DIT2 Flashcards
1
Q
Owl Eye Inclusions
A
CMV
2
Q
Owl Eye nucleus
A
EBV/Hodgkin’s
3
Q
Owl eye protozoa
A
Giardia
4
Q
PKU pt…what does their skin look like?
A
fair
5
Q
What is Intertrigo?
A
candidiasis of skin in folds
6
Q
candida sepsis often associated with what?
A
central line/IV drug user
7
Q
latex agglutination test
A
Cryptococcus
8
Q
AIDs pt with chronic watery diarrhea. what will you see microscopically and with what stain?
A
acid fast oocysts=cryptosporidium
9
Q
what are two forms of Giardia?
A
Trophozoite (4 flagella); cyst
10
Q
anchovy paste exudate in liver
A
entamoeba hystolytica
11
Q
what are the two forms of entamoeba histolytica and what do they look like?
A
Trophozoites–>have RBC in cytoplasm
Cysts–>can have 4 nuclei
12
Q
How to treat entamoeba histolytica?
A
first metronidazole to kill the trophozoites
then use iodoquinol or paromomycin to rid of the cysts
13
Q
what do you use metronidazole for?
A
GET GAP on the metrotrain Giardia Entamoeba Trichomonas Gardenerella anaerobic bacteria Pylori (H.)
14
Q
Naegleria fowleri…treatment? how effective is it?
A
Amphotericin B… rarely ever successful
15
Q
Trypanosoma Brucei tx
A
Suramin and Melarsoprol
16
Q
Chagas disease treatment?
A
Benzinidazole; nifurtimox
17
Q
fever, pancytopenia, hepatosplenomegaly
A
Leishmania Donovani
18
Q
what nerve innervates teres minor?
A
axillary
19
Q
name the carpal bones
A
So long the pinky, here comes the thumb
Scaphoid Lunate Triquetrum Pisiform Hamate Capitate Trapizoid Trapesium
20
Q
Lunate dislocatioin can cause what
A
carpal tunnel syndrome
21
Q
how does Acetaminophen work?
A
It’s a cox inhibitor that works mostly in the CNS…thus it’s less effective for antiinflammation but does work for antipyretic and analgesic
22
Q
what is NAPQI?
A
acetaminophen metabolite that depletes glutathione
23
Q
three uses of N acetylcystein?
A
Nephropathy, acetaminophen tox, cystic fibrosis
24
Q
RA is what type of hypersensitivity?
A
Type IV and Type III
25
What are the conditions with over production of uric acid?
Lesch Nyhan, PRPP excess, VonGierke increased cell turn over
26
Probenecid inhibits excretion of what?
Penicillin
27
what diseases are associated with pseudogout?
hemochromatosis, hypo and hyperparathyroididsm
28
chondrocalcinosis on xray in knee? dx
pseudogout
29
three symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis?
bamboo sacraliliac joints,
Uveitis
aortic regurg
30
Drugs to treat Lupus?
Steroids, Immunosuppressive (cyclophosphomide), NSAIDS, hydroxychlorquine
31
28 year old AA woman presents with fever, rash, joint pain?
SLE
32
Symptoms of SLE
```
RASH OR PAIN
Rash (malar or discoid)
Arthritis
Serositis
Hematologic abnormalities (cytopenia)
Oral/nasal ulcers
Renal disease/Raynaud
Photosensitivty
ANA
Immunosuppresants
Neurologic disorders
```
33
what are flat nevi called?
Junctional nevi
34
what are papular nevi called?
Intradermal nevi
35
if you see stratum corneum cells with nuclei...what do you think of? what is this called?
parakeratosis
36
albinism. causes?
Tyrosinase decrease activity
Tyrosine transport
failure of melanocytes to migrate
37
which layer of epidermis is affected in staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?
stratum granulosum
38
pemphigous vulgaris vs bullos pemphigoid on histology. how are they different?
pemphigous vulgaris is net like in the stratum spinosum (desmosomes);
Bullos pemphigoid is a line at the level of the dermal epidermal junction (hemidesmosomes)
39
dermatitis herpetiformis...what is this? what do you see on biopsy?
Celiac disease antibody complexes attaching to dermal papilla
40
ring rash after drug?
erythema multiforme
41
what is the difference between TEN and Stevens johnson?
TEN is more than 30% of the body involvement
42
6 Ps of Lichen planus?
pruitic, purple, papule/plaque, planar, polygnal
43
Hep C is associated with what skin disorder?
