations, strange behavior, loose associations 2. Flat affect, poor hygiene/grooming, social withdrawal, thought blocking, poor motivation, poverty of speech (alogia)

Answer 621

1. Wilms tumor 2. Anaridia 3. Genitourinary malformation 4. Retardation (mental and motor)

Answer 622

Patient likely taking a Beta-agonist -\> Causing a shift of Potassium into cells -\> Hypokalemia

Answer 623

1. N. gonorrhoeae 2. Ceftriaxone

Answer 624

1. Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn syndrome) 2. Aldosterone antagonists like Spironolactone

Answer 625

1. Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy: **Sarcoidosis** 2. Cherry-red spot on the macula: **Tay-Sachs disease, Niemann-Pick disease, Central retinal artery occlusion** 3. Slapped cheek rash on child: **Fifth disease (Parvovirus B19)** 4. Organism associated with dog or cat bite: **Pasteurella multocida**

Answer 626

1. Facial muscle spasm upon tapping the cheek: **Chvostek's sign** 2. Cough, conjunctivitis, coryza: **Measles** 3. Nephritis, hearing loss, cataracts: **Alport syndrome**

Answer 627

1. Epidural space 2. Subarachnoid space

Answer 628

1. Scrotum: **Labia majora** 2. Prostate gland: **Urethral & paraurethral glands of Skene** 3. Glans penis: **Gland clitoris**

Answer 629

1. Corpus spongiosum: **Vestibular bulb** 2. Bulbourethral glands: **Vestibular glands (Bartholin glands)** 3. Ventral shaft of the penis: **Labia minora**

Answer 630

Phenylalanine -(Phenylalanine Hydroxylase +THB)-\> Tyrosine -(Tyrosine Hydroxylase + THB)-\> L-Dopa -(Dopa Decarboxylase + B6)-\>Dopamine -(Vitamin C)-\> Norepinephrine -(SAM)-\> Epinephrine

Answer 631

1. Dorsal columns: **Medulla** 2. Lateral corticospinal tract: **Medullary pyramids** 3. Spinothalamic tract: **Anterior white commissure (3 segments above region of innervation)**

Answer 632

The cell bodies of the anterior horn

Answer 633

1. Polio 2. West Nile virus 3. ALS

Answer 634

C. Diff Colitis

Answer 635

1. Lens-shaped lesion on head CT: **Epidural hematoma** 2. No milk production in the postpartum period: **Sheehan syndrome** 3. Pigmented hamartomas in the iris: **Neurofibromatosis**

Answer 636

1. Howell-Jolly bodies: **Asplenia** 2. Cancer associated with asbestos: **Mesothelioma and Bronchogenic carcinoma** 3. Owl's eye inclusions: **CMV**

Answer 637

1. Owl's eye nucleus: **Hodgkin's lymphoma** 2. Owl's eye protozoan: **Giradia lamblia** 3. 50 year-old man with new, unexplained skin yellowing and no other symptoms: **Pancreatic cancer (Painless jaundice)**

Answer 638

_High pH_ 1. Bacterial vaginosis 2. Trichomonas _Low pH_ 1. Candidiasis 2. Physiologic discharge (normal)

Answer 639

_Paramesonephric (Mullerian) ducts develop into:_ 1. Fallopian tubes 2. Uterus 3. Upper 1/3 of the vagina

Answer 640

Her (parotid gland) symptoms suggest a history of purging. Purging and other weightloss efforts in a patient of normal weight suggests **Bulemia nervosa**. If the patient was underweight it might be more indicative of Anorexia nervosa

Answer 641

Roseola (Sixth disease) is caused by **HHV-6** and is characterized by: 1. **High fever for a few days** 2. **Diffuse maculopapular rash**

Answer 642

MCL and ACL (Unlucky triad)

Answer 643

1. Cat scratch: **Bartonella** 2. Cat bite: **Pasteurella** 3. Cat feces: **Toxoplasma** 4. Puppy feces: **Yersinia enterocolitica** 5. Animal urine: **Leptospira, Hantavirus (Rodent urine)**

Answer 644

1. Primaquine: **Antimalarial** 2. Saquinavir: **Protease inhibitor** 3. Betaxolol: **Beta-blocker (B1 selective when first letter is in the first half of alphabet)** 4. Prazosin: **Alpha-blocker** 5. Thiopental: **Barbiturate**

Answer 645

1. Tranylcypromine: **MAOI** 2. Sertraline: **SSRI** 3. Temazepam: **Benzodiazepine** 4. Desipramine: **TCA** 5. Captopril: **ACE-inhibitor**

Answer 646

1. Busulfan: **Anticancer (DNA alkylating agent)** 2. Moxifloxacin: **Fluoroquinolones** 3. Zanamivir: **NRTI** 4. Miconazole: **Antifungal**