Lichen planus
44
keratoacanthoma is associated with what?
squamous cell carcinoma of the skin
45
palisading nuclei on skin lesion
Basal cell carcinoma
46
ABCDE of melanoma risk?
asymmetry, border, color, diameter >6mm, evolving
47
keratin filled cysts in skin
seborrheic keratosis
48
what do you use to treat ecchinococcus?
prezaquantal
49
What is a bad outcome of ecchinococcus?
calcified liver cysts can rupture and cause anaphylaxis
50
what do you use to treat tenia solium/saginatum?
prazelquantel and albendazole
51
swiss cheese brain?
tenia (tape worms)
52
name two hook worms
Necator Americanus
| Ancyclostoma duodenale
53
Aminoglycosides + Cephalosporins. what side effect
nephrotoxicity
54
Aminoglycoside +loop diuretics. waht side effect
ototoxicity
55
what are the side effects of aminoglycosides?
nephrotox, ototox, teratogen AmiNOTglycosides
56
what type of bacteria do aminoglycosides not workon?
anaerobes
57
what are the sideeffects of tetracyclins?
Teeth, tummy, Terrible vision
58
what are penicillin binding proteins?
transpeptidase
59
What do you use aminopenicillins to treat?
```
Hemophilus
E. coli
Listeria
Proteus
Shigella
Salmonella
Enterococci
```
60
what drug has cholestatic hepatitis as a side effect?
macrolides
61
macrolides can potentiate what two other meds?
theophylline and oral anticoagulants
62
what are the sideeffects of macrolides?
```
Motility
Arrythmias (QT prolongation)
Cholestatic hepatitis
Rash
eOsinophilia
```
63
what do you always give with Imipenem?
Cilastatin, which inhibits renal dehydropeptidase I to prevent drug inactivation
64
side effect of carbapenems
GI, rash, and seizures
65
vancomycin side effects?
Nephrotox, ototox, thrombophlebitis, redman
66
Sulfonamides. mech?
PABA antimetabolites that inhibit dihydropterate synthase
67
RedGreen color blindness relating to drug?
Ethanbutol and Amphotericin B
68
amphotericin B side effects?
nephrotoxicity, cardiotoxicity, anemia, hypotension
69
treatment for Trypanosoma Brucei
Suramin and Melarsoprol
70
treatment for trypanosoma Cruzi
Nifurtimox
71
treatment for leishmaniasis
amphotericin B and Stibogluconate
72
raltegravir side effect?
hypercholesterolemia
73
what do you treat with IFNbeta?
MS
74
What do you treat with INFgamma?
Chronic granulomatous disease
75
what do you use to treat parkinson's
```
Bromocriptine/ropinol
Amantadine
Levadopa
Selegiline
Antimuscarinic
```
76
what happens if a man has a lot of SHBG?
low testosterone-->gynecomastia, impotence...etc
77
What happens if a woman has low SHBG?
high testosterone-->hirsutism
78
How does OCP affect SHBG?
increases SHBG
79
where is estradiol produced?
estrone?
Estriol?
ovary=estradiol
estrone=fat cells
estriol=placenta
80
which hormones share the similar alpha unit with hCG?
FSH, LH, and TSH
81
Bombesin positive tumor in child
Neuroblastoma
82
what's the clinical diagnostic difference in PEx for Wilm's tumor and neuroblastoma?
neuroblastoma is irregular mass that crosses midline.
wilm's will be a smooth unilateral tumor.
83
how do people with gigantism usually die?
cardiac failure
84
what will happen on labs with glucose tolerance test in a patient with acromegaly?
GH will not be suppressed
85
What is Pegvisomant?
GH receptor antagonist
86
ketoconazole inhibits/ ACTH induces what enzyme in the steroid synthesis pathway?
cholesterole Desmolase
87
Angiotensin II increases aldosterone via induction of what enzyme?
aldosterone synthase
88
what are the common features in hormones in adrenal hyperplasia diseases?
low coritsol causing increased in ACTH thus hyperplasia
89
what does deficiency in 3beta hydroxysteroid do?
none of the steroid hormones are produced (mineralo, corticosteroid, and sex hormones). Only DHEA is produced.
90
what are the effects of cortisol?