Answer 647

1. Involuntary withholding of a feeling from conscience awareness: **Repression** 2. A veteran that can describe horrific war details without any emotion: **Isolation** 3. A child abuser was himself abused as a child: **Identification**

Answer 648

1. Underlies all other defense mechanisms: **Repression** 2. May lead to multiple personalities: **Dissociation** 3. Adult whining, bedwetting, crying: **Regression**

Answer 649

1. Thyroid cells with optically clear nuclei: **Papillary thyroid carcinoma** 2. Anemia with hypersegmented neutrophils: **B12 or fotal deficiency** 3. Branching rods on oral infection: **Actinomyces israelii** 4. Eczema + recurrent infections + thrombocytopenia: **Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (mutations in a gene on the short arm of the X chromosome, which was termed Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome protein - WASp)** 5. Hemosiderinuria + thrombosis: **Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria**

Answer 650

1. Most common malignant primary bone tumor of children: **Osteosarcoma** 2. Most common benign bone tumor: **Osteochondroma** 3. 11;22 translocation: **Ewing Sarcoma**

Answer 651

1. Soap-bubble appearance on X-ray: **Giant cell tumor** 2. Onion-skin appearance of bone: **Ewing sarcoma** 3. Codman's triangle on X-ray: **Osteosarcoma**

Answer 652

Compression of the IVC

Answer 653

1. Sarcoid 2. Amyloid 3. Hemochromatosis 4. Loeffler disease (eosinophilia and eosinophilic penetration of the cardiac myocytes leads to a fibrotic thickening of portions of the heart) 5. Endocardial fiber elastosis (thickening of the endocardium due to an increase in the amount of supporting connective tissue and elastic fibers) 6. Post-radiation fibrosis

Answer 654

1. Caudate atrophy 2. Chorea 3. CAG repeats on Chromosome 4 4. "Cuarenta" (40 years of age) 5. Cognitive decline

Answer 655

1. Bilateral renal agenesis from a malformation of the ureteric bud 2. Oligohydramnios 3. Limb & facial deformities 4. Pulmonary hypoplasia

Answer 656

Anaclitic depression

Answer 657

1. Inguinal hernia 2. Herniated bowel becomes incarcerated

Answer 658

1. Focal myocardial inflammation with multinucleate giant cells: **Aschoff bodies (Rheumatic fever)** 2. Eosinophilic cytoplasmic globules in liver near nucleus: **Mallory bodies (Alcoholic liver disease)** 3. Desquamated epithelial casts in sputum: **Curschmann spirals (Bronchial Asthma)**

Answer 659

1. "Onion-skin" Periosteal reaction: **Ewing Sarcoma of bone** 2. Pseudopalisading tumor cell arrangement: **Glioblastoma (Most common primary brain tumor in adults)** 3. Elevated serum uric acid: **Gout, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, Myeloproliferative disorders, Diuretics (loops, thiazides)**

Answer 660

_Newborn-6m_ 1. Group B strep 2. E. Coli 3. Listeria _Children (6m-6y)_ 1. Strep Pneumo 2. N. Meningitidis 3. H. influenzae 4. Enterovirus _6y-60y_ 1. Strep pneumo 2. N. Meningitidis 3. Enteroviruses 4. HSV _60+y_ 1. Strep pneumo 2. Gram (-) rods 3. Listeria

Answer 661

1. Superior border: Inferior epigastric artery 2. Medial border: Rectus abdominus 3. Lateral border: Inguinal ligament

Answer 662

1. Large "Bull's eye" rash: **Lyme disease** 2. Strawberry tongue: **Scarlet fever, Kawasaki disease, Toxic shock syndrome** 3. Resting tremor; Rigidity: **Parkinsons disease** 4. Rash on palms and soles: **Hand, foot, and mouth disease (Coxsackie A virus), Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever, Secondary Syphillis**

Answer 663

1. Convulsions 2. Coma 3. Cardiotoxicity 4. Hyperpyrexia 5. Respiratory depression

Answer 664

1. Anti-GBM antibodies (Immunofluorescence): **Goodpastures disease** 2. Kimmelstiel-Wilson Lesions (Light Microscope): **Diabetes nephropathy** 3. "Spike and dome" appearance (Electron microscope): **Membranous glomerulonephritis** 4. "Tram-Track" Appearance of subendothelial humps (Electron microscope): **Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis** 5. Subepithelial humps (Electron microscope): **Acute Post-Streptococcal glomerulonephritis**