```
BIG FIB
Blood pressure increase alpha1 receptors
Insulin resistance
Gluconeogenesis/lipolysis
Fibrosis of skin
Immunodeficiency (Due to decreased phospholipase A2)
Bone formation decrease
```
91
what are the side effects of corticosteroid excess
BAM CUSHINGOID
Buffalo hump
amenorrhea
moon facies
```
Crazy
ulcers
skin striae
hypertension
infections
necrosis of fem head
glaucoma
osteoporosis
immunesuppression
dm
```
92
treatments for nephrogenic Diabetes insipidus?
hydrochlorothiazide
amiloride
indemethacin
93
what induces aldosterone secretion?
high K, low Na, and AngII
94
which corticosteroid has really high mineralosteroid activity?
Fludrocortasone
95
what are the steps of thyroid hormone synthesis?
Oxidation (of I to I2)
Oganification (combine I to thyroglobulins --made of tyrosine)
Coupling (MIT and DIT)
96
what is the action of PTU?
it inhibit thyroid peroxidase: oxidation of I, organification of I to tyrosine on thryoglobulins, and coupling of the residues
It also inhibits 5'deiodinase preventing T4 conversion to T3 in periphery
97
Wolff-Chiakoff effect?
excess iodine actually inhibits thyroid peroxidase... resulting in decreased thyroid hormone despite giving more iodine
98
what does thyroid hormones control?
bone, brain, beta adrenergics, and basal metabolic rate
99
Jod Basedow phenomenon?
thyrotoxicosis in pt with iodeine deficiency goiter
100
how do you treat thyrotoxicosis?
PTU, Propranolol, and prednisone
101
homer wright pseudorosetts
medulloblastoma of brain
neuroblastoma of kidney
both are in kids
102
hyperthyroidism with nothing in the neck. what coouuuuuld it be?
struma ovarii
103
cretinism in developing country. cause?
iodine deficiency
104
cretinism in the US. cause?
thyroid dysgenesis/agenesis/maternal hypothyroidism
105
Hashimoto thyroditis is associated with what kind of cancer?
non Hodgkin's lymphoma
106
Hurthle cells are seen in what disease
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
107
Riedel's Thyroditis can mimick what?
anaplastic thryoid carcinoma
108
Hot nodule. what is it NOT
cancer.
109
papillary thyroid carcinoma is associated with what gene mutations?
RET/BRAF
110
what can you NOT use to distinguish follicular adenoma and follicular carcinoma?
fine needle aspiration
111
Cotton Wool spots in retina
Diabetes, AIDS, hypertension
112
what are the three complications of DM due to glycosylation
Retinopathy, Nephropathy, and peripheral neuropathy
113
what can precipitate DKA in T1DM?
any stresses on the body that increases: catecholamines, glucagon, and cortisol...becasue these things all increase glucagon...leading to hyperglycemia.
common things are infections,severe illnesses, dehydration, alcohol/drugs, exogenous corticosteroids
114
DKA tx
fluids, insulin, K
115
metformin contraindication
renal failure
116
how do the DPP4 inhibitors work?
They inhibit GLP breakdown to augment the oral glucose effect of insulin release
117
GLP analogs. what are they? what's the side effect?
Exenatide, Liraglutide
| pancreatitis
118
DDP4 inhibitors. what's the side effects?
not as effective. also respiratory/urinary tract infection
119
what is pramlintide?
amylin analog; decreases gastric emptying; decreases glucagon.
120
what is the criteria for metabolic syndrome?
waist size >40/35
triglycerid >150
HDL 100 fasting (140 for 2 hour tolerance)
121
How do you calculate BMI
weight/heigh^2
122
what other than calcium regulates PTH? how?
Mg. if low-->increase PTH, if very low-->decrease PTH
123
what drug causes SIADH?
cyclophosphomide, SSRI, carbamazapine
124
VIPoma sx?
watery diarrhea, achlorhydria, hypokalemia
125
prolactin is structurally homologous to what?
growth hormone
126
in high iodine supplementation thyroid hormone production decreases. what is this called? and why does it decrease?
This is Wolff-Chiakoff; excess iodine inhibits organification of I2 to tyrosine units of thyroglobulin
127
Anterior 2/3 of tongue is from what embryonic origin?
| What about the posterior 1/3?
pharyngeal arches 1,2
| pharyngeal arches 3,4
128
what nerves stimulate the salivary glands?
SNS system stimulates sublingual via superior cervical ganglion
PNS stimulates parotid via VII and IX
129
sialolithiasis treatment?
stone in salivary gland/duct... treat by sucking on sour candy
130
salivary tumor with chondromyxoid stroma
pleomorphic adenoma
131
salivary tumor with germinal centers
Warthin's tumor
132
most common malignant salivary gland tumor
mucoepidermoid carcinoma
133
dark urine, light stool, jaundice
blockage in the biliary system
134
what type of tissue can be in meckle's diverticulum? what is it a remnant of?
it's a remnant of the vitellin duct; it can have pancreatic and/or gastric tissue in it.
135
punched out ulcers in esophagus
HSV1
136
linear ulcers in esophagus. ddx?
CMV esophagitis or mallory weiss
137
anti smooth muscle abodies
autoimmune hepatitis
138
why can't chlamydia and rickettsia replicate outside?
because they can't make ATP
139
what stimulates gastrin secretion besides Ach?
phenylalanine, tryptophan, and calcium
140
what kind of hormone does zollinger ellison syndrome. what other syndrome is it associated with?
gastrinoma...thus excess acid secretion.
| it's associated with MEN1
141
how do you treat zollinger ellison?
PPI and octreotide
142
what are the receptors on gastric parietal cells that regulates acid secretion?
M3, CCKb (gastrin receptor), H2 histamine R,
| Prostaglandin and Somatostatin Gi receptors
143
acute gastritis causes
NSAIDS,
alcohol,
burns (curling)
brain injury (Cushing's)
144
why does brain injury cause stomach ulcers?
this is cushing's ulcer.
| increased vagal tone leads to abundance of acid secretion
145
what are the three antacids?
aluminum hydroxide
magnesium hydroxide
calcium carbonate
146
what is a side effect of calcium carbonate?
hypercalcemia...leading to gastrin activation...which leads to rebound acid secretion.
147
what are side effects of magnesium hydroxide? what is this drug?
this is an antacid.
| It could cause diarrhea, hypotension/hypokalemia
148
what are some side effects of aluminum hydroxide?
constipation, hypophosphatemia
149
Cimetadine SE
Gynecomastia/impotence
CYP Inhibitor
Decreases methemoglobin
thrombocytopenia
150
baby with exclusive diet of goat's milk
Folate deficiency
151
you can get what vitamin deficiency in abetalipoproteinemia?
D, E, A, K
152
nephrotoxic in 75% patients
cyclosporin
153
angiodysplasia... what is it? where is it?
abnl dilated blood vessels in GI. cecum, terminal llleum, and ascending colon. causes hematochezia.
Dx with angiography
154
Niacin deficiency can be seen in what neoplastic disease of the GI tract?
carcinoid syndrome/tumor
155
Down syndrome GI issues
Celiac
Duod atresia
hirshsprung
annular pancreas
156
adenomatous colon polyps. what is it what are the types
can lead to adenocarcinoma. either tubular or villous
157
what's the most common type of colonic polyp?
hyperplastic
158
Young child with colon polyp. what does it mean if it's 1; what does it mean if it's many?
1 is fine. many=juvenile polyposis syndrome... increased risk of adenocarcinoma
159
colon cancer tumor marker?
CEA. not very specific
160
Turcot syndrome?
colon cancer, medulloblastoma
161
gardner's syndrome?
colon cancer, bone/softtissue tumors, lipomas, retinal pigment epithelium hypertrophy
162
what is unique about HNPCC colon cancer location?
It's in the proximal colon versus almost everything else is in the distal
163
what does CCK do?
it induces gall bladder contraction and secretion of pancreatic enzymes
164
changes in normal aging in the heart
decreased ventricular size with increased septal thickness
Lipofuscin deposition
amyloid deposition
165
bipolar patient treated with antidepressant could experience what side effect?
mania
166
metoprolol blocks renin release from juxtaglomerular cells. How does this happen?
Catecholamines bind to JG cells to induce renin release. metoprolol blocks beta1 catecholamine receptors
167
rate limiting step in urea cycle?
CPSI which is activated by NAG
168
where do the nitrogens come from to form urea?
Aspartate and NH3
169
what medication should you give to pt post subarachnoid hemorrhage? why?
vasospasm often occurs post SAH, give Nimodipine to prevent further ischemia
170
contents of the hepatoduodenal ligament?
portal vein, proper hepatic artery, and common bile duct
171
are dark skinned children or light skinned children more likely to get rickets?
dark
172
hexagonal kidney stones...what's the defect?
absorption Cysteine, Ornithing, Lysine, and Arginine. esp reabsorption of cystein thus causing kidneystones
173
why is epi the drug of choice in anaphylaxis
epi is better because while it has alpha stim...it also has beta 2 stimulation thus bronchodilation
174
CO tox treatment
100% O2 to overturn the competitive inhibition
175
nodules in fallopian tubes. acquired fixation of uterus in the retroverted position.
endometriosis. dyschezia, dyspareunia, dysmenorrhea
176
Nacetylcysteine does what to alleviate acetaminophen toxicity?