Answer 665

1. Accumulation of GM2 ganglioside: **Tay-Sachs disease** 2. Associated with renal failure: **Fabry disease** 3. Accumulation of dermatan sulfate: **Hunters syndrome, Hurler disease, Scheie syndrome** 4. Defiency in hexosaminidase: **Tay-Sachs disease**

Answer 666

1. Inhibits CMV DNA polymerase: **Ganciclovir, Foscarnet** 2. Used in treatment for chronic hepatitis C: **Ribavirin (with IFN-alpha)** 3. Blocks viral penetration and uncoating: **Amantidine and Rimantidine** 4. Treates both influenza A and B: **Oseltamivir and Zanamivir** 5. Second-line for CMV retinitis: **Foscarnet**

Answer 667

1. Grow Gram (-) bacteria but not Gram (+) bacteria 2. Distinguishes lactose fermenters (appear pink) from non-lactose fermenters (appear white)

Answer 668

1. Inhibits 50S peptidyltransferase: **Streptogramins, Chloramphenicol** 2. Binds 50S, blocking translocation: **Linezolid, Macrolides** 3. Binds 30S, preventing attachment of tRNA: **Tetracyclines**

Answer 669

1. Inhibits prokaryotic RNA polymerase: **Rifampin** 2. Inhibits prokaryotic topoisomerase: **Fluoroquinolones** 3. Inhibits prokaryotic dihydrofolate reductase: **Trimethoprim**

Answer 670

Ruptured berry aneurysm (Subarachnoid hemorrhage)

Answer 671

1. Used to treat infertility 2. Partial agonist to estrogen receptors in the hypothalamus -\> induces FSH secretion -\> Stimulates follicles

Answer 672

1. Minocycline: **Tetracycline** 2. Gentamycin: **Aminoglycoside** 3. Erythromycin: **Macrolide** 4. Tobramycin: **Aminoglycoside** 5. Azithromycin: **Macrolide**

Answer 673

1. Doxycycline: **Tetracycline** 2. Amikacin: **Amikacin** 3. Neomycin: **Aminoglycoside** 4. Clarithromycin: **Macrolide** 5. Clindamycin: **Protein synthesis inhibitor (Lincosamide)**

Answer 674

1. Smudge cell: **CLL** 2. Port-wine stain in opthalmic division of trigeminal nerve: **Sturge-Weber syndrome** 3. S3 heart sound: **Dilated cardiomyopathy, Post MI, Associated with LV failure, Associated with mitral regurgitation, Associated with left to right shunt** 4. Adrenal hemorrhage associated with meningococcemia: **Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome**

Answer 675

1. Ferruginous bodies: **Asbestos** 2. Subepithelial humps on EM: **Acute Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis** 3. Spike and dome on EM: **Membranous glomerulonephritis** 4. Myocyte disarray: **Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy**

Answer 676

1. Currant jelly stool: **Intussusception** 2. Sacrolitis: **Ankylosing Spondylitis** 3. Adverse reaction from mixing succinylcholine with inhaled anesthetics: **Malignant hyperthermia**

Answer 677

1. Copper, gold, arsenic: **Penicillamine** 2. Arsenic, mercury, gold: **Dimercaperol, Succimer** 3. t-PA, streptokinase: **Aminocaproic acid** 4. Digitalis: **Stop digoxin, Lidocaine, normalize K and Mg, atropine, Anti-digoxin antibody fragments**

Answer 678

1. Agranulocytosis: **Colzapine, carbamazepine, colchicine, PTU, methimazole** 2. Osteoporosis: **Glucocorticoids, heparin (longterm use)** 3. Pulmonary fibrosis: **Busulfan, Bleomycin, Amiodarone**

Answer 679

1. Gynecomastia: **"Some Drugs Create Awesome Knockers" - Spironolactone, Digoxin, Cimetidine, Alcohol, Ketoconazole** 2. Photosensitivity: **"SAT for a Photo" - Sulfonamides, Amiodarone, Tetracyclines** 3. Drug-induced lupus: **"SHIPP" - Sulfonamides, Hydralazine, Isoniazid, Phenytoin, Procainamide**

Answer 680

1. Hypertension + hypokalemia + metabolic alkalosis: **Hyperaldosteronism (Conn syndrome)** 2. Fever + night sweats + weight loss: **Lymphoma, TB (B symptoms)** 3. Adrenal hemorrhage due to meningococcemia: **Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome** 4. Blue Sclera: **Osteogenesis Imperfecta**

Answer 681

1. Hyperphagia, hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperdocility: **Kluver-Bucy syndrome (Bilateral amygdala lesion)** 2. Nystagmus, intention, tremor, scanning speech: **Charcot triad of Multiple Sclerosis** 3. Lower extremity purpura, arthralgias, renal disease: **Henoch-Schonlein purpura**

DIT Warm-up Questions Flashcards

(723 cards)