It regenerates glutathione AND it provides sulfhydryl groups for normal sulfation of acetamenophen
177
how is acetaminophen metabolized normally? how is it metabolized to the toxic form?
normally it's sulfation and glucuronidation.
In toxicity... it's metabolized by CYP to NAPQI. when glutathione is depleted
178
niacin side effects
flushing (vasodilation), hyerglycemia, hyperurecemia
179
histo changes on lichen planus?
hypergranulosis...increased granular layer
180
histo changes in atopic dermatitis/ other allergic/atopic skin conditions?
spongiosis... edema within the epithelia
181
liver growth with OCP use?
hepatic adenoma
182
most common hepatic benign tumor?
cavernous hemangioma. DO NOT biopsy
183
name 2 key things in lambert eaton that is different than myasthenia?
better with use; has autonomic symptoms such as impotence
184
upper and lower motor signs. no sensory involvement
ALS
185
Hb Barts units; what disease is this associated?
gamma4; hydrops fetalis; associated with 4 deletion alpha thalassemias
186
Hb Gower units
zeta2, epsilon2
187
Hb A2 units
alpha2delta2
188
Hb Fetal
alpha2gamma2
189
HbH units? what disease is this associated with?
Beta4; 3 deletion alpha thalassemia
190
how can you differentiate crigler nijjar type I and II?
phenobarbital (CYP inducer to increase UDP glucuroynl transf) will make type II better and type I will not get better
191
elevated unconjugated Bili...ddx?
hemolysis, crigler nijjar, gilbert, physiologic
192
spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is associated with what?
ascites
193
serum ascites albumin gradient determines what?
SAAG is measure of serum albumin -ascites albumin
If the SAAG is greater than 1.1 then it's portal hypertension... AKA the hydrostatic pressure is high and pushed the fluids out
194
Mallory bodies are WHAT?
keratin
195
hepatic adenoma is associated with what? what are some of its complications?
OCP and steroids; rupture/HCC
196
angiosarcoma of the liver is associated with what?
vinyl chloride; arsenic
197
ANA +/- antismooth muscle antibodies
autoimmune hepatitis type I
198
Liver/kidney microsomal antibodies
autoimmune hepatitis type II
199
pANCA associated liver disease
primary scleosing cholangitis
200
primary biliary cirrhosis treatment
ursodeoxycholic acid
201
What hormone should you measure to confirm menopause?
FSH
202
bilateral femur fx with SOB, confusion, and petechiae. dx?
fat emboli, with microglobulin passing through the lungs via AV shunts to the arterial side
203
neoplastic lymphnode that fluctuates in size with time
Follicular lymphoma. it's the most indolent
204
what is marcus gunn pupils?
It's afferent defect of the pupililary reflex. It could be an optic nerve lesion but it could also be a optic tract lesion affecting the contralateral side
205
why might you have hemolysis with Mycoplasma pneumo infection?
similar antigens leading to cross reactivity
206
beta thalassemia results from defects in trascription, translation, or splicing. what is the most common?
splicing defects or translation termination
207
what is granulomatosis infantiseptica?
Listeria granuloma
208
what is thalassemia major versus minor?
major is homozygous deletion of beta gene; minor is heterozygous
209
what do you think of when you see all sorts of crazy looking RBCs?
beta thalassemia major
210
what kind of globin units do you usually see in beta thalassemia major
alpha2gamma2
211
what kind of globin units do you see in beta thalassemia minor?
alpha2delta2; HbA2
212
cystathione beta synthase deficiency
homocysteinuria
213
what dictates salivation? SNS or PNS?
both, butPNS is more duh
214
pt with hx of paget's complains of hip pain now. what is it?
osteosarcoma
215
marjolin's ulcer
malignant transformation of an old injury more than 10 years later
216
globus hystericus
lump in throat feeling without any real physical/neural causes
217
180 bp fragments on electrophoresis gel when growth factor is not added?
apoptosis identification via DNA laddering
218
vaginal foul disharge post delivery
think bacteroides species and endometritis
219
whats the charge of ferrous hemoglobin? what about ferric?
Ferrous=2; ferric=3
220
teenage male with profuse nose bleeds
angiofibroma
221
pulmonary artery pressure >25mmhg
pulmonary hypertension
222
dorsal column degeneration; peripheral neuropathy and ataxia. what vitamin deficiency?
vitamin E
223
abdominal mass in HIV patient. basophilic cells on histo. what is this
burkitt's lymphoma. EBV.
224
ARDS what is injured
pulm endothelium OR alveolar epithelium
225
classic location of CNS germinoma?
| what are the 3 key symptoms?
Pineal gland;
| sx: precocious puberty (ectopic hCG production), obstructive hydrocephalus, and parunaud's syndrome
226
risk factors for neonatal respiratory distress?
maternal DM, c section, prematurity
227
causes of ARDS?
trauma, sepsis, shock, pancreatitis, uremia, gastic aspirations, amniotic emboli
228
ivory white plaques on exterior of lung?
asbestosis
229
what population is most at risk for central sleep apnea?
premature infants
| Tx: caffeine
230
what are the histo features of lead poisoning?
microcytic anemia; basophilic stippling, and ring sideroblast
231
What enzyme is missing in acute intermittent porphyria?
porphobilinogen deaminase
232
what are the symptoms of porphyria cutanea tarda?
blisters on dorsum of hands, hyperpigmentation, hypertrichosis, tea colored urine, hep C, alcoholism
233
What are the symptoms of acute intermittent porphyria?
abd pain, psych sx, polyneuropathy, portwine urine, precipitation by drugs/alcohol
234
what enzyme is missing in porphyria cutanea tarda?
uroporphyrinogen carboxylase
235
sx of lead poisoning?
neuro/psych/developmental/HA sx, wrist drop, abd pain, renal failure
236
rate limiting step of heme synthesis?
ALASynthase
237
what is heme synthesized from? any cofactors?
glycine and succinylcoa; need B6
238
what inhibits rate limiting step of heme synthesis?
heme and glucose
239
What's Ham's test and what is it used for?
It's used for paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria. It's lowering pH to activate compliment and thus lysing the cell.
better test is flow cytometry
240
name the 6 intrinsic RBC hemolytic anemias?
PNH, hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD, PK, and HbS, HbC
241
three steps of platelet function?
adhesion, activation, aggregation
242
B symptoms
fever, night sweat, weightloss
243
what traits of Hodgkin's Lymphoma histology is a good sign?
fewer reedsterberg cells; high lymphocyte
244
what cancer has 14;18 translocation
diffuse B cell lymphoma and follicular lymphoma
245
Teenager with thymic mass
T-ALL
246
whats in cryoprecipitate?
fibrinogen/fibronectin, vwbF, VIII, XIII
247
what is myelodysplastic syndrome?
dysplasia of myeloid precursors...ineffective maturation. RISK of AML
248
pseudo pelger huet syndrome?
bilobed nutrophil...post chemo or in myelodysplastic syndrome
249
what is TdT a marker for?
immature T and B cell... for ALL
250
where does vonwillibrand factor come from?
endothelial cells and some from platelets
251
what drugs cause sexual dysfunctions?
antihypertensive, antineuroleptics, antidepressants
252
what are the layers of the endometrium?
stratum basale, stratum spongiosum, stratum compacta
253
what is oligomenorrhea
menstrual cycle of more than 35 days
254
what is menorrhagia?
heavy menstrual cycle
255
what is metorrhagia?
frequent but irregular menstrual cycle
256
what is polymenorrhea?
cycle shorter than 21 days
257
at what phase is primary oocytes arrested in?
prophase I, the goes on once follicle matures
258
at what phase is secondary oocytes arrested in?
metaphase II until fertilization
259
what is N and C of cells?
N is ploidy; C=chromosome
260
What is the N and C for gonium cells, primary cytes, secondary cytes, and mature germ cells?
Gonium=2N, 2C
Primary cytes=2N, 4C
Secondary cytes=1N, 2C
mature cells=1N, 1C
261
hCG is detectable when in the serum? what about urine?
1 week post fertilization in serum, 2 weeks post fertilization in urine AKA same time that the woman misses her period
262
fertilization occurs how long post ovulation?
24 hours
263
implantation occurs when?
6 days
264
where is hCG made?
syncytialtrophoblast
265
what is it called when coracoid scrapes the glenoid process?
Hill sach lesion
266
what is gestational hypertension?
140/90 after 20 weeks
267
causes of polyhydraminios?
inability to swallow, maternal DM, fetal anemia, and multiple gestation
268
causes of oligohydraminios?
renal agenesis, urethral valve, placental insuff
269
most common cause of miscarraige
trisomy 16
